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T-1 18-12 > DASH 1 Sec 1: Description and Operation > Flashcards

DASH 1 Sec 1: Description and Operation Flashcards

1
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The aircraft uses AC power to run most of the electrical systems.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>F</p>

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2
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The battery feeder protection unit provides over/under voltage protection for the battery.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>F</p>

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3
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>List the three indicators you should get with a good test of the fire detection system (using the Master Test switch)</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>L or R engine fire light, fire warning tone, Go light</p>

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4
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The emergency bus powers the ______.
A. Left fire warning switchlight
B. Right fire warning switchlight
C. Fire warning tone</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>C</p>

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5
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>A popped fuel circuit breaker may be reset _____ times</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>0</p>

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6
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>What makes the landing gear horn sound</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>1)Flaps 0 gear not down and locked and at least 1 throttle less the 70%N2

2) flaps 10, gear not down and locked and at least 1 throttle below 70%N2
3) flaps are extended beyond 10 and gear not down and locked</p>

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7
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Name the 3 modes of braking in the T-1</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>manual, power, anti-skid</p>

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8
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>What powers the brake system - Nitrogen, gravity, hydraulics, battery</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>hydraualics</p>

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9
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>After testing the anti-skid system, normal braking with anti-skid will not be available for ____ seconds</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>4</p>

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10
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Maximum ant-skid braking effectiveness can be obtained by landing with brakes applied</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

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11
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Manual mode is just as effective as power brake mode but requires more brake pedal pressure.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

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12
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>With normal hydraulic pressure and the anti-skid switch in OFF, you will be usijng the _____ mode of braking</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Power</p>

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13
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>With the ANTI-SKID FAIL annunciator illuminated anti-skid braking is still available but at a reduced rate.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

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14
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>________ is used to power the emergency brake system.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Nitrogen</p>

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15
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>_______ brake applications are available during emergency braking</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>7 to 10</p>

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16
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Anti-skid protection is not available during emergency braking</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

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17
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Name three times or ways the parking brake should not be set.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>1) hot brakes

2) with low temperatures and moisture is present
3) using the copilot’s pedals</p>

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18
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The flap asymmetric detector senses any difference of more than _____ degrees between ____ flaps.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>7 : main</p>

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19
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The flap indicator reports the position of the ______flap</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>right main</p>

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20
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The FLAP ASYM annunciator indicates an asymmetric situation for the ______ flaps.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>main</p>

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21
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>List the primary flight controls for the T-1A</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>spoilers, rudders, elevators</p>

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22
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>List the secondary flight controls for the T-1A.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Flaps, speedbrakes, trim</p>

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23
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The rudder boost system is not designed to fully compensate for the loss of thrust in an asymmetric condition</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

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24
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>It is possible to discharge the left engine fire bottle into the right engine</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

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25
Q 
<p class="large" style="text-align:center";>Which of the following components are driven by the accessory gear box?
A.  Oil pump
B.  DC starter generator
C.  Hydraulic pump
D.  All of the above</p>
A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>D</p>

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26
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>A popped circoit breaker in the fuel system can be reset ____ times</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>0</p>

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27
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>During crossfeed operations, the fuel system will supply fuel to a single engine from both wing tanks simultaneously.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

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28
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The boost pumps serve which purpose (s)</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>engine start, a backup for the primary jet pumps, crossfeed</p>

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29
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Fully fueled takeoff weight for the T-1A is typically ______lbs</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>16100</p>

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30
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Which of the following components is not driven by the accessory gear box?
A. oil pump
B. DC starter generator
C. hydraulic pump
D. engine bleed air regulating valves</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>D</p>

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31
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>EFC OFF or failed ground idle RPM will be _____ EFC ON values</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>below</p>

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32
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>If the engine will not start with the ignition switch in STBY, the manual mode should be used</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>F</p>

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33
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The engine synchronization system will adjust the fuel flow schedule of the _____ engine to synchronize the rpm’s</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>right</p>

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34
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The zero fuel weight of the T-1A is approximately ____lbs</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>11000</p>

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35
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The typical fully fueled takeoff weight of the T-1A is ______ lbs</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>16100</p>

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36
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>At sea level and up to 27C, the engine will develop ______ pounds of takeoff rated thrust.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>2900</p>

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37
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The access gearbox drivews the?</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>starter-generator, N2 speed sensors, oil and fuel pump, hydro-mechanical metering unit, hydraulic pump</p>

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38
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Each oil tank has a capacity of _____ gallons.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>2.03</p>

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39
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The OIL PRESS LO annunciator will illuminate when oil pressure decreases below</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>40</p>

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40
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>If the oil press-to-test indicator light system does not work, we can check the oil level by</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>using the dipstick</p>

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41
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The oil press-to-test indicator light system is the only means of checking the oil level in the T-1A.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

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42
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The maximum thrust loss due to EFC failure could be ____%</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>40</p>

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43
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>_______ contols engine fuel flow from engine start to approximately 38% N2.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>HMU</p>

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44
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Operation of the engines with the EFC off can result in</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Fuel coking on the fuel nozzles</p>

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45
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The purpose of the engine safety shutoff valve is to</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Shut down the engine when sensing a rotor shaft failure</p>

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46
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>You know a turbine rotor shaft has failed if</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>You hear a loud bang</p>

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47
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>You cannot restart an engine with a failed turbine rotor shaft</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

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48
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>With the ignition switches in STBY, the engine ignitors will automatically turn of if_____,_____ or _____.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>engine anti-ice on, stick shaker is activated, engine start switch is pressed</p>

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49
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The normal range for starter drop out during engine start is ____ to ____ %N2.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>35 to 40</p>

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50
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The _______ engine is the master in the synchronization system</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Left</p>

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51
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The synchronization actuators have a limited range of approximately ____ RPM</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>1.50%</p>

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52
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The engine sync should be turned on for takeoff and landing.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

53
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The synchronization system will not work if _____ is inoperative</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>EFC</p>

54
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Which engine sync mode (Fan or Turbine) is more effective for eliminating sonic whine?</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Fan</p>

55
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The _______ bus powers the left engine fan indicator (N1).</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>emergency</p>

56
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The ______ bus powers the left ITT.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>standby</p>

57
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>During engine start, if light off does not occur within ______ seconds, you should _____</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>10, throttle to cutoff and motor the engine</p>

58
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>During engine start, the ITT should not normally exceed ______ (ITT)</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>550C</p>

59
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>In the event of a hung start, do not advance the throttle beyond _______</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>IDLE</p>

60
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>List the three indicators you should get with a good test of the fire detection system (using the Master Test switch)</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>L or R engine fire light, fire warning tone, Go light</p>

61
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>What extinguishing agent is contained in the extinguisher bottles</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Halon</p>

62
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>All available chemical agent in the fire-extinguishing bottle is dispensed when the switchlight is pushed.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

63
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The red disc located on the left aft fuselage indicates (if missing) one or both fire extinguishing bottles have been discharged _____.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Overboard</p>

64
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>List the four things that happen when the engine fire switchlight is pressed</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>fuel valve closes/hydraulic valve closes/generator is disconned/extinguisher system armed</p>

65
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The fuel system is designed to operate up the ______feet</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>41000</p>

66
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The fuel system is designed to operate between ____C and ___C</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>-40 to 50</p>

67
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>A popped fuel circuit breaker may be reset _____ times</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>0</p>

68
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>In order for the TCAS to display traffic information on the MFD, what must be activated.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>your transponder and other a/c’s transponder must be active</p>

69
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Only vertical flight path collision avoidance alerts are issued by the TCAS.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

70
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The TCAS will issue both vertical and navigational flight path collision avoidance alerts.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

71
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Pilots do not need to visually clear as long as the TCAS is operational.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

72
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Power is applied to the TCAS when the _____ are set to the on position.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>radio master switches</p>

73
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The TCAS system will not provide resolution advisories below ____ feet AGL.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>1000</p>

74
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Aural annunciation of traffic advisories is provided at altitudes above ____ feet AGL.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>500</p>

75
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Should you make evasive manuevers if you get a TA on the TCAS.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>No. unless visually acquired and a threat</p>

76
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>An advisory that recommends maintaining the current vertical flight path is a _______ RA.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>preventive</p>

77
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Compliance with a TCAS II resolution advisory (RA) is necessary unless the pilot considers it unsafe to do so</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

78
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Compliance with a TCAS II resolution advisory (RA) is mandatory at all times.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

79
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Following a TCAS II ‘clear of conflict” advisory, the pilot should return to the original altitude/heading they were on prior to initiating evasive maneuvers unless otherwise directed by ATC.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

80
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>If both aircraft are TCAS equipped, the TCAS systems will “talk” to each other and coordinate evasive actions.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

81
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The red resolution advisory lights on the VSI indicate the recommended vertical rate in collision avoidance.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

82
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The green resolution advisory lights on the VSI indicate the recommended vertical rate for collision avoidance.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>trur</p>

83
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>If the TCAS issues a “monitor vertical speed” advisory, you should.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>maintain your current rate of climb/descent</p>

84
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>If the TCAS issues a “climb, crossing climb”, advisory, you should.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>climb at the rate shown by the green arc on the VSI</p>

85
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The maximum range available to be displayed on the MFD TCAS page is ____ NM.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>300</p>

86
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>An aircraft that is not considered to be a collision threat is indicated as a _____ by the TCAS. (shape and color)</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>cyan open diamond</p>

87
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>An aircraft that is nearby but not close enough to be considered advisory traffic is indicated as a _____ by (shape and color)</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>cyan solid diamond</p>

88
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>An aircraft that is a potential collision threat is indicated as a ____ by TCAS.(color and shape)</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>red solid square</p>

89
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>An aircraft that is a potential collision threat is indicated as a _____ by TCAS.(color and shape)</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>yellow solid circle</p>

90
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>If the “ABOVE/BELOW” altitude protection window is selected, TCAS will monitor _____feet above and below the aircraft.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>9900</p>

91
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>You can not turn off the anti-collision light in clouds, even if experiencing vertigo.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

92
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Where are the anti-collision strobe lights located on the T-1</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>on the wing tips and on the vertical stabilizer</p>

93
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The anti-collision beacon is installed ____ on the T-1A</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>on top of the vertical stabilizer</p>

94
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Why does the T-1 have wing inspection lights.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>to aid in ice formation detection on the wings</p>

95
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>After retractiong the landing gear, you must position the landing light switch to Retract/Off in order to turn off the landing lights.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

96
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>To prevent damage due to overheating, landing lights should be extinguished as soon as possible after landing.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

97
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>What happens to the flourescent cabin lights when the passenger oxygen masks are deployed.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>they automatically illuminate at full intensity</p>

98
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The aft fuselage compartment light will automatically extinguish when the aft fuselage doors are closed.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

99
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The circuit breaker panel will not be illuminated at night</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>false (you must turn on the lights)</p>

100
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Which oxygen subsystem can operate independently. (crew, passenger, or standby)</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>crew</p>

101
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The T-1’s high pressure oxygen cylinder is located _______.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>in the nose compartment</p>

102
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The passenger emergency oxygen masks automatically deploy when a cabin pressure of ____ is sensed.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>12,500’ +/- 500’</p>

103
Q 
<p class="large" style="text-align:center";>Which type of oxygen system is used for the crew maks.
A. variable flow
B. constant flow
C. diluter-demand
D. manual contol</p>
A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>C</p>

104
Q 
<p class="large" style="text-align:center";>A \_\_\_\_\_\_ type oxygen system is used for the passenger oxygen mask.
A. variable flow
B. constant flow
C. diluter-demand
D. manual contol</p>
A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>B</p>

105
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The oxygen supplied to the passengers is a mix of 100% oxygen and ambient air.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

106
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>A temperature drop of ____ degrees F will reduce the oxygen pressure by _____ percent.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>100;20</p>

107
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The crew oxygen mask postion ____ provides 100% oxygen under positive mask pressure.
(normal, 100%, or emergency)</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>emergency</p>

108
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>When the oxygen system blowout disk is missing, it indicates.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>the entire oxygen supply has been vented overboard</p>

109
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The primary use for the Emergency Escape Breathing Cevice (EEBD) is.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>emergency gound egress</p>

110
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The EEBDS should be operable for a minimum of _____ minutes.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>15</p>

111
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The handheld fire extinguishers on board the T-1 will expel all the Halon agent in one application.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

112
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The ELT is located where on the T-1</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>in the aft fuselage</p>

113
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The ELT will automatically activate after a ____ G impact (5,6,7,or 8)</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>5</p>

114
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The ELT may be tested</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>within the first 5 minutes of the hour</p>

115
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Where is the cabin smoke detector located.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>in the aft cabin</p>

116
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The maximum cabin floor loading is ______ pounds per square foot.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>100</p>

117
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>When the audio mute switch is set to override the audio mute function is what.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>disabled</p>

118
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The ________switch allows the pilot to hear radio communications if the select switch is set to UHF/VHF and the received audio switch is set to off.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>automatic communications</p>

119
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The _____ switch provides a radio communication override.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>audio mute</p>

120
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The ______ switch provides an emergency mode of operation of the UHF radio for the respective audio subsystem.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>audio normal/emergency</p>

121
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The interphone system allows communication between personnel on the ground.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

122
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>In order for the interphone system to work on the ground with only battery power available the ground comm switch must be pressed to ON.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>

123
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The GPWS continuously monitors the aricraft flight path at altitudes between approximately _____ and ______ feet AGL.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>30’ AGL;2450’ AGL</p>

124
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The typical GPWS warning time is ____ to ____ seconds prior to ground impact if no crew action is taken.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>15;20</p>

125
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>A GPWS self-test may be accomplished while airborne if the radio altitude is above _____ feet AGL.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>200</p>

126
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The glideslope mode of the GPWS may not be silenced by the pilot.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

127
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The excessive descent mod of the GPWS can be silenced by the pilot.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>

128
Q

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>What provides the GPWS information for decision height.</p>

A

<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>the radio altimeter</p>

T-1 18-12 (23 decks)

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