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T-1 18-12 > NAV - Training Guide > Flashcards

NAV - Training Guide Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What minimum support is required for AETC aircraft for all cross country and
    out-and-back sorties?
A

Appropriate servicing available.
- Ground attendant to help with start/fireguard.
- Fire extinguisher.
- Crash, rescue, and fire response available.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3 AETCSUP 4.5.1.15

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2
Q
  1. You check the ASRR and see that the field

has a “Z” code. What does that mean?

A

Airfields listed in the ASRR with a ―Z code (that is, STIF entries exist) may have AETC-specific information or restrictions. Crews will reference the airfield database for details on STIF information.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3 AETC SUP, 4.5.1.3.3

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3
Q
  1. Before takeoff or immediately after in-flight refueling, the aircraft must have enough usable fuel to complete the flight to where?
A

A final landing, either at the destination airport or alternate airport (if one is required), plus the fuel reserves; or, between Air Refueling Control Points (ARCPs) and then to land at the destination (or a recovery base, if refueling is not successful), plus the fuel reserve.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.18.1

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4
Q
  1. If an alternate is required, what are the fuel requirements using the ceiling and visibility weather criteria? Visibility only?
A

If both ceiling and visibility criteria are used, fuel for a missed approach in not required. If visibility is the only criteria used, fuel for an approach and missed approach must be included in total flight plan fuel.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.18.2

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5
Q
  1. How are fuel reserves computed?
A

The PIC must ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by 10 percent (up to a maximum of 45 minutes for fixed-wing or 30 minutes for helicopters) or 20 minutes, whichever is greater. Compute fuel reserves using MAJCOM-defined consumption rates for normal cruising speeds or the following:
• For turbine-powered aircraft use fuel consumption rates that provide best endurance at 10,000 ft. Mean Sea Level (MSL).
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.18.3

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6
Q
  1. If you are planning a 6 hour flight, what is

the required fuel reserve?

A 
36 minutes (6 hours = 360 minutes → 10% of 360 minutes = 36 minutes)
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.18.3
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7
Q
  1. What instrumentation is required for flight in

USAF aircraft cockpits?

A

USAF aircraft cockpits and UAS control stations must always provide full-time attitude, altitude, airspeed information and the capability to recognize, confirm, and recover from unusual attitudes in all pilot positions.

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 1.11.1

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8
Q
  1. When may a PIC make changes to a route
    or destination not shown on the original
    flight plan without refiling?
A

The format for making changes to a flight plan is printed on the back of the DoD IFR Supplement. Before takeoff, or while airborne, changes may be made to the original filed flight plan without re-filing provided: - ATC/Destination is aware of changes; prevent erroneous SAR or unannounced arrival.
- The change does not penetrate an ADIZ.
- The controlling ATC agency approves the change for an IFR flight.
- The change complies with applicable host-nation rules.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.17.3

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9
Q
  1. By filing a flight plan, the PIC certifies the following:
A

The flight was properly ordered, authorized, and released IAW AFI 11-401.
- Compliance with paragraph 4.5 Mission Plaining requirements.
- The flight will be conducted IAW all governing directives.
- The flight plan has been reviewed for completeness and accuracy.
- The flight complies with ADIZ restrictions and SUA or MTR scheduling and coordination procedures specified in FLIP and NOTAMs.
- Everything listed in the Mission Planning Requirements (Paragraph 4.5)
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.17.1, 4.5

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10
Q
  1. What is a joint-use airport?
A

A joint-use airport (MIL/CIV) is defined as a military airport that authorizes civilian use (e.g., Charleston AFB). A joint-use airport is not by definition a civil P airport. A civil airport with a military or US Coast Guard tenant is a civil P airport, not a joint-use airport.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3 AETCSUP, 4.7.1

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11
Q
  1. When can Air Force aircraft land at civil

(P) fields?

A
  • AETC volume training LOA list
  • In an emergency.
  • When flying a helicopter or C-coded aircraft (e.g. C-130, C-12, C-40).
  • When necessary in the recovery of active air defense interceptor aircraft.
  • When this instruction requires an alternate and no other suitable airport is available.
  • When the wing commander or higher authority approves the flight and the airport manager grants permission in advance.
    -A US Government tenant unit (e.g. ANG, USCG) is listed for the airport of intended landing and airport facilities or ground support equipment can support the aircraft concerned.
    AFI 11-202 Vol 3& AETC SUP, 4.8
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12
Q
  1. When may the PIC deviate from a flight

rule or ATC clearance?

A
  • Protect life
  • For safety of flight or when an in-flight emergency requires immediate action.
    AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 1.6
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13
Q
  1. (T/F) Pilots will declare minimum/
    emergency fuel to the appropriate
    controlling agency when the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than MDS-specific minimum or emergency fuel reserves.
A

True

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 3.13.2

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14
Q
  1. If any alcohol is consumed within ___ hours prior to _______ (or assuming aircraft control for UAS) or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or after-effects.
A

12, Takeoff

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 2.7.1.2

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15
Q
  1. (T/F) Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic.
A

True

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 3.17.1

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16
Q
  1. When converging at approximately the
    same altitude (except head-on or
    approximately so), the aircraft to the other’s
    _______ has the right-of-way.
A

Right

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 3.17.2

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17
Q
  1. (In the NAS) Do not exceed _____ knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) below 10,000 ft. MSL
    unless the MAJCOM has approved a
    higher speed.
A

250

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 6.3.2.3

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18
Q
  1. (In the NAS) Do not exceed _______ at or below 2,500 ft. AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace
    area unless authorized by ATC, or required
    to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering
    airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.
A

200 KIAS

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 6.3.2.1

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19
Q
  1. What is required before taxiing, taking a runway, takeoff or landing at an airport with an operating control tower?
A

You must obtain clearance from ATC.

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 3.10.1

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20
Q
  1. Do not operate aircraft less than _____ ft. AGL (mission permitting) over National Park Service Monuments, seashores, lake shores, recreation and scenic riverways; US Fish and Wildlife Service refuges, and US Forest Service wilderness and primitive areas?
A

2000 Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 6.2.3.4

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21
Q
  1. If equipped, when must anti-collision and strobe lights be on:
A
  • from just prior to engine start until engine shutdown.
    -Aircraft that do not have power available before engine start shall turn anti-collision or strobe lights on as soon as power is available
  • Flashing lights may be switched off or reduced in intensity if they adversely affect the performance of duties, or subject an outside observer to harmful glare (new verbiage)
    AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 3.15.2
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22
Q
  1. What are the Right-of-Way Rules?
A

Each pilot must take whatever action is necessary to avoid collision, regardless of who has the right-of-way. The yielding aircraft must not pass over, under, abeam, or ahead of the other aircraft until well clear.
1. Distress. Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic.
2. Converging. When converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on or approximately so), the aircraft to the other’s right has the right-of-way. Aircraft of different categories have the right-of-way in the following order of priority: balloons, gliders, aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft, airships, rotary- or fixed-wing aircraft.
3. Approaching Head-On. If aircraft are approaching each other head-on or approximately so, each shall alter course to the right.
4. Overtaking Aircraft. An overtaken aircraft has the right-of-way. The overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right.
5. Landing. An aircraft established on final approach has the right-of-way over other aircraft on the ground or in the air, except when two or more aircraft are approaching to land. In this case, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way but it shall not use this advantage to cut in front of or overtake the other.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 3.17

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23
Q
  1. If ATC tells you to descend for traffic and as you begin your descent you get a TCAS RA instructing you to climb, which do you follow?
A

Respond to all RAs regardless of ATC instructions, right-of-way rules, cloud clearance requirements, or other VFR/IFR flight rules, as directed by TCAS, unless doing so would jeopardize the safe operation of the aircraft (e.g. descent into obstacles). Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practical and promptly return to current ATC clearance.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 3.23.2.2

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24
Q
  1. Report distress or ELT

transmissions to __________.

A

ATC

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 6.7.1

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25
Q
  1. In the NAS, when may a pilot fly in

excess of 250 KIAS below 10,000 ft?

A
  • Within restricted areas or Military Operating Areas (MOAs).
  • Within DoD/FAA mutually developed instrument routes or DoD developed visual routes.
  • Within unpublished joint MAJCOM- and FAA-designated areas or routes (to accomplish the national defense mission).
  • During large-scale exercises or short-term special missions with appropriate coordination to ensure awareness of the nonparticipating flying public.
  • When the aircraft T.O. requires a higher airspeed. If the airspeed is listed as a range, fly the slowest practical speed in that range.
    AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 6.3.2.3
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26
Q
  1. Do not exceed ___ KIAS in the airspace underlying Class B or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B unless required to maintain the minimum operating airspeed specified in that aircraft
A

200 KIAS

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 6.3.2.2

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27
Q
  1. When can you turn after a takeoff, touch

and go, or low approach?

A

Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go or low approach until at least 400 ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency or required by a published procedure, or when executing a closed pattern.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 7.14

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28
Q
  1. When must position lights be displayed?
A

Illuminate position lights between official sunset and sunrise
-When an engine is starting or running. Aircraft that do not have power available before start shall turn them on as soon as power is available
-While being towed, or when parked in an area likely to create a hazard, unless clearly illuminated by an outside source.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 3.15.1

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29
Q
  1. Define crew rest period.
A

Crew rest is compulsory for aircrew members prior to performing any duties involving aircraft operations and is a minimum of 12 non-duty hours before the Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins.
-Crew rest is free time, and includes time for meals, transportation, and rest. This time must include an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep. Crew rest period cannot begin until after the completion of official duties.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 2.1

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30
Q
  1. Define flight duty period.
A

FDP begins when an aircrew member reports for a mission, briefing, or other official duty and ends when engines are shutdown after the final flight of the completed mission. FDP for UAS aircrew member ends at final engine shut down, final in-flight handover briefing, or final crew swap, whichever occurs last.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 2.2.1
-Students in a formal course of training must complete all training events
in the first 12 hours of the FDP.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3 AETC SUP 2.2.4

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31
Q
  1. Aircrews will not fly within

___________?

A
  • 24 hours of compressed gas diving including SCUBA, surface supplied diving, hyperbaric (compression) chamber exposure or aircraft pressurization checks (to below sea level) that exceed 10 minutes duration .
  • 12 hours after completion of a hypobaric chamber flight above 25,000 ft. MSL.
  • 72 hours after donating blood, plasma or bone marrow
  • 12 hours of consuming alcohol or other intoxicating substance, or while impaired by its after effects
    AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 2.7.1
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32
Q
  1. What is minimum fuel when stated to a

controller mean?

A

Pilots will declare minimum/emergency fuel to the appropriate controlling agency when the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the MDS specific minimum or emergency fuel reserves. (T-1 500lbs / 300 lbs)
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 3.13.2

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33
Q
  1. What is considered night?
A

The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil
twilight, as published in the Air Almanac.
AFI 11-202V3 Attachment 1 (Glossary) (67)

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34
Q
  1. What does radar contact mean?
A

Pilots are never relieved of the responsibility for terrain and obstacle avoidance. The radio call “Radar Contact” only means the aircraft has been identified on radar. Responsibility is shared between pilot and controller only after navigational guidance is issued.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 3.29

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35
Q
  1. Where do you find the format for an

inflight change of flight plan.

A

IFR Supplement: back cover for ICAO, inside back cover for FAA
IFR Supplement

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36
Q
  1. Aircrews will obtain flight weather support from one of the following sources(in priority order)?
A
  • Locally approved mission execution forecasts.
  • Local military weather unit.
  • Servicing Air Force operational weather squadron (OWS).
  • Another military weather unit (Air Force CWT or OWS, Navy, or Marine unit).
  • FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency (or equivalent overseas).
  • The nearest flight service station (FSS).
    AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.12.1
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37
Q
  1. When may you use RNAV as a substitute?
A
  • Suitable RNAV systems may be used as a substitute or alternate means of navigation on conventional routes and procedures.
  • Determine position relative to or distance from VOR, TACAN, NDB, compass locator, or DME fix.
  • Determine position relative to or distance from a named fix defined by the intersection of a radial/bearing/course of a VOR/LOC/TACAN/NDB/compass locator.
  • Navigate to/from a VOR/TACAN/NDB/compass locator
  • Fly and arc based on DME.

Requirements:
-Retrieve all NAVAIDs, fixes, and procedures from a current navigation database.
-TIM and display appropriate ground-based NAVAIDs whenever practicable.
-Notify ATC when substituting for an out-of-service NAVAID.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 6.8.4

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38
Q
  1. When may you fly an Air Force aircraft

without first filing a flight plan?

A

Never. Ensure a flight plan is filed IAW MAJCOM guidance for any flight.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.17.1

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39
Q
  1. Two-way radio failure on IFR Flight plan
    in FAA airspace, if VMC is not encountered continue flight route according
    to? Altitude?
A

Route: Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed; Altitude: Assigned, Minimum, Expected
FIH, Section A.4.a.(1)

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40
Q
  1. Holding short of the runway, you are unable to make radio contact with the tower for further clearance. You see a Steady Green light emanating from the tower.
A

Cleared for Takeoff.

FIH, Section A. 4.c.3 (Pg A-11)

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41
Q
  1. On descent, passing what altitude should you switch to the local altimeter?
A

FL 185

FIH, Section B.1.d. (2)

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42
Q
  1. ATIS reports an Braking Action Level of

Fair. What RCR does this equate to?

A

RCR 12-17

FIH Section B.5.

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43
Q
  1. How do you activate a 3-step pilot-controlled lighting system to high intensity?
A

Key microphone on CTAF frequency 7 times in 5 seconds.

FIH Section B.7.

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44
Q
  1. You are departing Nellis AFB on a mission.

What OWS should you call for weather?

A

25th OWS, Davis-Monothan, AZ

FIH Section C.2

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45
Q
  1. What service can Mountain Home AFB

PMSV provide? When?

A

Weather Radar, continuous PMSV

FIH Section C.4. pg C-19

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46
Q
  1. You’re talking to ABQ Center and would like to contact Flight Watch for enroute weather. What frequency will you contact, and what will you tell them?
A

Frequency found on enroute chart; Use the ARTCC facility ID, your aircraft ID, nearest VOR,
FIH Section C.10.b

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47
Q
  1. AIRMETs are issued for:
A

-Moderate icing/turbulence
-sustained winds of 30 knots or more at surface
-widespread area of ceilings <1,000 ft and/or vis <3 mi
-extreme mountain obscurement
FIH Section C.11.h

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48
Q
  1. Visibility is reported to be 1200 meters.

How many miles does this equate to?

A

¾ sm

FIH Section C. 15

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49
Q
  1. Reading a TAF, you see the code 640305.

What does this mean?

A

6 – Icing
4 - Moderate icing (mixed)
0305 - from 3,000 ft to 8,000 ft. (3,000 + 5,000)
FIH Section C. 15

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50
Q
  1. Flying over Tajikistan, Dusanbe Control
    gives you an altimeter setting of 1015
    millibars. What setting do you put in your altimeter?
A

29.97

FIH Section D.1

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51
Q
  1. Dushanbe Control then directs you to
    descend to 6200 meters. What altitude will
    you descend to?
A

20342 feet

FIH Section D.1

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52
Q
  1. ATIS is reporting -10C. What

correction will you apply an MDA of 1720, HAT 399?

A

Add 40 feet to the MDA

FIH Section D.4.

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53
Q
  1. Where can you find FLIP and NOTAM abbreviations/codes? Translate: FSL, AD, ABn, LLWAS, PLA, WIP?
A 
FIH section F.
FSL - Full Stop Landing
AD - Aerodrome
ABn - Aerodrome Beacon
LLSWAS - Low-Level Wind Shear Alert System
PLA – Practice Low Approach
WIP - Work in Progress
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54
Q
  1. When must we fly IFR?
A

Fly USAF fixed-wing aircraft under IFR to the maximum extent practical.
Pilots shall fly under IFR if:
- Weather conditions do not permit VFR flight
- Airspace rules require IFR flight (e.g. Class A airspace).
- Operating in excess of 180 KTAS within (not simply crossing) federal airways.
- Operating fixed-wing aircraft at night, unless the mission cannot be flown under IFR.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.15.1

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55
Q
  1. What weather is required to file to a destination? How can you file IFR to an airport without a published instrument approach?
A

Prevailing weather for the ETA +1 hour at destination must be at or above the lowest compatible published landing minimums (TEMPO conditions may be below published mins).

If there is no compatible published approach at the destination, pilots may proceed to a point served by a published approach or to an IFR point where forecast weather at ETA +1 hour allows the pilot to continue VFR to the destination.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.15.2, 4.15.2.2

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56
Q
  1. What weather at the destination requires an alternate?
A

An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, ETA +1 hour is less than a ceiling of 2,000 ft and visibility of 3 SM.

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.15.3.1

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57
Q
  1. Are there exceptions to the above rule?
A

AETC Waiver Vol 3/2000-2;
No alternate required if:
-Dep and Dest airports are same
-IP is a crewmember
-Wx reported and forecasted at or above 1,500 ft ceiling and 3 SM vis for planned mission’s duration or estimated time enroute plus two hours
-Flights limited to local training areas
-only applicable to AETC fixed wing training ops at: Vance AFB, OK and others.

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58
Q
  1. What additional conditions require an alternate?
A

-All compatible approaches require radar.
-Required NAVAIDs will be unmonitored
-Destination has no wx reporting capability
-Airfield’s lowest compatible approach mins are greater than or equal to 1,500 ft ceiling and 3 SM vis
-GPS is the only available NAVAID
-(AETC) forecast winds exceed a/c limits +- 1 hour of ETA
-(AETC) When denial of RVSM airspace would prevent a/c from reaching planned destination.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.15.3.2
AFI 11-202 Vol 3 AETC Sup, 4.15.3.2.5, 4.15.3.2.6

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59
Q
  1. What weather is required when selecting an

alternate?

A

Worst forecast wx for ETA +1 hour, to include TEMPO conditions (except those caused by T-storms, rain, or snow showers), will meet or exceed:

-Ceiling of 1,000 ft or 500 ft. above the lowest compatible minimum, whichever is higher
-Visibility of 2 SM or 1 SM above lowest compatible published minimum, whichever is higher.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.15.3.4.1

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60
Q
  1. What conditions disqualify an alternate?
A
  • All compatible approaches require radar.
  • All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID.
  • Airfield does not have a weather reporting service.
    -“A NA” (Alternate Not Authorized) on all compatible approaches.
  • Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the IFR Alternate Minimums section.
  • GPS is the only available NAVAID
    -(AETC) Access to RVSM airspace is required to reach the alternate for non-compliant aircraft.
    AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 4.15.3.5
    AETC 11-202 Vol 3 AETC Sup, 4.15.3.5.8
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61
Q
  1. What weather minimums are required for circling approaches?
A

Both the required ceiling and visibility minimums.

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 7.1.2.2

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62
Q
  1. When are cold weather altitude

corrections required?

A
  • Below 0C: All altitudes inside the FAF or below 1000’ AGL.
  • Below -30C: All altitudes on IAP.
  • In mountainous terrain and below 0C: All altitudes on IAP
  • If altitude on IAP is >3000’ above altimeter setting source and below 0C: All altitudes on IAP

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, Table 7.2

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63
Q
  1. Advise ATC if any cold weather correction applied exceeds ____ft?
A

80

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 7.2

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64
Q
  1. What climb gradient is required on a

missed approach?

A

when starting the approach (AEO or OEI), ensure the aircraft can meet 200 ft/NM or the published missed approach climb gradient, whichever is higher, to an appropriate IFR altitude.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 7.8.2.2

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65
Q
  1. When the runway approach lighting system is INOP, increase the published visibility minimums of an instrument approach by:
A

-As directed by the “INOP COMPONENTS” table in the TPP (front of approach book)
-As stated on IAP, NOTAMS, ATIS or other airport info source
-If no other guidance is provided, increase published visibility by 1/2 mile.
A: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 7.6.3

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66
Q
  1. May USAF fixed wing pilots accept a

LAHSO clearance?

A

No. Pilots of USAF aircraft may passively participate in LAHSO (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance). The PIC is the final authority whether to take-off, land or continue a touch-and-go when a merging aircraft has received a LAHSO clearance.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 7.9.

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67
Q
  1. When must the “gear down” call be

made?

A

Retractable gear aircraft will report gear down status to ATC or runway supervisory unit after extending the landing gear. This report shall be made during any approach to an airport prior to crossing the runway threshold.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 7.7

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68
Q
  1. What is the minimum altitude

over congested areas (e.g. cities towns, settlements)?

A

At least 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a 2,000-ft. radius of the aircraft.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 6.2.3.3

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69
Q
  1. What is an aircraft approach category based on? What are the different speeds for each
    category?
A

Aircraft approach category is based on 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certificated gross landing weight.
• A - Speed less than 91 knots.
• B - Speed 91 knots or more but less than 121 knots.
• C - Speed 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots.
• D - Speed 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots.
• E - Speed 166 knots or more.
AFMAN11-217V1 6.5.1.1

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70
Q
  1. What are the three aircraft classes (FAA) and their associated weights?
A

AIRCRAFT CLASSES (FAA-P/CG) - For the purposes of wake turbulence, separation minima, Air Traffic Control classifies aircraft as heavy, large and small as follows:
(1) HEAVY - Aircraft capable of take-off weights of more than 300,000 pounds or more whether or not they are operating at this weight during a particular phase of flight.
(2) LARGE - Aircraft of more than 41,000 pounds, maximum certificated take-off weight, up to but not including 300,000 pounds.
(3) SMALL - Aircraft of 41,000 pounds or less, maximum certificated take-off weight.
FLIP GP Terms 2-3

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71
Q
  1. What is the ADIZ?
A

AIR DEFENSE IDENTIFICATION ZONE/ADIZ - The area of airspace over land or water, extending upward from the surface, within which the ready identification, the location, and the control of aircraft are required in the interest of national security.
(1) DOMESTIC AIR DEFENSE IDENTIFICATION ZONE - An ADIZ within the United States along an international boundary of the United States.
(2) COASTAL AIR DEFENSE IDENTIFICATION ZONE - An ADIZ over the coastal waters of the United States.
(3) DISTANT EARLY WARNING IDENTIFICATION ZONE (DEWIZ) - An ADIZ over the coastal waters of the state of Alaska. ADIZ location and operating and flight plan requirements for civil aircraft operations are specified in Federal Air Regulations Part 99.
ADIZ location, and operating and flight plan requirements for civil aircraft operations are specified in Federal Air Regulations Part 99.
FLIP GP TERMS 2-3

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72
Q
  1. What is the touchdown zone lighting?
A

The touchdown zone lighting system consists of two rows of high intensity light bars arranged on either side of the runway centerline. Each bar consists of three unidirectional white lights toward the approach area. The two rows of light bars are 3,000 feet long and extend from the threshold of the runway toward the rollout end of the runway.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 13.4.2.1

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73
Q
  1. What is considered centerline lighting?
A

The runway centerline lighting system is a straight line of lights located along the runway centerline. The system starts 75 feet (23m) from the threshold and extends down the runway to within 75 feet of the rollout end of the runway. The last 3,000 feet are color coded for landing rollout information. The last 3,000-foot to 1,000-foot section displays alternate red and white lights, while the last 1,000-foot section displays all red lights.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 13.4.2.2

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74
Q
  1. How can you tell what are threshold lights?
A

Runway threshold lights define the beginning of the operational runway surface for aircraft for landing. The lights emit red light toward the runway to indicate the runway end to a departing aircraft and may emit green outward from the runway end to indicate the threshold to landing aircraft.
AFI 11-218 AETCSUP 3.9.3

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75
Q
  1. What is a braking action advisory?
A

BRAKING ACTION (GOOD, FAIR, POOR OR NIL) - A report of conditions on the airport movement area providing a pilot with a degrees/quality of braking that he might expect. Braking action is reported in terms of good, fair, poor or nil. (See Runway Condition Reading)

BRAKING ACTION ADVISORIES - When tower controllers have received runway braking action reports which include the terms “poor” or “nil”, or whenever weather conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway braking conditions, the tower will include on the ATIS broadcast the statement, “Braking Action Advisories are in effect.” During the time Braking Action Advisories are in effect, Air Traffic Control will issue the latest braking action report for the runway in use to each arriving and departing aircraft. Pilots should be prepared for deteriorating braking conditions and should request current runway condition information if not volunteered by controllers. Pilots should also be prepared to provide a descriptive runway condition report to controllers after landing.
FLIP GP Terms 2-10

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76
Q

What is considered a Circling Approach and how will the ATC controller give the instructions?

A

Circling:
• General Procedures. Circling to land is a visual flight maneuver. When the instrument approach is completed, it is used to align the aircraft with the landing runway. The circling MDA and weather minima to beused are those for the runway to which the instrument approach is flown (this is not always the landing runway).
• Instructions. If the controller has a requirement to specify the direction of the circling maneuver in relation to the airport or runway, the controller will issue instructions in the following manner: ―Circle (direction given as one of eight cardinal compass points) of the airport/runway for a right/left base/downwind to runway (number). For example, ―Circle west of the airport for a right base to runway one eight.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 13.6.

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77
Q
  1. What does “cleared as filed” mean?
A

ATC will not specifically clear you for a diverse departure. Do not mistake the words “cleared as filed” as clearance for a diverse departure. This is only the case if the required climb gradient is 200‘/NM or less and there is no ODP published for the departure runway. If there is an ODP for the departure runway, USAF pilots will fly the ODP before beginning the “cleared as filed” portion of the departure.
If filed for a STAR in the flight plan, then an initial ATC clearance of “Cleared as filed” constitutes clearance for the STAR routing (not altitudes).
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.5.1 & AFMAN 11-217V1, 9.8.1.1.5

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78
Q

10.What does “cleared for the option” mean?

A

CLEARED FOR THE OPTION - Air Traffic Control authorization for an aircraft to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop-and-go, or full stop landing at the discretion of the pilot. It is normally used in training so that an instructor can evaluate a student’s performance under changing situations. (See Option Approach)
FLIP GP Terms 2-11

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79
Q
  1. What does “closed traffic mean?”
A

CLOSED TRAFFIC - Successive operations involving take-off and landing or low approaches where the aircraft does not exit the traffic pattern.
FLIP GP Terms 2-12

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80
Q
  1. What is a formation flight?
A

More than one aircraft which, by prior arrangement between the pilots,
operates as a single aircraft with regard to navigation and position reporting. Separation between aircraft within the formation is the responsibility of the flight leader and the pilots of the other aircraft in the flight. This includes transition periods when aircraft within the formation are maneuvering to attain separation from each other to effect individual control and during joinup
and breakaway. Such a group is treated for ATC purposes as a single aircraft.
AFI 11-202V3, Attachment 1 Glossary (66)

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81
Q
  1. What is an overhead approach?
A

OVERHEAD APPROACH/360 OVERHEAD - A series of predetermined maneuvers prescribed for Visual Flight Rules arrival of military aircraft (often in formation) for entry into the Visual
Flight Rules traffic pattern and to proceed to a landing. The pattern usually specifies the following:
(1) The radio contact required of the pilot.
(2) The speed to be maintained.
(3) An initial approach 3 to 5 miles in length.
(4) An elliptical pattern consisting of two 180 degree turns.
(5) A break point at which the first 180 degree turn is started.
(6) The direction of turns.
(7) Altitude (at least 500 feet above the Conventional pattern).
(8) A “Roll-out” on final approach not less than 1/4 mile from the landing threshold and not less than 300 feet above the ground.
FLIP GP Terms 2-34

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82
Q
  1. What is runway condition reading (RCR)?
A

RUNWAY CONDITION READING/RCR - Numerical decelerometer readings relayed by air traffic controllers at USAF and certain civil bases for use by the pilot in determining runway braking action. These readings are routinely relayed only to USAF and Air National Guard aircraft. (See Braking Action)
FLIP GP Terms 2-40

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83
Q
  1. What is expected when told to fly runway

heading?

A

When told to “fly runway heading,” do not apply wind drift corrections.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.4

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84
Q
  1. What is a sidestep maneuver and when should you commence the maneuver?
A

Where a side-step procedure is published, aircraft may make an instrument approach to a runway or airport and then visually maneuver to land on an alternate runway specified in the procedure. Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.
Begin Side-step. Pilots are normally expected to commence the side-step maneuver as soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. Typically this occurs inside the FAF. Beginning the side-step maneuver prior to the FAF could cause a conflict with other traffic, especially when using parallel runways. Compliance with minimum altitudes associated with stepdown fixes is expected even after the side-step maneuver is initiated.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 13.7.

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85
Q
  1. Explain what assumptions are made when given a “speed adjustment” by ATC.
A

When ATC requests a speed adjustment for spacing, pilots are expected to maintain that speed ± 10 knots or ±.02 mach.
FLIP GP Terms 2-43

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86
Q
  1. What is the touchdown zone elevation?
A

Touchdown zone elevation is the highest point in the first 3000 feet of the landing runway.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.4.4.2

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87
Q
  1. What is runway visual range (RVR)?
A

The maximum distance in the direction of takeoff or landing at which the runway, or the specified lights or markers delineating it, can be seen from a position above a specified point on its center line at a height corresponding to the average eye-level of pilots at touch down. This value is normally determined by instruments located alongside and about 14 ft. above the runway and calibrated with reference to the high-intensity runway lights.
AFI 11-202V3 Attachment 1 Glossary (70)

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88
Q
  1. What are the requirements to fly a visual approach? Is it IFR or VFR?
A

Before a visual approach can be authorized, the airport must have a ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility 3 miles or greater. It is an IFR procedure accomplished while on an IFR clearance. It allows you to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport. VFR cloud clearances are not applicable as you are still an IFR aircraft. Do not cancel your IFR clearance when cleared the visual.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 12.4

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89
Q
  1. Define mountainous terrain?
A

In the absence of other MAJCOM guidance, USAF aircrews shall consider as mountainous those areas defined in 14 CFR §95.11 for CONUS, Alaska, Hawaii and Puerto Rico. In other areas, use 500 ft. surface elevation change over a ½ NM.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3 Attachment 1 Glossary

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90
Q
  1. What are all the methods of departing IFR?
A
  • Published ODP; textual or graphic, including Reduced Takeoff Runway Length (RTRL) and Visual Climb Over the Airport (VCOA) procedures.
  • SID
  • Specific ATC Departure Instructions.
  • Diverse Departures (Omni-directional Departures-ICAO).
  • Special MAJCOM Certification (authorized locations, pilots and aircraft only).
  • Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums
    AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 5.5
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91
Q
  1. How do you apply Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums?
A

Departures using non-standard takeoff minimums (ceiling and visibility) must ensure the aircraft is at or above the published ceiling by the end of the runway (OEI for multi-engine fixed-wing aircraft), then continue climbing at 200’/NM (or IAW 5.4.3.1.2.1.) to a minimum IFR altitude (T-1).
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 5.5.2.5

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92
Q
  1. When executing a VCOA, how close must

you remain to the airfield?

A

Unless published, pilots will consider VCOA visibility requirement as the “remain within” distance and do not exceed this radius from the center of the airfield while climbing to the specified altitude.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 5.5.2.2.1

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93
Q
  1. Can you fly a VCOA at night?
A

Pilots without NVDs will not fly a VCOA at night, unless specifically authorized by the MAJCOM. (AETC) Aircrews will not fly a VCOA at night.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 5.5.2.2.1

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94
Q
  1. When flying a SID, what climb gradient is

required?

A

Follow SID procedures as published. Comply with applicable notes, low close-in obstacles, and climb gradients on the SID. SIDs without a published climb gradient have been assessed at 200 ft/NM. If the SID does not have published low close-in obstacles but has an ODP annotated, refer to the corresponding runway ODP for potential low close-in obstacles. Reference all published low close-in obstacle locations to ensure compliance.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 5.5.2.3

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95
Q
  1. When given specific ATC Departure
    Instructions, what must the pilot do in all
    cases?
A
  1. If the departure runway has any published climb gradients, the PIC must meet or exceed the highest gradient when departing via ATC instructions.
  2. If unable to meet any ATC climb gradient, coordinate with ATC prior to flying the procedure.
  3. Pilots are never relieved of the responsibility for terrain and obstacle avoidance. The radio call “Radar Contact” only means the aircraft has been identified on radar. Responsibility is shared between pilot and controller only after navigational guidance is issued.
  4. Outside the NAS, use caution when flying radar vectors. See paragraph 8.13.2
    AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 5.5.2.4
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96
Q
  1. When is a diverse departure not

authorized?

A

Diverse departures are not authorized when an ODP, obstacle climb gradient, or non-standard takeoff weather minimums are published for the planned departure runway
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 5.5.2.1

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97
Q
  1. Regardless of the IFR departure method
    selected, PICs will climb at what rate,
    unless a higher gradient is published for the
    departure runway (in a departure procedure
    or Trouble T)?
A

200 ft/nm

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 5.4.3.1.2

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98
Q
  1. You see in the Trouble T section, “or
    standard with minimum climb of 315’/nm
    to 2000.” What does the “standard” refer
    to?
A

Standard takeoff weather minimums. USAF pilots shall comply with takeoff weather minima IAW AFI 11-202V3 and AFI 11-2MDSV3. Pilots of USAF aircraft will not use FAA or civil takeoff weather minima nor fly “see and avoid” in lieu of IFR climb gradients unless specifically authorized by the MAJCOM/A3 or as provided by AFI 11-202V3.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.2.2

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99
Q
  1. When flying a Departure Procedure,
    aircrew must delay all turns until at
    least_____ feet above the DER elevation,
    unless__________.
A

400 , unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.2.3

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100
Q
  1. What is considered the Runway End
    Crossing Height for departures designed by
    the USAF/USN? Other?
A

At non-joint-use USAF/USN bases, assume a 0 foot runway end crossing height unless a higher altitude is published. Everywhere else, if the screen height is not published in the ODP or other reliable source, pilots will plan to cross the DER at or above 35 feet.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.3.3.1.

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101
Q
  1. You see in the Trouble T section the
    following: “with standard takeoff
    minimums and a normal 200’ per NM
    climb gradient, takeoff must occur no later
    than 1600’ prior to the departure end of the
    runway.” Is this allowed?
A

Yes. USAF pilots shall only use an RTRL procedure if it is published as an ODP in FLIP. Pilots must check takeoff and landing data (TOLD) carefully when planning this type of departure. In the example below, subtract the value in the RTRL procedure from the usable runway length to determine the “reduced runway length”. Compare your aircraft’s “takeoff ground run” or “takeoff distance” value to the new reduced runway length. If the reduced length is equal to or greater than your aircraft’s calculated “ground run”, the procedure may be flown using a standard climb gradient of 200’/NM.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.1.3

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102
Q
  1. What does it mean when you see a Trouble

T on an approach plate?

A

The presence of the ―Trouble T means IFR takeoff minima and departure procedures are prescribed for specific airports/runways. Typically, this means obstacles penetrate the 40:1 OCS.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.1.1

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103
Q
  1. You read in the front of the IAP book
    “Diverse departures authorized 071 to 141
    CW with minimum civil climb of 450’/NM
    to 6900, minimum military climb of 390’/
    NM to 6300.” Can USAF aircraft execute
    this procedure?
A

Yes. Sector Diverse Departures are considered ODPs.

AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.2.

104
Q
  1. You see in the Trouble T section that a
    climb gradient in excess of 200 ft/nm is
    required for your intended runway. No
    other instructions are published. May you
    execute a Diverse Departure?
A

NO, technically you are flying an Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP). By definition a diverse departure requires no more than 200 ft/nm climb gradient.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.5

105
Q
  1. Can you execute a diverse departure with

low, close-in obstacles present?

A

Yes. If no obstacles (other than low, close-in obstacles) penetrate the 40:1 Obstacle Clearance Surface (OCS) for a particular runway, then a minimum climb gradient of 200’/NM will ensure proper obstacle clearance. If a runway does not have a published DP and does not have an ODP in the IFR Takeoff Minimums and Departure Procedures section of FLIP specifically stating, “Diverse Departure Not Authorized” then a diverse departure is an acceptable IFR departure procedure for that runway.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.5

106
Q
  1. What methods exist to reduce required

climb gradients for an IFR departure?

A

Delaying a mission until environmental conditions (temperature, pressure altitude, winds, etc.) or mission requirements (fuel load required, stores, cargo load, etc.) allow compliance with the required climb gradient is the safest option. IAW AFI 11-202V3, operations supervisors (or equivalent mission execution authority supervisor) may reduce the required climb gradient by the ROC safety margin. (subtraction of 48‟/nm from published climb gradient.)
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.5.1

107
Q 
18. (T/F)You may fly conventional DPs
(RNAV and/or GPS does not appear in title
of procedure) published in FLIP that are
retrievable from selected aircraft
navigation databases.
A

True

AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.6.4.9

108
Q
  1. USAF aircrew will delay turn until ____’

above the airfield?

A

USAF pilots flying under IFR will delay all turns until at least 400 feet above the DER elevation unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.2.3

109
Q
  1. What is the crossing height for Army

airfields? Does it apply to the T-1?

A

Any departure at other than non-joint-use USAF or USN bases, if the screen height is not published in the ODP or other reliable source, pilots will plan to cross the DER at or above 35 feet.
T-1 is expected to cross the DER at a minimum of 50 feet AGL, so according to our T-1A-1, not really
AFMAN11-217V1, 7.3.3.2

110
Q
  1. What is the maximum height of low

close-in obstacles?

A

Low close-in obstacles are those that would generate an excessive climb gradient (>200 ft/NM) that terminates at or below 200 feet above the departure end of the runway.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.3.5

111
Q
  1. If a pilot doesn’t know whether they will
    be given a SID or ODP from ATC what do
    will they plan for?
A

If the pilot does not know in advance which procedure will be assigned by ATC, he or she must plan for the highest climb gradient for the runway of intended departure.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4

112
Q
  1. When told to fly runway heading do you

apply a wind drift corrections?

A

No

AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.4

113
Q

If being radar vectored on the departure
what minimum climb gradient must you
follow?

A

If the departure instructions do not contain a climb gradient and there are no published gradients for the runway utilized for departure, pilots are required to maintain 200 ft/NM. Controllers are required to issue climb gradients in excess of 200ft/NM with the departure instructions.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.4.1

114
Q 
7.  If a SID has a 240’ NM climb rate to 9K
and the ODP for the same runway has a  
260’ NM climb rate to 5K what climb rate
will you need to comply with the
departure?
A

While flying a SID, if published, use the SID climb gradient. The memory aid “SID‘s stand alone” may assist in remembering which climb gradient to apply. (It is still critical, however, to reference the ODP when a appears on the approach plate as it may apply prior to joining the SID routing.) Pilots must notify ATC immediately if they cannot meet the published climb gradient or, if one is not published, a minimum of 200 ft/nm on each segment of the SID up to the MEA.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.3.4.1

115
Q
  1. If you are vectored off a SID; is the SID
    cancelled? Do you still have to meet the
    climb restrictions i.e. Trouble T?
A

If you are radar vectored or cleared off an assigned SID, you may consider the SID cancelled unless the controller adds “Expect to resume SID.” If ATC reinstates the SID and wishes any restrictions associated with the SID to still apply, the controller will state: “Comply with restrictions.”
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.3.4.1

116
Q
  1. If there is an Obstacle Departure
    Procedure (ODP) for the departure runway
    and ATC states “cleared as filed” are you
    required to follow ODP?
A

Yes. Do not mistake the words “cleared as filed” as clearance for a diverse departure. This is only the case if the required climb gradient is 200‘/NM or less and there is no ODP published for the departure runway. If there is an ODP for the departure runway, USAF pilots will fly the ODP before beginning the “cleared as filed” portion of the departure.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.5.1

117
Q
  1. When referencing a Climb Rate Chart that
    gives vertical velocities for given groundspeeds on a SID how does that chart affect the T-1 and what do T-1 aircrew have to do to compute required climb gradient?
A

The climb rates published on military SIDs give vertical velocities for given groundspeeds. The easiest way to use this information is to look at the 60 knot column. Using the 60 to 1 rule, 60 knots is 1 NM/min so the vertical velocity for this speed provides the required obstacle climb gradient in ft/NM. (If there is no 60 knot block, simply divide the 120 knot block by 2, the 180 knot block by 3, etc.) (Tech order climb profiles still apply.)
AFMAN 11-217V3

118
Q
  1. What are Special Departure Procedures;

(SDPs) and can the T-1 fly them?

A

SDPs are MDS-specific, commercially designed and published procedures, that require MAJCOM training and certification before use. SDPs are especially useful for multi-engine aircraft, as the procedure often increases the allowable takeoff gross weight while simultaneously providing the pilot an “escape” routing he or she can use in the event the aircraft loses thrust on takeoff. USAF pilots shall fly SDP routing that differs from ATC routing only in an emergency. We must get AETC approval prior to actually trying to fly a SDP.
AFMAN11-217V1 7.5.1.2

119
Q
  1. (T/F) Pilots will not takeoff where thunderstorms or other hazardous conditions are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, windshear, and (or) microbursts.
A

True

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 5.1.3

120
Q
  1. Where do you find current cold weather

altimeter correction procedures?

A

For the current cold weather altimeter correction procedure, you must refer to the Flight Information Handbook (FIH). To ensure adequate obstacle clearance the values derived from the chart below will be:
• Added to the published DA or MDA and step-down fixes inside the FAF whenever the outside air temperature is less than 0° Celsius
• Added to ALL altitudes in the procedure in Designated Mountainous Regions whenever the outside air temperature is 0° Celsius or less
• Added to ALL altitudes in the procedure whenever the outside air temperature is -30° Celsius or less, or procedure turn, intermediate approach altitude Heights Above Touchdown (HAT)/Heights Above Aerodrome (HAA) are 3000 feet or more above the altimeter setting source.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.3.1 and Table 6.1

121
Q
  1. What approach category can be flown in a

T-1?

A

The T-1A is a Category B aircraft for instrument approaches; it is normally a Category C for determining circling minimums. Depending on total gross weight and configuration of the aircraft, you may have to adjust the category and minimums for the approach you are accomplishing.
AFMAN 11-247, 6.13.1

122
Q
  1. What are the 5 approach categories? What

are their minimum and maximum speeds?

A

Aircraft approach category is based on 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certificated gross landing weight.
• A - Speed less than 91 knots.
• B - Speed 91 knots or more but less than 121 knots.
• C - Speed 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots.
• D - Speed 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots.
• E - Speed 166 knots or more.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.1.1

123
Q
  1. If an approach plate has multiple rings on the plan view is the entire approach plate to scale?
A

The addition of outer or middle rings indicates that only approach information inside the inner ring is to scale.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.4.1.8

124
Q
  1. If the instrument has 1 ring, is the approach plate to scale?
A

On IAPs with a single ring, the entire plan view is to scale. (Low IAP = 10NM , High IAP = 20NM)
AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.4.1.8

125
Q
  1. For a low altitude IAP, the initial descent

gradient can’t exceed ______’/NM?

A

For a low altitude IAP, the initial descent gradient will not exceed 500 ft/nm (approx 5°); 1000 ft/min for a high IAP.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.4.2.2

126
Q
  1. If a circling approach is required but no
    minimums exist on the IAP can the
    approach be flown? If so how are
    minimums determined?
A

YES: There may be situations when you are required to fly a circling approach which does not have a ceiling requirement published. In this case, the required ceiling will be the HAA plus 100 feet rounded up to the next one hundred foot value. For example, if the HAA is 757 feet, add 100 feet to get 857 feet and then round up to the nearest one hundred foot value, which would be 900 feet. Your ceiling for the approach must be at or above 900 feet.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.4.3.2

127
Q
  1. What is the maximum degrees from
    centerline a straight-in approach can bring
    you in without being classified a circle?
A

A straight-in approach may bring your aircraft to the runway as much as 30 degrees off of the runway centerline and still be considered a straight-in approach.
AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.4.4.7

128
Q
  1. What must the PIC do when low close in

obstacles are published?

A

In addition to complying with the published climb gradient, the PIC must also ensure that the aircraft can always vertically clear applicable published low close-in obstacles.
AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 5.4.1

129
Q
  1. What are the required publications and

equipment for a T-1 sortie?

A

• On all sorties, one aircrew member will carry a complete set of current aircraft technical orders (that is, TO 1T-1A-1, Flight Manual; TO 1T-1A-1-1, Flight Manual, Appendix 1, Performance Data; and TO 1T-1A-1-2, Supplemental Flight Manual.
o All aircrew members are required to carry a current TO 1T-1A-1CL-1 (pilot’s abbreviated flight crew checklist) and a unit-developed IFG.
o All aircrew members are required to carry a current TO 1T-1A-1CL-1-1 Pilots’ Fanfold Checklist.
• In addition to required publications, aircrews will carry a suitable terrain chart to cover the proposed route when flying outside the local area (e.g., Visual Flight Rules [VFR], Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Operational Navigation Chart [ONC], Tactical Pilotage Chart [TPC], Joint Operations Graphics [JOG]).
• A life raft is required for overwater flight unless the only overwater portion of the flight is during the departure or approach phase or if the aircraft remains within gliding distance of land. Life preservers should be carried onboard whenever a life raft is required.
• All aircrew members will have approved flight gloves in their possession while performing aircrew duties. In addition, aircrew members must wear these flight gloves during external aircraft inspection and servicing.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.1.2

130
Q
  1. List three precautions crewmembers must

make to prevent FOD in and around the T-1.

A

Foreign Object Damage (FOD).
• Do not allow personnel to approach the crew entrance door or allow crewmembers to
open the crew entrance door when both engines are running. Personnel may enter and exit the crew entrance door with the right engine operating (and when the left engine is shut down).
• Limit power during ground operations to approximately 70 percent N2 in congested areas.
• Avoid prop or jet blast from other aircraft.
• Do not place objects other than flight gloves on the flight deck glare shield to prevent scratching and abrasions to the windshield.
• Do not pass open containers of food or drink over the center console or circuit breaker
panel.
AFI11-2T-1V3 3.1.7

131
Q
  1. Explain taxi clearances for the T-1.
A

Taxiing:
• Obstacle Clearance. Do not taxi with less than 25 feet of wingtip obstacle clearance unless a marshaller is used in conjunction with a wing walker at each affected wingtip. When obstacles affect only one wingtip, the marshaller may also act as the wing walker and direct the aircraft while monitoring the affected wingtip. This requirement does not apply at the home station when fixed taxi routes are marked and provide a minimum of 10 feet of wingtip clearance from obstacles and other aircraft. Never taxi with less than 10 feet of wingtip obstacle clearance.
• Taxi Interval. Do not taxi staggered and avoid taxiing too close behind other aircraft. Maintain a minimum of 150 feet in trail.
• Ice and/or Snow Conditions. Do not taxi during ice and/or snow conditions until all portions of the taxi route and runway have been checked for safe conditions. When ice and/or snow are present on the taxiway, taxi on the center line with a minimum of 300 feet of spacing. For removal of snow and ice, refer to the aircraft TO, command guidance, and TO 42C-1-2, Anti-icing, De-icing, and Defrosting of Parked Aircraft.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.2

132
Q
  1. What is the minimum runway length and

width for the T-1?

A

Runway:
• The minimum runway length for T-1A takeoffs is 6,000 feet, critical field length (CFL), or the distance required to reach reference zero whichever is greater. Note: The minimum usable runway is computed between arresting cables located on or above the runway surface.
• The minimum runway length for full-stop landings is 6,000 feet or computed landing distance, whichever is greater. If a runway has landing distance available (LDA), the LDA must be at least 6,000 feet or landing distance whichever is greater. If the tabular data landing distance is within 1,000 feet of the total usable runway for landing, aircrews must use the longer of the performance chart or tabular data landing distance. If the tabular data landing distance is not within 1,000 feet of runway available, aircrews may use tabular data landing.
• The minimum usable runway length for touch and go landings must be equal to or greater than the applicable touch and go distance but never less than 6,000 feet. (See T.O 1T-1A-1-1 for touch and go distances for 15,500 to 12,000 pounds gross weight.) Touch and go distances reflect the most restrictive of the go or stop option from the appropriate decision point (flaps and throttles).
o From these points, the applicable touch and go distance allows acceleration, rotation, and climb to reference zero by departure end, or deceleration to stop within the runway remaining.
• Minimum runway width for takeoffs and landings is 100 feet.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.3.6

133
Q
  1. What is a restricted low approach?
A

A restricted low approach is defined as no lower than 500 feet above ground level (AGL) or as directed by the controlling agency.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.3.8

134
Q
  1. Discuss the restrictions for traffic patterns

in the T-1.

A

Traffic Patterns:
• Tactical Patterns. A tactical pattern is one turn to downwind and one turn to final either from initial or the closed pull up. Single-engine and no-flap tactical patterns are prohibited (simulated or actual). If necessary to configure during the break, establish the desired AOB prior to any configuration change. The minimum speed in the break is 160 KIAS.
• Closed Pattern (Tactical or Rectangular). The minimum airspeed to begin the closed pullup is 160 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS). Maintain 160 KIAS minimum during the pullup. On downwind, maintain minimum speeds for fuel weight and configuration.
• Bank Angles. Pilots should adjust pattern spacing so they do not exceed 30 degrees of bank in the final turn or on final. Pilots should not exceed 45 degrees of bank anywhere in the traffic pattern, to include the break during tactical overhead patterns.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.3.10

135
Q
  1. What things are considered critical phases

of flight?

A

Critical Phases of Flight. The following flight regimes are critical phases of flight:
• Takeoffs and landings.
• Traffic pattern operations (instrument and visual) after initiating the base turn.
• Low-level navigation (below 1,000 feet AGL).
• Precontact and contact positions.
• Airdrop maneuver (IP to target).
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.4.1.

136
Q
  1. When are you not required to do a cruise

checklist?

A

If actual cruise time will be of short duration (approximately 15 minutes), the cruise checklist does not have to be accomplished. If aircrews are transiting between different airfields located in close proximity to each other (approximately 15 minutes) and remaining below transition level, the pattern checklist may be accomplished in lieu of after-takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, and before-landing checklists.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.4.3

137
Q
  1. What is the minimum point to point

altitude for VFR?

A

Minimum altitude for VFR point-to-point navigation is 3,000 feet AGL. Aircrews may
descend below 3,000 feet AGL as required for low-level entry/VFR arrival. Do not descend outside
of the area covered by the chummed low-level or VFR arrival chart. If flying below 3,000 feet AGL, the chart must be annotated with
applicable vertical obstruction data.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.4.5.

138
Q
  1. What is the minimum altitude for

approach to landing stalls?

A

Complete approach to stalls, traffic pattern stalls, slow flight, unusual attitudes, and flight characteristic demonstrations above 5,000 feet AGL.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.4.5.2

139
Q
  1. What is the required WX for simulated SE
    and 0 Flap patterns during night? Does this
    WX requirement apply to circling approaches?
A

Simulated single-engine and no-flap approaches and patterns, as well as, circling approaches may be flown at night if the ceiling and visibility is at least 2,000/3 or circling minimums, whichever is higher.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.5.3.1

140
Q
  1. The T-1 will not be flown in areas of

forecasted or reported ____________?

A

The T-1A will not be flown in areas of forecasted or reported severe turbulence, severe
icing, freezing rain, or freezing drizzle. Do not cruise or conduct multiple pattern operations in actual moderate icing conditions.
AFI11-2T-1V3 3.7.1.1

141
Q
  1. What wx is required to start an approach?
A

Do not begin a penetration, enroute descent, or approach unless existing ceiling and visibility meet the requirements below:
• Certified PWC 1 pilots require weather equivalent to published ceiling and visibility approach minimums.
• PWC 2 pilots require weather minimums of no less than a ceiling of 300 feet and visibility of 1 sm (5,000 feet runway visual range [RVR]) or published approach minimums, whichever is greater. EXCEPTION: PWC 2 pilots may utilize published ceiling and visibility approach minimums at home station.
• Published ceiling and visibility approach minimums may be utilized if at least one certified PWC 1 pilot is occupying one of the pilot seats.
• When overriding mission requirements dictate, operations group commanders may individually authorize any qualified T-1A pilot to use published approach minimums.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.6.1

142
Q
  1. After starting an approach and the ceiling

drops below minimums what is required?

A

After commencing a penetration or approach, if weather subsequently is reported below the required minimums (ceiling or visibility), the approach may be continued to a missed approach or landing. Aircrew must ensure the aircraft has sufficient fuel to execute a missed approach and land at the alternate airfield with required fuel reserves.
PWC 2 decision height (DH), decision altitude (DA) or MDA will be determined by reference to the runway threshold elevation (THRE) or touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) for straight-in approaches and field elevation for circling approaches. Use field elevation if THRE or TDZE is unavailable.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.7.5.1

143
Q
  1. What are the wx requirements for the

three different types of Low Levels?

A

Comply with restrictions in AFI 11-202, Volume 3. For locally published routes, slow routes (SR), and instrument routes (IR), aircrew will ensure a ceiling and visibility of at least 1,500 feet and 3 miles. For VFR training visual routes (VR), aircrew will ensure 3,000 feet and 5 miles.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.9.1

144
Q
  1. What are the mandatory calls for the PNF
    on a Nonprecision approach, Precision
    approach, Climbout, Descent, and
    deviations?
A

Mandatory Calls for Pilot Not Flying (PNF). The PNF will make the following calls:
• Nonprecision Approaches:
o One hundred feet above MDA/DA.
o 3.13.1.1.2. “Minimums” at MDA/DA.
o “Runway in sight.” Call when the runway environment is in sight. Do not call too soon when obstructions to vision, such as fog, haze, low clouds, etc., are present.
o “Go around.” Call at the MAP if the runway environment is not in sight.
• Precision Approaches:
o One hundred feet above DH/DA.
o “Continue.” Call at DH/DA if the runway environment is in sight but the runway red termination bars or the red side row bars are not visible or identifiable. When using the “continue” call at DH/DA, the “land” or “go around” calls described below may be delayed until 100 feet AGL above TDZE to line up with procedures described in AFMAN 11-217. In order to call “land” at 100 feet, the red termination bars or the red side row bars must be visible and identifiable.
o “Land.” Call at DH/DA if the runway is in sight and the aircraft is in a safe position for a normal landing.
o “Go around.” Call at DH/DA if the runway environment is not in sight or the aircraft is not in a safe position for a normal landing.
o When flying an RNAV approach to LNAV/VNAV minimums, use the precision approach calls. For all other GPS approaches, use nonprecision calls.
• Climbout:
o Transition altitude.
o At 1,000 feet below assigned altitude.
• Descent:
o Transition level.
o At 1,000 feet above assigned altitude.
o At 1,000 feet above initial approach fix altitude or holding altitude.
o At 100 feet above procedure turn, final approach fix altitude, and any step down altitude inside the final approach fix.
• Deviations. The PNF the aircraft will announce heading deviations, airspeed deviations of 5 knots or more below desired, and altitude deviations of 100 feet or more from desired.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.14

145
Q
  1. What are the seven restrictions for

practicing simulated emergencies?

A

Simulated Emergencies:
• Do not practice simulated emergency takeoff, approach, or landing procedures unless an IP or flight examiner is seated at, and has immediate access to, aircraft controls and a minimum of 1,500/3 (ceiling and visibility).
• Brief all airborne simulated emergencies prior to execution. Compound or multiple simulated emergencies are prohibited.
• Maintain clear of clouds when conducting simulated emergencies.
• Do not practice a single-engine go-around after selecting 30 degree flaps.
• Do not initiate practice simulated engine failure below 500 feet AGL during takeoff or landing.
• Do not fly VFR single-engine and no-flap patterns from the tactical pattern.
• Discontinue simulated emergencies if intracockpit communications cannot be maintained.
AFI 11-2T-1V3, 3.15

146
Q
  1. When are you allowed to overshoot final
    at KEND when being vector for an
    approach?
A

Instrument Approach Procedures (RWY 17C/35C). During practice approaches in VMC conditions DO NOT OVERSHOOT the extended RWY centerline unless advised to “EXPECT VECTORS ACROSS FINAL.”
AFI 11-2T-1V3, A8.5.1.1

147
Q
  1. What will be the transponder code if you

choose to stay in the VFR pattern at Vance?

A

Squawk 4301 in the VFR traffic pattern.

AFI11-2T-1V3 A8.6.2.2.1

148
Q
  1. Do not taxi with less than _____ feet of wingtip obstacle clearance unless using a marshaller in conjunction with a wing walker at the affected wingtip. Never taxi within _____ feet of any obstacle.
A

25 feet, 10 feet.

AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3, 3.2.1

149
Q
  1. Minimum altitude for VFR point-to-point navigation is ________. Aircrews may descend below _______ as required for low-level entry/VFR arrival. Do not descend outside of the area covered by the chummed low-level or VFR arrival chart.
A

3000 ft. AGL, 3000 ft. AGL

AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3, 3.4.5.1

150
Q
  1. Night operations require the filed destination and alternate (when required) to have an operable straight-in approach and glide path guidance. Acceptable forms of glide path guidance are___(1)____. Aircrews may perform en-route instrument approach work at facilities without glide path guidance, but may not descend below the___(2)____.
A

1: - Visual lighting systems
- Precision guidance systems
- Also includes GPS vertical navigation retrieved from a published RNAV instrument approach.

2:- Published minimum descent altitude (MDA)
AFI 11-2T-1Vol 3, 3.5.4.1

151
Q
  1. The T-1A will not be flown in areas of

________ turbulence, ______ icing, freezing rain, or freezing drizzle.

A
  • Forecasted or reported severe
  • Severe
    AFI 11-2T-1Vol 3, 3.7.1.1
152
Q
  1. Do not exceed _________of bank in IMC unless safety of flight dictates otherwise.
A

30 degrees

AFI 11-2T-1Vol 3, 3.7.1.4

153
Q
  1. For local flying operations, aircrews do not have to designate an alternate (per AFFSA AETC Waiver Vol 3/2015-5 and Federal Aviation Administration [FAA] Exemption No. 7389) if all of the following conditions exist:
A
  1. Departure and destination airfields are the same.
  2. An IP is a crewmember.
  3. Ceiling and visibility are reported and forecast to remain at or above 1,500 feet and 3 miles for ETE plus 2 hours.
  4. Flights are limited to local training areas
    AFI 11-202 Vol 3, 71 OG Sup, Attachment in
154
Q
  1. If higher priority methods of departing IFR are not possible, T-1 aircrews may subtract _________ from the required climb gradient.
A

48 ft/nm

AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETCSUP 1 7.8.2.2.1

155
Q
  1. The T-1A is certified for operations down to _________minimums for GPS “Standalone” approaches and RNP _________. DME/DME restrictions published on RNAV IAPs do/do not apply to the T-1A.
A
  • LNAV/VNAV DA
  • 0.3 nm operations
  • Do not
    AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3, 3.8.7.1
156
Q
  1. For locally published routes, slow routes (SR), and instrument routes (IR), aircrew will ensure a ceiling and visibility of at least ________and _______________ for visual route (VR).
A

1,500 feet and 3 miles (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3, 3.9.1)

3,000 feet and 5 miles (AP-1B)

157
Q
  1. Mandatory Calls for Pilot Not Flying (PNF) on Non-precision Approaches:
A
  1. 100 ft above MDA/DA
  2. Minimums at MDA/DA
  3. Runway in sight
  4. Go Around
    AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3, 3.14.1.1
158
Q
  1. Mandatory Calls for Pilot Not Flying (PNF) on Precision Approaches:
A
  1. 100 feet above DH/DA
  2. Continue.
  3. Land
  4. Go Around
    AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3, 3.14.1.1
159
Q
  1. When flying a GPS stand-alone approach to LNAV/VNAV minimums, use the ________ approach calls. For all other GPS approaches, use calls______?
A

Precision
Non-precision
AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3, 3.14.1.2.5

160
Q
  1. The PNF the aircraft will announce heading deviations, airspeed deviations of ___ knots or more below desired, and altitude deviations of ____ feet or more from desired.
A

5, 100

AFI 11-2T-1Vol 3, 3.14.1.5

161
Q
  1. Explain the parameters of a no-wind holding pattern.
A

The standard no-wind holding pattern is flown by following a specified holding course inbound to the holding fix, making a 180° turn to the right, flying a heading outbound to parallel the holding course, and making another 180° turn to the right to intercept and follow the holding course to the fix (Figure 8.1). The holding pattern is nonstandard when the turns are made to the left. Unless otherwise instructed by ATC, pilots are expected to hold in a standard pattern.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.1.1)

162
Q
  1. What is the timing of a holding pattern in the NAS? ICAO?
A

NAS: The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg of the holding pattern is 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet MSL and 1½ minutes when holding above 14,000 feet MSL. DME holding patterns specify the outbound leg length. If holding at a DME fix without specified outbound leg length, use timing procedures listed above.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.1.1)

ICAO: The standard times are: 1 minute outbound at or below 14,000 feet MSL, or 1 1/2 minutes outbound above 14,000 feet MSL.
AFMAN11-217V1 (15.5.6)

163
Q
  1. If multiple NAVAIDs (LOC, VOR, TACAN, NDB) define a holding fix, which one should the pilot use? Which is the most accurate to use while holding?
A

While in holding, the localizer signal is the most accurate method of determining aircraft position. However, if a VOR, TACAN or NDB also defines the holding pattern, it‘s the pilot‘s option as to which NAVAID to use.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.1.2)

164
Q
  1. When ATC gives you instructions to hold that are not published what information is required from ATC?
A

• Direction. Direction of holding from the fix.
• Holding fix. The holding fix.
• Holding course. Radial, course, bearing, airway, or route on which the aircraft is to hold.
• Leg length. Outbound leg length in miles, if DME or RNAV is to be used.
• Direction of turn. Left turns, if nonstandard.
• Expect Further Clearance. Time to expect further clearance and any pertinent additional delay information.
o Example: Hold northwest of the 106 radial, 40 DME fix, 10-mile legs, left turns. Expect further clearance at 1725Z, time now 1710Z.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.2.2.1-.8.2.2.6)

165
Q
  1. If approaching your clearance limit fix when should you expect further clearance? What should you do if you don’t receive a clearance?
A

ATC should issue holding instructions at least 5 minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. When an aircraft is 3 minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the aircraft will cross the fix at or below the maximum holding airspeed. If holding instructions have not been received upon arrival at the fix, hold in accordance with procedures in FLIP. For two-way radio failure holding procedures, refer to the FIH.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.2.3)

166
Q
  1. What are the maximum holding speeds with associated altitudes?
A

ALTITUDE (MSL) Max Speed
MHA through 6,000‘ ————- 200 KIAS
Above 6,000‘ through 14,000‘– 230 KIAS
Above 14,000‘ ——————— 265 KIAS

USAF - 310 KIAS unless otherwise noted
USN - 230 KIAS unless otherwise noted.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.2.4)

167
Q
  1. When are you established in holding?
A

You are considered established in the holding pattern upon initial passage of the holding fix.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.3.2)

168
Q
  1. At what angle of bank should you fly in a holding pattern?
A

Unless correcting for known winds, make all turns during entry and while holding at: 3 degrees per second, or 30 degree bank angle, or bank angle commanded by the flight director system, whichever requires the least bank angle. The bank angle on the entry turn may be varied (up to 30 degrees maximum) to obtain the desired displacement in the holding pattern.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.3.3)

169
Q
  1. Describe the 70 degree method and AIM method of holding? How are the entries different?
A

pics

170
Q
  1. What is considered the timing leg in holding? Inbound or Outbound?
A

On the initial outbound leg do not exceed the appropriate time for the altitude. Adjust subsequent outbound legs as necessary to meet the required inbound time.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.5.2)

171
Q
  1. To what leg will adjustments be made to stay within the prescribed holding time?
A

After completing the first circuit of the holding pattern, adjust the time outbound as necessary to provide the desired inbound times.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.5.2.1)

172
Q
  1. When does timing start outbound?
A

Outbound. Begin outbound timing when over or abeam the fix. If you cannot determine the abeam position, start timing when wings level outbound.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.3.5.1)

173
Q
  1. When does timing start inbound?
A

Inbound. Begin inbound timing when wings level inbound.

AFMAN11-217V1 (8.3.5.2)

174
Q
  1. When directed by ATC to depart the holding pattern at a certain time what adjustments need to be made?
A

Knowing the time it takes you to fly a holding pattern will allow you to meet an EFC. As an approximation, 1/100th of TAS will give the number of minutes to fly a 360° turn at 30° of bank. (For example, at 350 knots true airspeed (KTAS), a 360° turn takes about 3.5 minutes.) Aircraft flying standard rate turns cover 360° in 2 minutes. Add to the time for turning the number of minutes to fly the inbound and outbound legs.
AFMAN11-217V1 (8.5.2.2)

175
Q
  1. Explain how to make drift corrections in holding?
A

Mach: Divide the crosswind component by the mach times 10. Example: 50 knots crosswind and 300 KTAS (.5M) = 10° drift correction, or

TAS: Divide the crosswind component by the aircraft speed in nautical miles per minute. Example: 30 knots crosswind and 180 KTAS (3NM per minute) 30÷3 = 10° drift correction.

Applying drift corrections. Compensate for wind effect primarily by drift correction on the inbound and outbound legs. When outbound, triple the inbound drift correction; e.g., if correcting left by 8 degrees when inbound, correct right by 24 degrees when outbound.
AFMAN11-217V1 (7.5.1.2)

176
Q
  1. What are the two broad categories of low altitude instrument approaches?
A

There are two broad categories of low altitude approaches: course reversals and procedure tracks.
AFMAN11-217V1 11.2

177
Q
  1. 80 miles from the field, ATC clears you for an approach what is expected of you?
A

Unless ATC specifically clears you otherwise, you are expected to fly to the IAF and execute the full instrument approach procedure as published.
AFMAN11-217V1 11.2.1

178
Q
  1. Prior to reaching the IAF the pilot must slow to what speed?
A

Prior to reaching the initial approach fix, the pilot must slow to aircraft maneuvering speed. Use holding airspeed if maneuvering airspeed is not specified for your aircraft.
AFMAN11-217V1 11.2.3

179
Q
  1. What situations will you not execute a procedure turn or HILO PT approach?
A

Do not execute a procedure turn or HILO PT in the following situations. (Many people use the memory aid – SNERT).
- S- “Straight-in” approach.
- N- via No PT routing.
- E- Established in holding, cleared the approach, and the holding course and procedure turn course are the same. NOTE: This generally applies if you are already established at the minimum holding altitude. If in doubt, query
- R- Radar vectors to the final approach course.
- T- Timed approach, when established in holding and given a time to depart the FAF inbound.
In any of the situations described above, proceed over the FAF at the published FAF altitude and continue inbound on the final approach course without making a procedure turn, holding pattern, or any other aligning maneuver before the FAF unless otherwise cleared by ATC. If you need to make additional circuits in a published holding pattern or to become better established on course before departing the FAF, it is your responsibility to request such maneuvering from ATC. NOTE: Historically, these restrictions have created a lot of confusion between pilots and controllers. If you are ever in doubt about what ATC expects you to do, query the controller.
AFMAN11-217V1 11.3.1

180
Q
  1. Procedure turns may be safely flown up to what speed?
A

Procedure turns may be safely flown at speeds up to 250 KIAS provided the pilot takes into consideration all factors which may affect the aircraft‘s turn performance (e.g., winds, TAS at altitude, bank angle, etc.).
AFMAN11-217V1 11.4.1

181
Q
  1. What is the maximum speed for procedure turns that the FAA recommends?
A

The FAA recommends a maximum airspeed of 200 KIAS while performing procedure turn course reversals, and when possible, USAF aircraft should also observe this speed restriction. If a speed of 200 KIAS is not practical, you must exercise caution to ensure your aircraft remains in the protected airspace provided by TERPS.
AFMAN11-217V111.4.2

182
Q
  1. When using the holding method and your turn is more than 90 degrees from the outbound procedure turn course what is required of you? If it is within 90 degrees?
A

If your heading is not within 90° of the course, overfly the fix and turn in the shorter direction to intercept the procedure track course. If your heading is within 90° of the outbound procedure turn course, you may use normal lead points to intercept the procedure turn course outbound.
AFMAN11-217V1 11.9.2 & 11.6.1

183
Q
  1. For a teardrop entry; your outbound heading must be within ____degrees of the outbound course?
A

If you elect a teardrop entry, your teardrop course must be within 30 degrees of the procedure turn course. Use course guidance if it is available.
AFMAN11-217V1 11.6.2

184
Q
  1. If you intercept the procedure turn course outbound what are the procedures while continuing outbound?
A

Maintain the course for the remainder of the outbound leg, then turn toward the maneuvering side to reverse course.
AFMAN11-217V1 11.6.3

185
Q
  1. When do you start timing on a procedure turn approach?
A

Begin timing once you are outbound abeam the procedure turn fix. If you cannot determine the abeam position while in the turn, start timing after completing the outbound turn.
AFMAN11-217V1 11.6.4.

186
Q
  1. When can you descend on a procedure turn approach?
A

Do not descend from the procedure turn fix altitude (published or assigned) until abeam the procedure turn fix heading outbound. If unable to determine when you are abeam, start descent after completing the outbound turn. Do not descend from the procedure turn completion altitude until established on the inbound segment of the approach.
AFMAN11-217V1 11.6.5

187
Q
  1. In regards to an 80/260 and 45/180 course reversal approach what is required after reaching the IAF?
A

Intercept and maintain the procedure turn course outbound as soon as possible after passing the procedure turn fix.
AFMAN11-217V111.7.2

188
Q
  1. When can you descend on a 80/260 or

45/180 course reversal approach?

A

Do not descend from the procedure turn fix altitude (published or assigned) until abeam the procedure turn fix and on a parallel or intercept heading to the outbound track. Do not descend from the procedure turn completion altitude until established on the inbound segment of the approach. NOTE: When flying procedure turns designed in FAA airspace, there is no requirement to wait until you are on a parallel or intercept heading to begin descent from the procedure turn fix altitude; however, when flying these types of course reversals in ICAO airspace, this procedure is MANDATORY due to different TERPS criteria. In the interest of forming good habit patterns, the ICAO method has been adopted by the USAF as procedural.
AFMAN11-217V111.7.3

189
Q
  1. When starting the 45/180 course reversal how long will you time if on the 45 degree turn outbound? Cat A & B? Cat C, D, & E?
A

Begin timing upon initiating the 45° turn; time for 1 minute (Categories A and B) or 1 minute and 15 seconds (Categories C, D, and E); then begin a 180° turn in the opposite direction from the initial turn to intercept the procedure turn course inbound.
AFMAN11-217V111.7.4.1

190
Q
  1. On a HILO approach when ATC clears you the approach when will you start it?
A

If cleared for the approach while holding in a published HILO PT, complete the holding pattern and commence the approach without making additional turns in the holding pattern (altitude permitting). If an additional turn is needed to lose excessive altitude, request clearance from ATC since additional circuits of the holding pattern are not expected by ATC. If the aircraft is at an altitude from which the approach can be safely executed and you are ready to turn inbound immediately, you may request approval for an early turn from ATC.
AFMAN11-217V111.8.3

191
Q
  1. When flying a procedure track approach and your heading is not within 90 degrees of the course what is required of you?
A

If your heading is not within 90° of the course, overfly the fix and turn in the shorter direction to intercept the procedure track course.
AFMAN11-217V111.9.2

192
Q
  1. When can you descend on a procedure track instrument approach?
A

When a descent is depicted at the IAF, start descent when abeam or past the IAF and on a parallel or intercept heading to the procedural track course. Except for initial descents at an IAF, be established on the appropriate segment of the procedural track before descending to the next altitude shown on the IAP.
AFMAN11-217V111.9.4.1

193
Q
  1. Once cleared to fly the TAA, pilots are expected to obey what?
A

minimum altitudes depicted within the TAA icons, unless instructed otherwise by air traffic control.
AFMAN11-217V111.10.10

194
Q
  1. Inside the FAF what is required to be displayed to the pilot flying?
A

Once inside the final approach fix, one navigation receiver available to the pilot flying must remain tuned to and display the facility that provides final approach course guidance.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.1

195
Q
  1. How is a published VDP calculated?
A

The VDP is a defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which a normal descent (approximately 3°) from the MDA to the runway touchdown point
AFMAN11-217V1 12.1.1.3

196
Q
  1. Can a pilot calculate his/her own timing on the final approach segment of an approach?
A

NO! If timing is not specifically depicted on the instrument approach procedure, timing is not authorized as a means of identifying the MAP.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.1.2.1.1.

197
Q
  1. What if a VDP is not published on an IAP? Can you create one?
A

YES, however: When an IAP is published without a VDP, there is currently no way for the pilot to know why. WARNING: While pilots should calculate a VDP if one is not published, if performing a non-precision approach to an unfamiliar field at night (or very low visibility) without a published VDP, and no visual or ―normal‖ electronic glide path guidance to that runway is available, use extreme caution when departing the MDA, as there may be an obstacle penetrating the 20:1 surface.
AFMAN11-217V112.1.1.3.1

198
Q
  1. When can you descend out of an MDA/DA/DH?
A

Descent below MDA/DA/DH is not authorized until sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in position to execute a safe landing.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.1.2.2.

199
Q
  1. What can be used to determine runway environment?
A

Threshold, threshold markings or threshold lights. Runway end identifier lights.
Touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights.
Runway or runway markings. The runway lights. Visual approach slope indicator.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.1.2.2.2 thru 12.1.2.2.7

200
Q
  1. What are the three required components of an ILS? Can any of them be replaced?
A

The glide slope, localizer, and outer marker are required components for an ILS. If the outer marker is inoperative or not installed, it may be replaced by DME, another NAVAID, a crossing radial, or radar, provided these substitutes are depicted on the approach plate or identified by NOTAM.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.2.1.1.

201
Q
  1. Where should your marker beacon sensitivity switch be placed in the jet when flying an ILS?
A

Sensitivity feature should always be operated in the low sensitivity position to ensure proper reception of the ILS marker beacons.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.2.1.2.1.1.

202
Q
  1. What are the usable ranges of ILS and LOC frequencies?
A

The glide slope has a usable range of 10 miles, localizer course 18 miles.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.2.1.2.3 and 12.2.1.3

203
Q
  1. Can ATC clear you an approach outside the LOC usable range?
A

ATC may clear you to intercept the localizer course beyond 18 miles or the published limit, however, this practice is only acceptable when the aircraft is in radar contact and ATC is sharing responsibility for course guidance.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.2.1.3

204
Q
  1. When are you supposed to notify ATC when flying an ILS coupled to the AP?
A

When autopilot coupled or auto land operations are to be conducted, and the weather is above ceiling 800 feet and/or visibility 2 miles, advise the ATC approach or tower controller as soon as practical but not later than the FAF.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.2.1.3.2.

205
Q
  1. When can the Middle Marker be used as the sole means of identifying the MAP?
A

Never

AFMAN11-217V1 12.2.1.7.1

206
Q
  1. When flying a BC LOC what course will you put in the HSI?
A

The front course is the proper course to set even when flying a back course approach.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.2.1.7.1

207
Q
  1. Before flying a radar approach what must you do?
A

In preparation for the radar approach, select a backup approach that is compatible with the existing weather and your aircraft where available. If there are no backup approaches compatible with the weather or with your aircraft, advise the controller upon initial contact of your intentions in the event of lost communications.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.3.2.1 & 12.2.3.4.

208
Q
  1. On a radar approach how often should you hear from ATC on downwind? On final for a PAR? ASR?
A

One minute while being vectored to final,
Fifteen seconds while on final for an ASR,
Five seconds while on final for a PAR approach.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.3.2.2.

209
Q
  1. For a visual approach the pilot must have the airport in sight or what to execute the approach?
A

The pilot must have either the airport or the preceding identified aircraft in sight, and the approach must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate ATC facility.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.4

210
Q
  1. What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for a visual approach?
A

Before a visual approach can be authorized, the airport must have a ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility 3 miles or greater
AFMAN11-217V1 12.4.1

211
Q
  1. If cleared a visual approach can you fly the overhead or enter the traffic pattern?
A

NO. Clearance for a visual approach does not authorize you to do an overhead/VFR traffic pattern.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.4.3

212
Q
  1. What is a contact approach and the minimum weather to conduct one?
A

A contact approach is a procedure that may be used by a pilot in lieu of conducting a standard or special approach IAP to an airport. It is not intended for use by a pilot to operate into an airport without a published and functioning IAP. Nor is it intended for an aircraft to conduct an approach to one airport, and then in the clear, proceed to another airport. Min Weather: clear of clouds with at least 1-mile flight visibility and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airport in those conditions.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.5.

213
Q
  1. What are the differences between a visual approach and contact approach?
A

When executing a contact approach, the pilot assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance. If radar service is being received, it will automatically terminate when the pilot is instructed to change to advisory frequency.
AFMAN11-217V1 12.5.

214
Q
  1. If you are going to descend less than

____fpm then you advise ATC.

A

If at any time you are unable to descend at a rate of at least 500 fpm, advise ATC.
AFMAN11-217V1, 9.2.1.

215
Q
  1. Before starting a descent you are required

to do what?

A

Before starting descent, review the IAP, recheck the weather (if appropriate), check the heading and attitude systems, and coordinate lost communication procedures (if required). AFMAN11-217V1, 9.2.2.

216
Q
  1. Review of an IAP should include what?
A

Review of the IAP should include, but is not limited to, the following: minimum and/or emergency safe altitudes, navigation frequencies, descent rates, approach minimums, missed approach departure instructions, and aerodrome sketch.
AFMAN11-217V1, 9.2.2.

217
Q
  1. What kind of turns to final can you expect
    from ATC when the weather is better than
    500’ above MVA?
A

When the reported ceiling is at least 500 feet above the minimum vectoring altitude and the visibility is at least 3 miles, aircraft will be vectored to intercept the final approach course as follows:
• At least 1 mile from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of 20°.
• At least 3 miles from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of 30°.
AFMAN11-217V1 9.6.2.

218
Q
  1. Can ATC vector you below the glideslope
    on a precision approach? How about
    above?
A

YES…aircraft will be vectored:
• At an altitude not above the glide slope for a precision approach.
• At an altitude that will allow descent in accordance with the published procedure for a nonprecision approach.
AFMAN11-217V1 9.6.4.

219
Q
  1. If cleared an approach while enroute to a
    holding fix not collocated with the IAF
    what are you required to do?
A

If cleared for an approach while en route to holding fix that is not collocated with the IAF, proceed to the IAF via the holding fix, unless specifically cleared to proceed direct to the IAF. However, if the IAF is located along the route of flight to the holding fix, begin the approach at the IAF. If in doubt as to the clearance, query the controller.
AFMAN11-217V1, 9.4.3.

220
Q
  1. If you are established in holding and
    cleared the approach what is expected of
    you?
A

complete the holding pattern to the IAF unless an early turn is approved by ATC.
AFMAN11-217V1, 9.4.4.

221
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable
    difference between the FMS database
    course and FLIP?
A

7.6.4.9.1. The maximum allowable difference between the database course(s) and published course(s) is ±5° and distances must be within 0.1 nm.
AFMAN11-217V1 7.6.4.9.1.

222
Q
  1. If you filed a STAR on your DD Form 175
    and ATC clears you “Cleared as Filed” are
    you cleared to fly the star? How about the
    approach?
A

If filed for a STAR in the flight plan, then an initial ATC clearance of “Cleared as filed” constitutes clearance for the STAR routing (not altitudes) as well. Clearance for the STAR is not clearance for the approach the procedure may bring you to.
AFMAN11-217V1 9.7.1.

223
Q
  1. If you are flying a STAR that was
    retrieved from the FMS database and it also
    has associated ground NAVAIDS; are you
    required to tune them?
A

STARs based on conventional NAVAIDS in some cases are retrievable from an RNAV database. Pilots will tune, identify, monitor and display the appropriate ground-based NAVAIDs whenever practicable.
AFMAN11-217V1 9.8.1.2.7.

224
Q
  1. If cleared a STAR by ATC are you to
    comply with the published altitudes? If not
    when would you be required to comply
    with published altitudes?
A

IT DEPENDS… A “DESCEND VIA” clearance authorizes pilots to vertically and laterally navigate, in accordance with the depicted procedure, to meet published restrictions. Vertical navigation is at pilot’s discretion; however, adherence to published altitude crossing restrictions and speeds is mandatory unless otherwise cleared. MEAs are not considered restrictions; however, pilots are expected to remain above MEAs. Pilots cleared for vertical navigation using the phraseology “Descend Via” shall inform ATC upon initial contact with a new frequency. For example, “Track 32, descending via the EAU CLAIRE SIX ARRIVAL.”
AFMAN11-217V1 9.8.1.1.2.3.

225
Q
  1. Are you required to adhere to published

speeds on STARS?

A

“Expect” altitudes/speeds are not considered STAR restrictions until verbally issued by ATC. They are published for planning purposes and should not be used in the event of lost communications unless ATC has specifically advised the pilot to expect these altitudes/speeds as part of a further clearance.
AFMAN11-217V1 9.8.1.1.2.3.

226
Q
  1. Explain to me how I can tell the active

times of a MOA.

A

pic

227
Q 
2.  Show me class E airspace that starts at the
surface.
A

pic

228
Q
  1. How do I know if the floor of the Class E

airspace is greater than 700’?

A

pic

229
Q
  1. How would you know by looking at a
    glider reference on the section if it was actual
    glider activity or Unmanned aircraft activity?
A

.

230
Q
  1. What is a TRSA?
A

TRSA is a delimited airspace in which radar and air traffic control services are made available to pilots flying under instrument flight rules or (optionally) visual flight rules for the purposes of maintaining aircraft separation.

231
Q 
6.  How would I know what the ceiling at
class D airspace is at Stillwater (KSWO)?
A

.

232
Q
  1. How can you tell if an obstacle has a

ceiling of over 1000’ AGL?

A

.

233
Q
  1. What would a bright yellow highlighted

section mean to you on a sectional?

A

Population center, How it should look like at night.

234
Q
  1. Show me where I can reach a Flight

Service Station frequency on a sectional?

A

Freq on top of Navaid Info

235
Q
  1. Are VR, SR, or IR routes depicted on a

Sectional chart?

A

IR/VR yes, SR no

236
Q
  1. What does a magenta flag with a name

mean next to it?

A

A VFR Waypoint Identifier

237
Q
  1. How do you tell if a runway is less than

8069’ vs. greater than 8069’?

A

pic

238
Q
  1. How would I know if the field uses left

or right patterns; or it doesn’t matter?

A

pic

239
Q
  1. How are landmarks annotated on a
    sectional i.e. golf course, football stadium,
    etc?
A

pic

240
Q
  1. How would you know if a field is lit at

night?

A

pic legend

241
Q
  1. Pull a IFR High Chart, IAP, and IFR Low

Chart out and start asking questions

A

For more practice, go to:

https://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/flight_info/aeronav/digital_products/aero_guide/

242
Q
  1. When is a pilot required to correct for

known winds?

A

Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions.
AFMAN11-217V1 (5.1.1)

243
Q
  1. If you can hear the ATIS over the VOR
    frequency does this qualify as positive
    identification?
A

NO…(W) The only positive method of identifying a station is by its Morse code identifier (either aurally or alphanumeric display) or (for VORs) the recorded automatic voice identification, indicated by the word ―VOR‖ following the station name. Identifying a NAVAID by listening to other voice transmissions broadcast on a Flight Service Station or other facility is not a reliable method of station identification and shall not be used.
AFMAN11-217V1 (5.1.2.1.1.2.2)

244
Q
  1. Why is it imperative to monitor the NDB

identifiers for the entire approach?

A

The navigation signal must be considered unreliable when the station identifier is not being received. For NDBs, there is a direct correlation between the strength of the identifier and the strength and reliability of the signal with no off flags to indicate loss of signal. Therefore, on approaches that require an NDB, pilots will monitor the NDB identifier for the entire approach.
AFMAN11-217V1 (5.1.3)

245
Q
  1. For aircraft with the capability to translate
    Morse code station identification into an
    alphanumeric visual display is it acceptable
    to use this as the sole means for
    identification?
A

TRUE… For aircraft with the capability to translate Morse code station identification into an alphanumeric visual display, it is acceptable to use the visual display as the sole means of identifying the station identification provided: (MAJCOMs will determine which aircraft can use this method for identifying NAVAIDS.) But note 2-T1-V3 restriction for VOR only.
AFMAN11-217V1 (5.1.2.1.1)

246
Q
  1. When retrieving a RNAV approach from
    the database can the pilot add some
    addition points into the approach for
    situational awareness purposes? Explain
A

NO… RNAV approaches must be retrieved from an aircraft database and not be manually entered.
AFMAN11-217V1 (5.9.3.2)

247
Q
  1. What is RAIM? Is it required to be

checked, and if so; when?

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitor (RAIM). The GPS receiver verifies the integrity of the signals received from the GPS constellation through RAIM to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information. Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. RAIM (or equivalent integrity method) is required for use of GPS in IFR navigation and requires at least 5 satellites in view to check GPS integrity.
5.10.2.3.1. NOTE: Barometric aiding allows RAIM to validate GPS integrity utilizing just 4 satellites in conjunction with the current altimeter setting entered in an approved barometric altimetry system. Predictive RAIM forecasts RAIM availability at a particular location at a time in the future. To effectively check predictive RAIM, aircraft avionics must allow deselection of satellites based on NOTAM information. Predictive RAIM must be checked prior to the mission or the flight segment where GPS is required. AFMAN11-217V1 (5.10.2.3) Is the T-1 baro-aided?

248
Q
  1. Per 11-217 can pilots substitute GPS/
    RNAV navigation aid providing lateral
    guidance for the final approach segment on
    an approach?
A

Using GPS in lieu of land-based NAVAIDS (RNAV substitution). GPS equipment certified for IFR operations IAW AFI 11-202V3, may be used in place of land-based NAVAIDS for en route and terminal operations, However, pilots may not substitute for the navigation aid providing lateral guidance for the final approach segment.
AFMAN11-217V1 (5.10.3)

249
Q
  1. Can a pilot substitute the DME from an
    active WP instead of using the land based
    NAVAID?
A

YES…If the fix is identified by a five-letter name, which is not contained in the GPS airborne database, or if the fix is not named, select the facility establishing the DME fix or another named DME fix as the active GPS WP. If selecting the DME providing facility as the active GPS WP, consider yourself over the fix when the GPS distance from the active WP equals the charted DME value and you are on the appropriate bearing and course.
AFMAN11-217V1 (5.10.4.1.2)

250
Q
  1. Are you required to verify all waypoint
    names, sequence, course, distances, and
    altitude information from the database? If
    so what do you verify it against?
A

Pilots must verify all waypoint names, sequence, course, distance, and altitude information from the database against information listed on the paper copy of the terminal procedure (to include the missed approach) as discussed in the section 5.12 of this AFMAN, and as directed by the MAJCOM. Aircrew operating aircraft equipped with an Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) are also required to verify FMS against EFB data.
AFMAN11-217V1 (5.10.6.1.3)

251
Q
  1. In the terminal area the GPS CDI must be set to what sensitivity?
A

GPS TERM…CDI must be set (either manually or automatically) to terminal sensitivity (+- 1 nm).
AFMAN11-217V1 (5.10.6.1.4)

252
Q
  1. Explain what happens if when checking
    the GPS database it is expired. Can we use
    it? If so; what portions of flight?
A

Prior to flight, crews must check navigation database validity. If the database has expired, the crew:
• May continue a mission with an expired database if the database information required for the flight can be verified with current FLIP.
• Shall get the database updated at the first opportunity.
• May not use the database to fly procedures that require terminal or better accuracy.
AFMAN11-217V1 (5.11.3.1)

253
Q
  1. When checking the database against your
    approach plate you realize the waypoint
    distance disagrees by .3 NM. Can you fly
    that approach? How about if the inbound
    course varying by 3 degrees. What are the
    tolerance?
A

The maximum allowable difference between the database course(s) and published course(s) is ±5° and distances must be within 0.1 nm.
AFMAN11-217V1 (7.6.4.9.1) Discuss how to discontinue an approach, since most haven’t seen it.

254
Q
  1. If the database is different from the published procedure (with NOTAM changes), which takes precedence?
A

In the event of differences between the terminal procedure chart or approach chart and database, the published approach chart, supplemented by NOTAMs, holds precedence and the database may not be used to fly terminal area or instrument approach procedures except as noted below.
• In some cases, waypoints in the navigation database may differ from the charted instrument procedure. The differences listed below are acceptable and do not preclude use of the database procedure.
o Step down fixes depicted on the approach chart may not be contained in the aircraft database. Pilots are responsible for ensuring compliance with applicable step down fixes regardless of whether or not they are in the aircraft database.
o The database may contain some waypoints (capture fixes, and a point in lieu of a FAF for non-FAF overlay approaches) that are not depicted on the approach chart.
AFMAN11-217V1 (5.11.5.3)

255
Q
  1. Ask questions related to student errors on

N5290 as annotated on the Stan/Eval Corner!ORY

A

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T-1 18-12 (23 decks)

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