tooth anatomy basics Flashcards

1
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the 1st pharyngeal arch?

A

Trigeminal (MoM)

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2
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the 2nd pharyngeal arch?

A

Facial (muscles of facial expression)

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3
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the 3rd pharyngeal arch?

A

Glossopharyngeal

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4
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the 4th pharyngeal arch?

A

Vagus

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5
Q

During the cap stage, a small group of ectomesenchymal cells stop producing extracellular substances and aggregate beneath inner enamel.
What is this structure known as and which cells / tissue does this give rise to?

A

Dental Papilla -
cells are odontoblasts which produce the dentine and pulp.

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6
Q

What is the structure formed where the outer and inner enamel epithelium meet and what does it give rise to?

(essential in root formation)

A

Cervical Loop -
gives rise to hertwig’s sheath.

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7
Q

At what age is the root structure of primary teeth developed?

A

3 years

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8
Q

Hard tissue formation of deciduous teeth occurs at how long in utero?

A

16 weeks

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9
Q

Full root formation occurs how long after eruption?

A

12 months

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10
Q

Which stage of root formation is impacted in hyper/hypodontia?

A

dental lamina formation

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11
Q

Missing permanent tooth germs in hypodontia results in lack of exfoliation and root resorption of deciduous teeth.
What occlusion issue may this cause and which teeth are commonly affected?

A

Infraocclusion -
commonly impacts Es

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12
Q

Which dentition is hyper/hypodontia most common in?

A

permanent

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13
Q

Which genetic condition is commonly associated with hypodontia and microdontia?
Other features include thin hair, dry skin and absence of sweating.

A

ectodermal dysplasia

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14
Q

What is the name for a supernumerary tooth that erupts in the anterior maxilla midline?

A

mesiodens

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15
Q

What autosomal dominant condition is associated with hyperdontia?
Common signs include supernumerary teeth.

A

Cleidocranial Dysplasia

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16
Q

Which GI condition involving growth of polyps in intestines may present with hyperdontia?

A

Gardener’s Syndrome

17
Q

What stage of tooth development is impacted when size of tooth is abnormal?

A

morphodifferentiation

18
Q

Which stage of tooth development is affected when accessory cusps are present?

A

morphodifferentiation

19
Q

Where do cusps of carabelli occur?

A

mesiopalatal of permanent maxillary 1st molars

20
Q

What is an accessory cusp of premolars known as?

A

dens invaginatus

21
Q

What is a talon cusp?

A

accessory cusp appearing on incisors

22
Q

What is taurodontism and how does this occur?
(think T Rex)

A

Where roots are shorter and the crown is longer - caused by late / failed invagination of hertwig’s root sheath.

23
Q

Pt presents with peg laterals with notches on the incisal edge and multiple rounded rudimentary cusps on permane t1 at molars.
What congenital condition do you suspect they have?

A

congenital syphilis (these are hutchinsons incisors and moons/mulberry molars)

24
Q

What intolerance can cause chronological enamel hypoplasia and what other developmental issue can it cause?

A

Coeliac Disease -
can cause delayed eruption.

25
Q

Which viral infection of the skin and lymph nodes is linked to chronological hypoplasia?

A

rubella

26
Q

Define amelogenesis imperfecta.

A

enamel deficiency caused by a lack of ameloblasts (teeth are brown due to exposed dentine)

27
Q

What can dentinogenesis imperfecta cause in relation to the pulp?

A

Pulp Canal Obliteration

28
Q

Describe the positioning of the 6s to define Class I Occlusion)

A

mesiobuccal cusp of U6 sits in the buccal groove of the lower

29
Q

Describe the positioning of the 6s to define Class II Occlusion)

A

Mesiobuccal cusp of the Upper 6 occludes anteriorly to the buccal groove of the lower 6.

30
Q

Describe the positioning of the 6s to define Class III Occlusion)

A

Mesiobuccal cusp of U6 occludes posteriorly to the buccal groove.

31
Q

Pts with cleft lip and palate typically develop which type of malocclusion?

A

Class III

32
Q

Which radiographic technique is used for locating ectopic canines?

A

parallax technique - OPG and PA

33
Q

Which metabolic bone disease is linked to hypercementosis?

A

Paget’s Disease -
disrupts normal bone remodelling causing enlarged and deformed bones.

34
Q

Which dental anomaly can show a PA radiolucency without presence of caries?

A

dens invaginatus

35
Q

Best way to restore hypoplastic primary molars?

A

PMC

36
Q

Which type of dentinogenesis imperfecta is present with osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Type 1

37
Q

What is a Turner’s tooth?

A

Enamel hypoplasia affecting only 1 tooth in the mouth