medical emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

What is a cardiac arrest?

A

When the heart stops pumping blood around the body due to a disruption in electrical activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the difference between a heart attack and cardiac arrest?

A

Myocardial Infarction occurs when the artery supply to the heart becomes blocked causing damage to the heart muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How often should you complete BLS training?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Expand the DRS ABC acronym:

A

D anger
R esponse
S hout for help

A irway
B reathing
C irculation / call 999

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are 2 examples of ‘shockable rhythms’?

A
  1. Ventricular Fibrillation
  2. Ventricular Tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are 2 ‘non-shockable rhythms’?

A
  1. Asystole (no electrical activity)
  2. Pulseless Electrical Acitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the correct depth and rate of compressions in an adult?

A

Depth of 5-6 cm
Rate of 100-120 per min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the correct ratio of compressions to breaths in an adult?

A

30:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the depth of compressions used in children?

A

4-5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many rescue breaths should be administered to a paediatric patient and when?

A

5 rescue breaths should be administered before starting compressions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain the correct order of action on a choking patient.

A
  1. Encourage coughing.
  2. Lean them forwards and deliver 5 back blows.
  3. Abdominal thrusts.
  4. Repeat if this has been ineffective.

Commence CPR if the victim becomes unresponsive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What immunological process occurs in IMMEDIATE ANAPHYLAXIS?

A

Mast cell activation releases histamines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define Anaphylaxis

A

The severe, potentially life threatening generalised allergic reaction characterised by rapidly developing symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 2 types of anaphylaxis?

A
  1. Uniphasic
  2. Biphasic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Uniphasic Anaphylaxis

A

Quick onset with rapidly worsening symptoms.

Once treated, symptoms leave and don’t return.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Biphasic Anaphylaxis

A

Starts with a mild-severe reaction followed by a period of time with no symptoms.

Symptoms then start to increase with bleeding and blood pressure problems .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If anaphylaxis is suspected to be biphasic, how should the pt be managed?

A

The pt should be monitored 6-12 hours after the reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 3 symptoms of anaphylaxis?

A
  1. Skin Changes (redness and itching)
  2. Mucosal Changes (swelling)
  3. Swallowing/Breathing difficulties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 examples of antibiotic with a potential to cause anaphylaxis.

A
  1. amoxicillin
  2. phenoxymethylpenicillin
  3. metronidazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which antiseptic prescribed to clean sockets following XLA has the potential to cause anaphylaxis?

A

Chlorhexidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What component of alvogyl has the potential to cause anaphylaxis?

A

Idodoform (iodine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What dose of adrenaline should be administered to children UNDER 6?

A

150 micrograms (0.15 ml of 1:1000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What dose of adrenaline should be administered to children between 6 - 12?

A

300 micrograms (0.3 ml of 1:1000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What dose of adrenaline should be administered to ADULTS and CHILDREN OVER 12?

A

500 micrograms (0.5 ml of 1:1000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

At what interval should doses of adrenaline be repeated until an adequate response has been achieved?

A

5 minute intervals

26
Q

At what angle should the adrenaline be administered in the anteriolateral thigh?

A

90º

27
Q

Which component found in fluoride varnish has the potential to cause an asthma attack?

A

Colophony

28
Q

What type of inhaler is BLUE

A

The reliever inhaler (SABA)

29
Q

What type of inhaler is BROWN/orange/burgandy?

A

The preventer inhaler (corticosteroids)

30
Q

What type of inhaler is GREEN?

A

Long Acting Beta Agonist

31
Q

Which type of inhaler is PURPLE/red & white?

A

LABA and Corticosteroid COMBINATION

32
Q

How does the blue reliever inhaler work during an asthma attack?

A

Quickly relaxes the muscles surrounding the narrowed airways, making it easier to breathe.

33
Q

Which SABA is used in a reliever inhaler?

A

Salbutamol

34
Q

Why is it beneficial to use a spacer during an asthma attack?

A

Makes the inhaler easier to use and helps deliver the medication to the lungs.

35
Q

When is the head tilt, chin lift contraindicated?

A

When the pt has a suspected cervical spine injury.

36
Q

What is the purpose of an oropharyngeal airway?

A

To prevent the tongue from obstructing the airway.

37
Q

When should the OPA be used on a patient?

A

When the patient is unresponsive with an ABSENT gag reflex.

38
Q

What are the 3 sizes of OPA?

A

00 (used in babies)
0 (used in infants)
1-4 (used in adults)

39
Q

How would you insert an OPA in an adult?

(I-I-R-L)

A
  1. Invert
  2. Insert - until reaching junction of hard-soft palate.
  3. Rotate
  4. Locate.
40
Q

How would you insert an OPA in a child?

A

Insert the way it sits due to children having a larger soft palate.

41
Q

How to correctly size a OPA

A

Measure the distance between the incisors and the angle of the mandible.

42
Q

When would the use of a nasopharyngeal airway be indicated?

A

When the patient is conscious/responsive/unconcious.

Useful for patients with TRISMUS (clenching) and those who have an in tact gag reflex.

43
Q

How would you correctly size a NPA?

A

Measure from the tragus of the ear to the tip of the nostril.

44
Q

What is a potential complication of inserting an NPA and how would you manage this?

A

The insertion will cause a nosebleed so it is useful to have suction ready.

45
Q

How is the NPA inserted?

A
  1. Insert into the largest nostril.
  2. Apply lubricant.
  3. Insert with the bevel running along the septum.
46
Q

How much oxygen should be administered?

A

15 litres per minute through a non-rebreathe mask.

47
Q

What value indicates normal blood glucose levels?

A

4-6

48
Q

In which 3 situation should CPR be stopped?

A

When the healthcare professional stops you.

When the victim is definitely waking.

You become exhaused.

49
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Before starting chest compressions on a child in cardiac arrest, you should give 5 rescue breaths?

A

True

50
Q

Adult compressions should be between what depth?

A

5-6mm

51
Q

What is the ideal rate of chest compressions?

A

100-120

52
Q

Urticarial rash is seen in which medical emergency 80% of the time?

A

Anaphylaxis

(Urticarial Rash = HIVES)

53
Q

Which receptors does salbutamol work on in smooth muscle?

A

Beta 2 adrenergic receptors

(short acting BETA agonist)

54
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Patients will use secondary muscles in addition to primary muscles when undergoing an acute asthma attack?

A

TRUE

55
Q

Which are the 3 secondary muscles of breathing?

A
  1. Trapezius
  2. Scalenes
  3. Sternocleidomastoid

(intercostal muscles)

56
Q

If, after giving an injection of adrenaline the pt remains unresponsive, what should you do?

A

Wait 5 mins and then administer a 2nd injection.

57
Q

What is the tonic stage of a seizure?

A

straightening / stiffening of the limbs

58
Q

What is the clonic phase of seizures?

A

violent, rhythmic contractions

59
Q

What defines hypoglycaemia (value)?

A

when blood glucose levels fall below 3 mmol/l

60
Q

When should you consider transferring an epileptic pt to hospitals?

(3 factors)

A
  1. multiple seizures
  2. pts first ever seizure
  3. if the seizure lasts longer than 15 mins
61
Q

What is the most common side effect of GTN?

A

headaches - due to peripheral vasodilation