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1. SBA > paeds > Flashcards

paeds Flashcards

1
Q

How to treat a small occlusal cavity in a lower D of a 2 year old?

A

Fluoride Varnish, OHI and Diet Advice

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2
Q

Which children are classed as lacking cooperative ability?

A

Specific medical problems e.g: profound learning disabilities.

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3
Q

Triad of Anxiety

A
  1. Physical Symptoms
  2. Behaviours
  3. Emotions
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4
Q

4 Stages of Piaget’s Cognitive Development

A
  1. Sensorimotor (learning by doing things)
  2. Pre-operational Thought (inflexible)
  3. Concrete Operations (apply logic)
  4. Formal Operations (logical abstract thinking)
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5
Q

When is it advised for children to have their first checkup?

A

Prior to 1st birthday to gain eruption advice.

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6
Q

Who can consent to a child’s treatment?

A
  1. Mum
  2. Dad if they are married to the mum +/- name on the birth certificate or have a PR form from court.
  3. Legally appointed guardian.
  4. Someone with a residence order.
  5. Local Authority designated to care for the child.
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7
Q

In what situation would it be acceptable to proceed with treatment on a child without relevant consent?

A

Where delaying treatment would place the patient at significant risk (e.g: pt left in pain, medically compromised or risk of sepsis etc).

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8
Q

Contraindications for GA in children.

A
  1. When alternative methods of pain control haven’t been excluded.
  2. Medical conditions (e.g: acute respiratory tract infections, congenital heart disease, obesity).
  3. Simple orthodontic extractions.
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9
Q

Why should the patient fast prior to GA administration?

A

Pt should fast 6 hours prior to GA as it could cause food or stomach acid to get into lungs.

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10
Q

Parental responsibility can be given over court order under what circumstances?

A
  1. Death of a parent when the child has a court order for a new guardian.
  2. Mum unable to consent (e.g: due to being in prison)
  3. Local authority designated in care order.
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11
Q

What antibacterial agent does breast milk contain?

A

Lactoferrin kills strep mutans.

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12
Q

TBI for children under 3

A

Smear of toothpaste with at least 1000ppm.

Adult should brush/supervise.

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13
Q

TBI for children aged 3-6

A

Pea sized amount of 1000ppm toothpaste.

Adult supervision.

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14
Q

How old must a child be to be prescribed NaF mouth rinse?

A

8 years old

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15
Q

What concentration is NaF mouth rinse?

A

0.05%

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16
Q

DBOH breast feeding advice:

A

0-6 months - breastfeed only

> 6 months - breast feed + no added sugar solids + free flow cup

(bottle feeding should be stopped after 1 year and brushing should start when baby teeth come through)

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17
Q

Brushing advice for 3-6 year olds.

A

twice a day with 1000 ppm toothpaste

PEA SIZED AMOUNT

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18
Q

Brushing advice for 7-18 year olds.

A

1350-15000 ppm toothpaste

+

22,600 ppm fluoride varnish twice a year

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19
Q

Recommended sugar intake for 1-4 year olds:

A

5 cubes (19g)

(around 4g per cube)

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20
Q

Recommended sugar intake for 7-10 year olds.

A

6 cubes (24g)

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21
Q

Recommended sugar intake for 11+ year olds.

A

7 cubes (30g)

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22
Q

What age should BWs be taken from?

A

4 years old

low risk - 12-18 months
medium risk - 12 months
high risk - 6 months

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23
Q

What should you do if primary tooth trauma leads to pulp necrosis?

A

XLA without delay

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24
Q

What is different with sensibility testing in primary teeth?

A

Unreliable so other tests must be done.

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25
Q

What does a high pitched noise on TTP indicate?

A

PDL damage

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26
Q

BW interval for high caries risk:

A

6 months

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27
Q

BW interval for moderate caries risk:

A

12 months

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28
Q

BW interval for low caries risk:

A

12-18 months

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29
Q

What ppm of fluoride should be used in under 3s?

A

a smear of 1000 ppm

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30
Q

What ppm of fluoride should be used for ages 3-6?

A

Pea sized amount of 1000 ppm.

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31
Q

What ppm of fluoride should be used in adults?

A

1350 - 1500 ppm

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32
Q

At what age can you prescribe fluoride mouthwash?

A

over the age of 8

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33
Q

DBOH sugar cubes / grams for 4-6 years

A

5 cubes (19g)

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34
Q

DBOH sugar cubes / grams for 7-10 years old

A

6 cubes (24g)

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35
Q

DBOH sugar cubes / grams for 11+

A

7 cubes (30g)

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36
Q

What is the minimum age for chlorhexidine usage?

A

12 years

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37
Q

What is appropriate to prescribe to a 9 year old pt with high caries risk?

A

230ppm of 0.05% F mouth rinse

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38
Q

What is appropriate to prescribe to a 13 year old pt with high caries risk?

A

0.619% of 2,800ppm NaF toothpaste

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39
Q

What is appropriate to prescribe to a 17 year old pt with high caries risk?

A

1.1% 5000ppm NaF toothpaste

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40
Q

What treatment should be carried out on high-risk pts where their 6s are erupting?

A

fissure sealants

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41
Q

What age can IHS with NO be carried out, given the child is cooperative and understands tx?

A

6+

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42
Q

From what age can IVS be given?

A

12+

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43
Q

pre-op instructions for IHS

A

light meal 2 hours before, take any meds as normal

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44
Q

Up to what age is it recommended for parents to supervise brushing?

A

7

45
Q

Toxic dose of fluoride ingestion per kg of body weight.

A

5mg/kg

46
Q

When is pulp therapy not recommended in children?

A

when there is more than 3 teeth requiring tx

47
Q

What percentage of physical child abuse presents with orofacial trauma?

A

50%

48
Q

If an impacted / unerupted permanent incisor is ankylosed, what is the first line of treatment?

A

extraction

49
Q

Fluoride concentration in SDF

A

44,800ppm

50
Q

5 indications for PMCs

A
  1. caries (on 2 or more surfaces)
  2. following pulp treatment
  3. developmental problem (AI or DI)
  4. extensive tooth surface loss
  5. space maintenance
51
Q

What is needed structurally in order to place a PMC?

A

a distinct band of sound dentine

52
Q

4 contraindications for PMCs

A
  1. pain
  2. close to exfoliation (rad shows root resorption over 1/2 way)
  3. nickel allergy
  4. not enough tooth structure for retention
53
Q

Describe the conventional PMC technique.

A

Caries removed and space drilled around for the tooth to fit crown.

(drill instead of sep placement)

54
Q

Describe the Hall Crown Technique

A

Biological Approach
- prevents progression by sealing the bacteria inside the crown.

55
Q

Which material is used for cementing PMCs?

A

GIC luting cement (e.g: aquacem)

56
Q

Other than severe asthma, in which other circumstance would fluoride varnish be contraindicated?

A

Ulcerative Gingivitis

57
Q

Which 2 receptors does nitrous oxide work on?

A

GABA and NMDA

58
Q

What is the minimum concentration of oxygen used during inhalation sedation?

A

30%

59
Q

3 types of mouthguard

A
  1. stock
  2. boil and bite
  3. custom made
60
Q

Which incisal relationship is most prone to injury?

A

Class II

  • due to increased overjet
61
Q

What is the primary function of a splint?

A

To immobilise the tooth whilst healing takes place.

  • prevents further damage to PDL.
  • helps reduce pain.
62
Q

Why is a primary tooth more likely to luxate than fracture?

A

Because the bone is more malleable and has shorter roots.

63
Q

Why is a pulpotomy favoured over a pulpectomy in immature teeth?

A

Helps the rest of the tooth to remain vital - a non-vital tooth wouldn’t continue to develop and mature.

64
Q

What is the base of MTA?

A

tricalcium silicate

65
Q

Which ingredient in MTA causes discolouration?

A

Bismuth Oxide

66
Q

Which irrigant should be used in the endodontic treatment of immature teeth?

A

chlorhexidine

  • hypochlorite contraindicated due to risk of hypochlorite incident.
67
Q

Would you expect a laterally luxated tooth to be mobile?

A

No - wedged into the socket with bony lock.

68
Q

Characteristics of ectodermal dysplasia.

A
  • hypodontia
  • microdontia
  • maxillary hypoplasia
  • fine / abnormal hair
  • inability to sweat (heat intolerance)

affects males more due to being X linked

69
Q

Peak age for TDI

A

7-11

70
Q

What is the proper term for ankylosis?

(which type of resorption)

A

root replacement resorption

71
Q

The 4 categories of abuse?

A

Physical
Neglect
Emotional
Sexual

72
Q

Define Gillick Competency

A

When a child (under 16) is able to consent to their own treatment without the need for parental permission / knowledge.

73
Q

Which 4 things does a child need to be able to do to be deemed Gillick Competent?

A
  1. understand the treatment, consequences and alternative.
  2. retain the information
  3. weigh it up to make a decision
  4. communicate the decision
74
Q

What is a Caldecott Guardian?

A

A senior person responsible for protecting the confidentiality of people’s health and care information and making sure it is used correctly.

75
Q

How long are pt records kept?

A

Until the pt is 25 years old or 11 years after tx.

(whichever is longer)

76
Q

How old must a chid be to be prescribed NaF mouth rinse?

A

8 years old - 0.05%

77
Q

What concentration should high risk children aged 10+ have in their toothpaste?

A

2800ppm

78
Q

What fluoride concentration should high risk children aged 16+ have in their toothpaste?

A

2800-5000ppm

79
Q

Most appropriate radiographs for locating an ectopic canine?

A

OPG and PA

80
Q

Disturbances in morphodifferentiation cause which type of dental anomaly?

A

size and shape

81
Q

A disturbance affecting dental lamina formation causes which type of anomaly?

A

number

82
Q

A disturbance affecting matrix deposition and mineralisation causes which type of developmental anomaly?

A

structure

83
Q

Which 2 genes are involved in hypodontia?

A

PAX-9
MAX-1

84
Q

3 syndromes associated with hypodontia:

A
  1. ectodermal dysplasia
  2. down syndrome
  3. cleft lip and palate
85
Q

4 syndromes associated with hyperdontia:

A
  1. cleidocranial dysplasia
  2. oral-facial digital syndrome
  3. gardeners
  4. cleft lip and palate
86
Q

What is the name for localised enamel hypoplasia and what 2 things typically cause it?

A

Turner Tooth

caused by:
1. trauma
2. infection

87
Q

What is the cause for MIH?

A

Unknown - can be linked to traumatic births, childhood illness etc.

88
Q

How old must a pt be to receive RCT?

A

11

89
Q

Which 3 things can occur to the permanent successor of a tooth prior to lateral luxation?

A
  1. dilaceration
  2. misshapen crown
  3. pitting / discolouration
90
Q

How quickly does a tooth usually erupt relative to its contralateral number?

A

6 months

91
Q

What is the ideal age for XLA of 6s and why?

A

9-10 years

  • calcification of the bifurcation of 7s has happened
  • after eruption of laterals but before 7s
92
Q

Before which procedure would you need to do a sickle cell test in a child?

A

before GA extraction

93
Q

What can cause premature eruption / exfoliation of primary teeth with normal roots?

A

hypophosphatasia

94
Q

If a child has epilepsy and gingival hyperplasia, which drug is most likely causing this?

A

phenytoin

95
Q

At what age should you start monitoring perio?

A

7 years old

96
Q

A child presents with spontaneous gingival bleeding.
What is the likely cause of this?

A

leukaemia

97
Q

Which disease would indicate performing a pulpotomy on a 5 year old?

A

von willebrand disease

98
Q

What is the most common cancer in children?

A

Acute Lymphoblsatic Leukaemia

99
Q

How would you manage a root fracture in a primary tooth?

A

Extract coronal portion and leave the apical part to resorb as normal.

100
Q

At what age do you do a full BPE on a child?

A

12

101
Q

At what stage of embryo development does cleft lip and palate occur?

A

weeks 6-12

102
Q

After a primary molar pulpotomy, what material would you restore with?

A

stainless steel crown

103
Q

Which condition results in a large tongue, heart defects and congenitally missing 3s?

A

down’s syndrome

104
Q

What would cause bleeding gums, fever and feeling unwell?

A

primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

105
Q

Which teeth are included in the modified BPE?

A

UR6, UR1, UL6, LR6 , LL1, LL6

106
Q

What is the fluoride content in FV?

A

22,600ppm

107
Q

3 risks associated with SDF?

A
  1. gingival irritation
  2. metallic taste
  3. irreversible dark stains
108
Q

Differences between primary and permanent teeth.

A
  • more bulbous crowns
  • shorter clinical crown
  • divergent roots
  • more cervical furcation
  • more elastic bone
  • larger pulp chamber

1. SBA (39 decks)

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