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1. SBA > law and ethics > Flashcards

law and ethics Flashcards

1
Q

What robust evidence base is used to provide clinical effectiveness incorporating evidence-based dentistry?

A

cochrane review -
systematic review of healthcare interventions and diagnostic tests, highest form of evidence.

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2
Q

Creating a safe working environment is a must in regards to risk management.
What act should this coincide with?

A

Health and Safety Act 1974

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3
Q

Which act states that the CQC monitors standards of healthcare providers and should ensure they’re carrying out clinical governance?

A

Health and Social Care Act 2008

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4
Q

What is the minimum CPD per 5 year cycle for a dentist?

A

100 hours

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5
Q

What is the minimum CPD per 5 year cycle for a dental therapist?

A

75 hours

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6
Q

What is the minimum CPD per 5 year cycle for a dental nurse / technician?

A

50 hours

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7
Q

What is the minimum CPD hours per 2 years?

A

10 hours

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8
Q

The GDC recommends how many hours per CPD cycle in medical emergencies?

A

10 hours (2 hours annually x5 year cycle)

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9
Q

The GDC recommends how many hours per CPD cycle in disinfection and decontamination?

A

5 hours

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10
Q

The GDC recommends how many hours per CPD cycle in radiography and radiation protection?

A

5 hours

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11
Q

Which topic is recommended a minimum of 5 hours for dental technicians instead of radiology?

A

dental materials
(think about the job)

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12
Q

The GDC recommends how many hours of sedation related CPD per 5 year cycle?

A

12 hours

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13
Q

What is clinical effectiveness?

A

A measure of how successful a service is, including outcomes, safety, cost and efficacy.

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14
Q

What is risk management?

A

Aims to reduce the chances of adverse clinical events -
creates a safe working environment by following health and safety at work act 1974.

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15
Q

What is significant event analysis?

A

Reflecting on an event following occurrence.

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16
Q

What is an audit?

A

Quality improvement process seeking to improve care and outcomes through a systematic review of care.

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17
Q

What act allows treatment to go ahead with consent from someone with parental consent?

A

Children’s Act 1989

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18
Q

Can a foster parent provide consent for a child?

A

No - they must gain consent from the child’s local authority.

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19
Q

The father of a 4 year old child is not married to the child’s mother however his name is on the birth certificate.
Can he provide valid consent?

A

Yes

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20
Q

What act can be used to assess someone’s capacity to give consent?

A

Mental Capacity Act 2005

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21
Q

What is the difference between lasting power of attorney vs independent mental capacity advocate?

A

LPA - someone who makes decisions for someone lacking capacity.
IMCA - same role but they’re assigned when the pt doesn’t have a LPA.

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22
Q

Which act can allow a person with ‘care’ (e.g: grandparent) to give consent on the day of treatment if written consent of the parent has already been obtained?

A

Children’s Act 1989

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23
Q

Which act provides information and guidance on management of children’s safeguarding issues?

A

Children and Social Work Act 2017

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24
Q

Which act places duty on local authorities and their partners of service delivery and cooperating in safeguarding?

A

Children’s Act 2004

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25
Which act clarifies expectations about safeguarding training?
Care Act 2014
26
According to GDC guidance under the principle of ‘obtaining valid consent’, which form of consent is required for GA and conscious sedation?
written
27
Which form of consent is required for photography?
written
28
What charge can be given for treating without consent?
assault / battery
29
What charge can be given for treating under consent that was obtained without thorough explanation?
negligence
30
A dentist has undergone 3 hours of CPD in their first year / 5 year cycle. **Give the minimum hours of CPD that must be done in year 2 and 3**
2 - 7 hours 3 - 3 hours
31
Which act outlines the 9 protected characteristics?
Equality Act 2010
32
Is gender reassignment a protected characteristic?
Yes
33
Which other act influences the GDC EDI strategy?
Human Rights Act 1998
34
The maltreatment of pts with HIV is unethical and unlawful under which act?
Equality Act 2010
35
Which act sets objectives for dentists to protect the public, promote and maintain confidence in the profession and promote professional standards?
Dentist Act 1984
36
Which act is part of the Equality Act and requires public bodies to regard the need to eliminate discrimination, harassment and victimisation.
Public Sector Equality Duty
37
An orthodontic therapist has just undertaken supra. The pt requires sub at the next visit and requires an IDB. **Which parts of the tx, if any, can the ortho therapist carry out?**
None - sub and LA are out of scope.
38
Can dental hygienists prescribe radiographs?
Yes
39
A hygienist spots an overhang that acts as a plaque retentive factor. **What can the hygienist do to help the issue?**
Smoothen the restoration - **they cannot remove or replace**. NOT A THERAPIST.
40
A hygienist is treating a 7 y/o. Tx plan includes fissure sealants on all 6s and XLA of URE - **what can the hygienist do?**
fissure sealants but NOT xla
41
Can a therapist recement a crown with panavia?
No - only temp cement (tempbond)
42
Is it within a therapist’s SoP to do a supra scale around implants?
Yes
43
3 additional skills that hygienists / therapists can undertake.
1. whitening 2. suture removal under the supervision of a dentist 3. IHS sedation
44
A dental technician spots an unusual mass on the hard palate of study models. The pt has a history of oral cancer however the GDP is on holiday. **Can they make a referral to another healthcare professional?**
Yes
45
What can a clinical dental technician do?
- prescribe and fit dentures - can only fit in dentate pts under the prescription of a dentists - can take radiographs but undertake additional training to prescribe
46
When is it appropriate to release confidential info without pts consent?
When the safety of the patient / public is at risk.
47
What type of consent is required if you’re intending to share pt info for research purposes?
written
48
Which act protects employees who raise concerns against crime and danger to pt safety?
Public Interest Disclosure Act 1998
49
Which act allows patients to see reports about them for employment or insurance purposes?
Medical Reports Act 1988
50
Which act allows for representatives of dead patients to obtain their dental records?
Health Records Act 1990
51
Which act is concerned with protecting patient confidentiality, retention of records and patient’s request for records?
Data protection act 2018
52
Which act permits public authorities to respond to requests of non-confidential information (e.g: staffing policies).
Freedom of Information Act 2000
53
Data Protection Act 2018 and GDPR states that records must be provided within what time frame?
1 month
54
If there is a data breach, how long should the DP officer take to inform the supervisory authority?
no longer than 72 hours
55
NHS complaints procedure states complaints should be acknowledged within what time frame?
within 3 days, death within 10 days.
56
If there has been no resolution to the complaint, what service can you advise the patient to contact?
NHS ombudsman
57
What is the recommended time frame verbal complaints should be dealt with?
24 hours
58
What shape of collimator is suggested by optimisation in APARP?
rectangular
59
What type of metal is recommended to be used to filter an x-ray beam?
aluminium
60
Which radiographic technique is recommended?
paralleling
61
Radiation dose for a classified worker?
20 mSv
62
Radiation dose for a non-classified worker (dentist).
6 mSv
63
Radiation dose for the public / carer?
1mSv
64
All x-ray equipment needs to be registered with which body?
Health and Safety Executive
65
How often is an internal and external audit required?
internal = 3 months external = annual
66
**Which role is being described:** The employer who takes legal responsibility for implementing both sets of regulations and the safety and maintenance of equipment.
Legal Person
67
**Which role is being described?** Provision of expert advice to the legal person on radiation protection, risk assessment and equipment.
Radiation Protection Advisor
68
**Which role is being described?** Ensures compliance with IRR and supervises the arrangement set out in the local riles. Responsible for compiling operating procedures and protocols on behalf of the legal person.
Radiation Protection Supercisor
69
Which role justifies a radiographic exposure?
Practitioner
70
How often should digital image receptors be inspected?
Every 3 months.
71
Which act outlines what medical professionals can prescribe?
Medicines Act 1968
72
Which act allows controlled use of medicines that can be misused and lead to addiction?
Misuse of Drugs Act 1971
73
What are the stages of a sharps injury?
1. squeeze wound 2. wash with soap and water (no scrubbing) 3. dry and cover with waterproof dressing 4. report to sharps person
74
Which virus should all clinicians be vaccinated against?
Hep B
75
Which vaccine should pregnant women have?
flu
76
What does a 2 in a circle with a line through indicate about an instrument?
single use
77
When should water lines be flushed for 2 mins?
at the start and end of the day everyday
78
Which body enforces regulations relating to tooth whitening?
EU cosmetic regulations 2013
79
Max conc for hydrogen peroxide in tooth whitening under prescription?
6%
80
Max conc for hydrogen peroxide in tooth whitening not under prescription?
0.1%
81
Minimum age for whitening.
18
82
Which act allows the GDC to prosecute individuals providing whitening that aren’t registered?
Dentists Act 1984
83
How often should a risk assessment be done for an adult and child?
12 months for child 24 months for adult
84
Tetanus is a notifiable disease in accordance with which act?
Public Health Act 1984
85
How long should records be kept?
For 11 years after treatment or until they are 25 (whichever is longest)
86
When should ME drug expiries be checked?
every week
87
What period of time is suggested to determine whether a root-treated tooth has a favourable or unfavourable outcome?
4 years
88
NHS band for a biopsy.
1
89
NHS band for an apicectomy
2
90
NHS band for the addition of a clasp or tooth to a denture?
2
91
NHS band for a gingivectomy, frenectomy, cyst removal, gingival grafts, sub PMPR
2
92

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