SBA example questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is viral sialadenitis?

A

Inflammation and enlargement of 1/several major salivary glands.

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2
Q

Which 2 salivary glands does viral sialadenitis most commonly affect?

A

Parotid and submandibular glands.

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3
Q

Which bacteria most commonly causes sialadenitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus.

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4
Q

What is the most common viral cause of sialadenitis?

A

Mumps

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5
Q

6 symptoms of sialadenitis?

A
  1. Enlargement and discolouration of the glands.
  2. Fever
  3. Decreased saliva.
  4. Pain whilst eating.
  5. Dry mouth.
  6. Swelling in the cheek and neck region.
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6
Q

Treatment of sialadenitis.

(inflammation of the salivary gland)

A
  1. Good OH
  2. Increased fluid intake.
  3. Massaging the affected gland.
  4. Applying a warm compress.
  5. Using foods which increase/stimulate saliva (lemon drops)
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7
Q

In children aged 7-11, what BPE should be used and what are the codes?

A

Modified BPE - codes 0, 1 and 2.

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8
Q

At what age should normal BPE codes be used?

A

From 12 years old.

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9
Q

What teeth are examined in a BPE for children aged 7-11?

A

UR6, UR1, UL6
LR6, LL1, LL6

(2 right, 1 left and 2 left, 1 right)

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10
Q

What are the 2 forms of necrotising periodontal disease?

A

Necrotising Gingivitis (ANUG)
Necrotising Periodontitis

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11
Q

What are the symptoms of necrotising periodontal disease?

A

Pain
Bleeding
Halitosis

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12
Q

What is necrotising stomatitis?

A

Extension of necrosis beyond the mucogingival junction.

more extensive bone and mucosal loss beyond the gums and tissue supporting the teeth

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13
Q

3 common species of bacteria found in ANUG:

A
  1. Treponema
  2. Fusobacterium
  3. Prevotella Intermedia
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14
Q

Treatment of ANUG

A
  1. PMPR
  2. Oxidising Mouthwash
  3. Chlorhexidine
  4. Antibiotics (metronidazole)
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15
Q

What is a periodontal abscess?

A

Localised purulent lesion that develops in the soft tissue adjacent to a pre-existent pocket.

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16
Q

What is a purulent lesion?

A

Pus filled lesion.

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17
Q

What could be the cause of a periodontal abscess?

A
  1. Trauma to the pocket epithelium.
  2. Obstruction to the pocket entrance.
  3. Complication of subgingival instrumentation.
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18
Q

3 Symptoms of a Periodontal Abscess

A
  1. Pain on biting / Constant.
  2. Swelling
  3. Discharge causing possible halitosis.
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19
Q

What strain of virus is responsible for cold sores?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV 1)

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20
Q

Antiviral treatment for cold sores:

A

Acyclovir

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21
Q

What is necrotising sialometaplasia?

A

Trauma to the palatal salivary glands.

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22
Q

Name 3 types of medications that cause gingival hyperplasia:

A
  1. Phenytoin
  2. Calcium Channel Blockers
  3. Cyclosporin
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23
Q

Indication for use of the oropharyngeal airway?

A

An unresponsive patient with an absent gag reflex.

24
Q

What would be an indication for use of a nasopharyngeal airway?

A

Patient with reduced consciousness and an intact gag reflex.

25
Q

How much oxygen should be administered during a medical emergency?

A

15 litres per min

26
Q

ABCDE assessment for an Acute Asthma Attack

A

A - Can’t complete sentences in 1 breath.
B - Tachypnoea (increased respiratory rate).
C - Tachycardia
D - Reduced level of consciousness due to hypoxia.
E - Inspect for evidence of anaphylaxis.

27
Q

Treatment for an acute asthma attack.

A

Administer high flow oxygen and a reliever inhaler (2 puffs every 2 mins for up to 10 mins).

28
Q

ABCDE assessment for anaphylaxis.

A

A - Stridor, swelling to lips and tongue.
B - Shortness of breath and increased respiratory rate, wheezing.
C - Tachycardia and hypotension, pallor.
D - Reduced level of consciousness.
E - Skin and mucosal changes.

29
Q

Treatment for Anaphylaxis

A
  1. Oxygen and airway support.
  2. Chair position.
  3. Adrenaline via intramuscular injection.
  4. Salbutamol if severe wheezing.
30
Q

Dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis for a child under 6.

A

150 micrograms of 1:1000 adrenaline.

31
Q

Dose of adrenaline in anaphylaxis for a child between 6-11 years.

A

300 micrograms of 1:1000 adrenaline.

32
Q

Dose of adrenaline for adults and children over 12.

A

500 micrograms of 1:1000 adrenaline.

33
Q

Protocol for choking.

A
  1. Encourage pt to cough.
  2. If ineffective give 5 back blows.
  3. If still ineffective, give 5 abdominal thrusts.
34
Q

Choking protocol for infants.

A
  1. Place head down and administer 5 backblows with the heel of hand.
  2. If ineffective, give 5 chest thrusts.

chest thrusts with 2 fingers at a sharp and slow rate

35
Q

What is clinical governance?

A

A system through which the NHS organisations are accountable for improving the quality of their services and safeguarding high standards of care by creating an environment in which excellence in clinical care will flourish.

36
Q

7 pillars of clinical governance:

A
  1. Clinical Effectiveness
  2. Risk Management
  3. Patient and Public Involvement
  4. Audit
  5. Staff Management
  6. Education and Training
  7. Information
37
Q

How many hours of CPD does a dentist need?

A

100 hours every 5 years.

38
Q

How many hours of CPD does a dental therapist and hygienist need?

A

75 hours every 5 years.

39
Q

How much CPD does a dental nurse need?

A

50 hours every 5 years.

40
Q

Which duct is the most common site for salivary stones and why?

A

Submandibular Duct as this has an ‘uphill course’.

41
Q

What is the proposed aetiology of salivary stones?

A

Deposition of calcium salts around a nidus (focus of infection) of debris.

42
Q

Episodic pain / swelling around meal time paired with a firm mass on the FoM would make you suspicious of…

A

Salivary Stones (sialolithiasis)

43
Q

Histologically, concentric rings of calcium deposits are indicative of…

A

Salivary Stones - sialolithiasis.

44
Q

What causes an extraversion mucocele?

A

Damage to a salivary gland duct so mucin is spilled into the connective tissues.

45
Q

Where is the most common site for a mucocele?

A

On the lower lip (very uncommon on the top).

46
Q

Where are 75% of necrotising sialometaplasia lesions located?

A

Minor salivary glands on the hard palate.

47
Q

Chronic autoimmune disease that is involved in the destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands is called…

A

Sjögren’s Syndrome

48
Q

What is secondary sjögren’s syndrome?

A

Sicca Syndrome plus another autoimmune disease.

(lupus, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis or cirrhosis)

49
Q

Which kind of caries is associated with sjögren’s?

A

Cervical

50
Q

How is sjögren’s syndrome managed?

A

Artificial saliva, maintaining good OH, anti-fungal agents to prevent candida.

51
Q

Medications for sjogren’s syndrome:

A

Hydroxychloroquine and methotrexate.

52
Q

Which 3 agents can be used for pulpal protection in a deep carious lesion?

A

Dycal (calcium hydroxide)
Biodentine (calcium silicate)
Vitrebond (resin glass ionomer

53
Q

When is the use of dycal indicated?

A
  1. Direct and indirect pulp capping.
  2. Root fractures.
  3. Root resorption.

** DO NOT USE UNDER AMALGAM **

54
Q

When is the use of biodentine indicated?

A
  1. Direct and indirect pulp capping.
  2. Pulpotomies.
  3. Furcation repair.
  4. Can be used under amalgam.

high cost and long setting time

55
Q

When is the use of vitrebond indicated?

A
  1. Indirect pulp capping ONLY.
  2. Base under composite and/or amalgam.

will only bond to dentine, not the pulp