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1. SBA > SBA example questions > Flashcards

SBA example questions Flashcards

1
Q

Describe Cellulitis

A

Bacterial Skin Infection

  • affects the deeper layers of skin and underlying tissues.
  • bacteria enters through a break (e.g: cut, wound, insect bite)
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2
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of cellulitis?

A
  • pain/tenderness
  • swelling of the lymph nodes
  • fever
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3
Q

Where is cellulitis most likely to occur?

A

In the lower legs.

(but can occur on any part of the body)

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4
Q

Treatment for Cellulitis.

A

oral antibiotics - mild cases

IV antibiotics - sever cases or when oral AB aren’t effective

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5
Q

What is discoid lupus erythematous?

A

Chronic Skin Condition (autoimmune)

  • primarily affects the skin
  • development of coin shaped lesions on the skin
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6
Q

How is discoid lupus erythematosus diagnosed?

A
  • skin biopsy findings
  • blood tests
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7
Q

How would Discoid Lupus Erythematous be treated?

A
  • topical corticosteroids
  • topical calcineurin inhibitors
  • antimalarials
  • sun protection
  • intralesional steroid injections (injected directly into the lesions)
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8
Q

What is Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A
  • genetic disorder
  • combination of craniofacial and ear abnormalities
  • impacts development of bones and tissues in the face

distinct facial features - THE KID IN WONDER

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9
Q

What are the sings and symptoms of Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A
  • underdeveloped jaw
  • malformed cheekbones
  • downward slanting palpebral fissures
  • lower eye colobomas (notches in the lower eyelids)
  • ear abnormalities
  • airway/breathing difficulties
  • speech/hearing impairments
  • cleft palate
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10
Q

How is Treacher Collins Syndrome managed?

A
  • surgical intervention
  • hearing aids
  • speech therapy
  • airway management
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11
Q

What is the cause of Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A
  • mutations in the TCOF1, POLR1C or POLR1D genes
  • these genes impact the development of neural crest cells

(neural crest cells are important for the formation of facial bones during embryological development)

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12
Q

What is a clinical audit?

A

Systemic process to review and evaluate the quality of pt care within a healthcare setting.

(ensures healthcare services are in line with established standards)

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13
Q

8 Components of Clinical Governance

A
  1. pt centred care
  2. quality and safety
  3. clinical effectiveness
  4. risk management
  5. education / training
  6. leadership and culture
  7. clinical audit and monitoring
  8. information and communication
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14
Q

What is Clinical Effectiveness?

A

Extent of interventions having the desired outcome under everyday clinical conditions.

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15
Q

A child presents with swollen gingiva and erythema.

How would this be managed?

A
  1. Address the cause of inflammation (gingivitis? Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?)
  2. OHI, TBI
  3. Supragingival PMPR
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16
Q

Why shouldn’t aspirin be given to children?

A

Causes Reye’s Syndrome - swelling in the liver and the brain.

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17
Q

What information should be on a PSD when providing LA or fluoride?

A
  • pt information (name, DOB, RQ)
  • agent being prescribed
  • directions for use (apply x amount, how many times per day)
  • route of administration
  • start and finish dates
  • signature
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18
Q

What concentration of fluoride should be prescribed for a 15 year old with HIGH caries risk?

A

From 10+ years: duraphat 2,8000

(duraphat 5,000 is used in 16+)

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19
Q

What are the properties of amalgam?

A
  • high compressive strength
  • 45-70 MPa tensile strength
  • good shear strength and fatigue resistance
  • adapts well to cavity prep to prevent microleakage
  • good dimensional stability to minimise expansion upon setting
  • corrosion resistant
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20
Q

What 4 factors can cause implant recession?

A
  1. biological factors / mechanical factors
  2. improper implant placement
  3. inadequate soft tissue thickness
  4. complications during healing
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21
Q

What impact would implant recession have on its success?

A

Exposes parts of the implant structure (e.g: abutment or implant collar).

  • impacts aesthetics
  • more susceptible to peri-implantitis
22
Q

GA fasting rule (2-4-6)

A

2 hours - clear fluid
4 hours - breast milk
6 hours - solids and nonhuman/formula milk children

23
Q

Sharps Protocol

A
  1. encourage bleeding from the wound
  2. wash with soap and water
  3. cover with waterproof dressing
24
Q

What to do if a pt collapses and you suspect cardiac arrest.

A

DRS ABC

Danger
Response
Airway
Breathing
Circulation

CPR
call 999
call for help
(3 Cs)

25
Q

Dose of adrenaline for >6 years.

A

0.15 mg/ml

26
Q

Dose of adrenaline for 6-12 years.

A

0.3 mg/ml

27
Q

Dose of adrenaline for 12+ years.

A

0.5 mg/ml

28
Q

Which type of LA would you give for a proximal restoration of a LL1?

A

Buccal infiltration.

29
Q

Which type of restorative material could be used for root caries?

A

GIC

30
Q

Why shouldn’t amalgam be used in pregnant or breastfeeding women?

A

There is no evidence to say it is harmful, there is more of an environmental concern.

31
Q

How many cusps do the lower 6th, 7th and 8th molars have?

A

6 = 5
7 = 4
8 = 4

32
Q

Why is lidocaine recommended in paediatric pts?

A

lower risk of systemic toxicity compared to other LAs

33
Q

Benefits of Mepivicaine:

A
  • similar to lidocaine in terms of onset and duration
  • can be used as an alternative for pts with allergies to other LA
34
Q

Benefits of Prilocaine and Bupivicaine:

A
  • longer duration of action compared to lidocaine
  • often used for longer dental procedures
35
Q

Which treatment would NOT be carried out for a patient with endocarditis?

A

Sub Gingival PMPR

36
Q

If a 12 year old has no caries/restorations and good OH, how often should radiographs be taken?

A

Every 12-24 months

37
Q

Name 5 potential causes for lichenoid reactions.

A
  1. Medications (beta-blockers, NSAIDs, antimalarials)
  2. Metals (e.g: gold, amalgam)
  3. Autoimmune Diseases (rheumatoid arthritis, lupus)
  4. Contact Allergens
  5. Genetic Predisposition / Unknown Cause
38
Q

Which condition is usually referred to as ‘cheesy molars’?

A

Molar-Incisor Hypomineralisation

39
Q

What is Ectodermal Dysplasia?

A

Group of genetic disorders that primarily affect the development and function of the ectodermal structures (skin, hair, nails, teeth and sweat glands).

40
Q

A father comes in with the child - he is not married to the mother but is on the birth certificate, can he consent for treatment?

A

If he is on the PR form.

(being listed on the birth certificate does not necessarily confer legal custody/guardianship)

41
Q

Which type of local anaesthetic would be suitable for a pregnant patient?

A

Lidocaine

42
Q

What is a melanoma?

A

Type of skin cancer originating from melanocytes (pigment-producing cells).

  • considered the most aggressive form of skin cancer.
  • occur on the skin, eyes and mucous membranes.
43
Q

What type of medication are bisohosphinates?

A

Antiresorptive Medication - slow down bone loss with osteoporosis.

44
Q

What type of medication is Ciclosporin?

A

Immunosuppressant

45
Q

What oral side effect do patients taking Ciclosporin suffer from?

A

Gingival Hyperplasia

46
Q

When is Chlorhexidine prescribed?

A

To help control bacterial growth, particularly in gingivitis or following dental procedures.

Broad Spectrum Antibacterial

47
Q

What is the difference between the cause of disquamative gingivitis and gingivitis?

A

Disquamative gingivitis is associated with an underlying autoimmune/vesicobullous disorder whereas gingivitis occurs due to the accumulation of dental plaque.

48
Q

How does the presentation of disquamative gingivitis differ from gingivitis?

A

The gingiva appear shiny and red with erosion/ulceration.

49
Q

How much ppm would be recommended in a toothpaste for a 5 year old?

A

1000ppm is recommended from 3-6 years

50
Q

How many ppm would be recommended in a toothpaste for 8 year olds?

A

1350-1500 ppm from 7-10 years

51
Q

How much ppm should be recommended for children over 10?

A

1450ppm like adults

1. SBA (28 decks)

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