outreach Flashcards

1
Q

A patient mistakenly claims exemption for NHS dental treatment costs during a course of treatment. Which action would the NHS BSA take?

A

£100 penalty fine plus the cost of the treatment band.

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2
Q

A dental HYGIENIST and THERAPIST can provide treatment to patients without the prescription of a dentist (Direct Access). What procedures/treatments would still require a prescription from a dentist?

a. tooth whitening
b. radiographs
c. fissure sealants
d. temporary re-cement of a crown

A

a. tooth whitening

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3
Q

You are considering an appropriate recall interval for a patient and have consulted the SDCEP guidance to help you record their oral health risk. You have communicated to the patient that they have a medium risk of developing dental caries. What follow up period should be advised?

a. 3 months
b. 12 months
c. 6 months
d. 9 months

A

c. 6 months

(a patient with medium risk should be reviewed every 6 months to monitor their compliance and reinforce all OHI given).

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4
Q

A patient completes their PR form but is unsure whether they have to pay for their dental treatment. What should you do?

A

Ask them to pay the appropriate NHS band charge and claim it back at a later date.

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5
Q

When carrying out an OH assessment, what modifying factors would you consider using to evaluate a patient’s level of risk for development of oral diseases such as periodontal disease?

a. Diabetes
b. Poor OH
c. Smoking Habits
d. Alcohol Intake
e. Occupation

A

a. diabetes, b. poor OH and c. smoking habits

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6
Q

True or False

A newly qualified dentist or therapist would be expected to provide treatment to NHS patients at a Level 2 complexity.

A

False - level 2s are procedures requiring a clinician with enhanced skills and experience who may or may not be on a specialist register.

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7
Q

When carrying out an OH assessment, what modifying factors would you consider using to evaluate risk of oral cancer?

a. occupation
b. smoking habits
c. alcohol intake
d. absence of fruit and veg in diet
e. salivary flow rate.

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

a. occupation - outdoor workers.
b. smoking habits
c. alcohol intake
d. absence of fruit and veg in diet
e. salivary flow rate - xerostomia.

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8
Q

You have just completed a dental examination of a patient previously assessed as high risk for dental caries. You regard this past disease as being stabilised and not active but are aware that several risk factors could increase the patient’s likelihood of developing more carious lesions.

When would you review this patient again?

A

3 months

(discuss the risk factors with the patient and provide a high fluoride supplement).

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9
Q

From the options below, what best describes the differences between Level 1, 2 and 3 complexity?

a. type of dental setting the treatment is provided in.
b. practitioners specialist qualifications
c. type of dental contract the provider is performing under.
d. procedural difficulty.

A

d. procedural difficulty

(levels of complexity describe procedural difficulty, patient modifying factors and competence required of the clinician to deliver care of that level).

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10
Q

A dental therapist is providing a restoration for a patient on referral from a dentist. LA has been given and during caries removal, a small pinhead of pulp horn is exposed. The dentist is away on holiday and there is no other on site.

What would you expect the therapist to do within their scope of practice?

A
  1. Remove any soft caries with an excavator, clearing the ADJ.
  2. Pulp cap the exposure and restore/dress.
  3. Document and warn the patient about symptoms and possible RCT.
  4. Inform referring dentist.

(stabilising the tooth is the most appropriate option until it can be reviewed by a dentist).

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11
Q

Which members of the dental team can prescribe radiographs without the prescription of a dentist to help in monitoring a patients oral disease?

a. dental nurse
b. dental receptionist
c. dental therapist
d. clinical dental technician

A

c. dental therapist

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12
Q

When working to a Patient Group Direction (PGD), it is important to understand the limitations of your scope of practice.

What are are PGDs required for to administer?

A

For a dental care professional to administer a prescription only medicine which can be provided without a dentist present in the practice.

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13
Q

The Community Dental Service can offer appointments and treatments to which following patients?

a. medically compromised
b. patients requiring routine extractions
c. patients with learning and physical disabilities
d. patients requiring routine extractions under sedation

A

a, c, d

a. medically compromised
c. learning and physical disabilities
d. routine XLAs under sedation

(can’t treat patients who require routine treatment which could be easily provided in a GDP setting).

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14
Q

When working in a primary care practice, a PSD can be used to allow a dental care professional such as a therapist to administer and in some instances supply prescription only medicines.

Which POMs would this apply to?

a. antimicrobial mouthwash (chlorhexidine)
b. topical fluoride (duraphat varnish)
c. toothpaste (duraphat toothpaste)
d. LA

A

b, c and d

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15
Q

Which members of the dental team may be able to take radiographs without the prescription of a dentist to assist in the monitoring of a patients oral disease?

a. dental therapist
b. dental nurse
c. dental technician
d. clinical dental technician

A

a. dental therapist

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16
Q

Choose all the possible duties a receptionist can undertake during a working day that would assist a dental professional in the monitoring of a patient’s oral disease?

a. ensuring they are booked in the correct recall period as prescribed..
b. updating details of every patient, including contacts, email, address.
c. providing a list of pts overdue their recall period.
d. ensuring pt charge is collected.

A

a, b and c.

(not responsible for collecting pt charges).

17
Q

Which is the correct colour prescription form used in an NHS primary care GDS practice that can be used to prescribe POM such as fluoride toothpastes.

a. prurple
b. green
c. pink
d. yellow

A

d. yellow

18
Q

In the Cheshire and Mersey region, there are several ways you can refer a dental patient to another service provider for advanced services.

Select all the appropriate methods of referral that will be accepted by a provider:

a. online dental referral
b. phone only referral
c. paper proforma referral faxed
d. paper proforma referral posted

A

a. online dental referral
c. paper proforma referral posted
d. paper proforma referral fixed

(all referrals except PHONE referrals will be accepted)

19
Q

In a primary dental care setting, what does PDS stand for?

a. Primary Dental Service
b. Professional Dental Service
c. Personal Dental Service
d. Patient Dental Service

A

c. Personal Dental Service

(provide specialist of specialised services, usually have a higher UDA value attached to their contract and contracts are usually time limiting)

20
Q

In primary dental care, which options would you consider having appropriate referral criteria to send to the Community Dental Service?

a. anxious adults - for continuing care such as dental exam.
b. oral surgery - for a single course of treatment.
c. paediatric exodontia with LA and inhalation sedation/GA.
d. special care patients - children or adults continuing care.

A

b. oral surgery
c. paeds exodontia
d. special care

(anxious adults can be seen in general practice and then referred for single items of treatment).

21
Q

Which band of treatment does an examination, composite filling and scale and polish come under?

A

Band 2 - £70.70

22
Q

True or False

A DAC universal autoclave is used for disinfection and sterilisation of dental mirror and probes?

A

False - a DAC is used to disinfect and sterilise handpieces.

23
Q

How often should the emergency equipment be checked?

a. weekly
b. monthly
c. daily
d. bi-weekly

A

a. weekly

(as a minimum will ensure that the practice rarely has equipment missing which could prevent an ME from being managed properly)

24
Q

A primary care dental practice will need to manage its budget to enable sustainable cashflow throughout the financial year.

Identify the costs that are the responsibility of a GDS practice owner:

a. uniform for a hygienist who is employed.
b. uniform for a self employed therapist.
c. uniform for an associate.
d. uniform for a dental nurse.

A

A and D

25
Q

An adult patient receives a course of treatment consisting of an examination, BWs, prevention, scale and polish and 2 fissure sealants.

Which band does this come under?

A

Band 1 NHS Charge

(if you don’t drill, claim band 1)

26
Q

How would a practice owner raise the funds for a capital purchase such as a dental chair?

a. personal finances
b. NHS capital funding
c. credit agreement with supplier
d. bank loan

A

a, c and d

personal finances, credit agreement and bank loans - the NHS will not provide capital funding for these items in a GDS setting.

27
Q

When considering members of the dental team in a typical GDS practice, what members of the dental team are able to complete items in courses of NHS treatment?

a. associate dentist
b. dental nurse
c. foundation dentist
d. dental therapist

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

(all members can perform certain items planned in an NHS course of tax as long as they have a performer number, are on an approved training scheme or there is a PSD and all members are working within their scope).

28
Q

Which band of treatment generates 3 UDAs.

A

Band 2

(band 1 = 1, band 2 = 3 and band 3 = 12).

29
Q

Which members of the dental team are currently able to plan a course of NHS treatment:

a. associate dentist
b. foundation dentist
c. dental nurse
d. dental therapist

A

a. associate dentist

b. foundation dentist

30
Q

Which statement is correct in relation to decontamination of reusable dental instruments:

a. essential and best practice only applies to NHS dental practices.
b. there is no difference between essential and best practice.
c. every dental practice should be achieving best practice.
d. every dental practice should be achieving essential practice

A

d. Every dental practice should be achieving ESSENTIAL practice.

(guidance found in HTM01-05)

31
Q

Which are the key areas from the IPS audit tool a practice will be measuring their compliance against?

a. waste management
b. management of medical devices
c. prevention of blood bourne virus exposure.
d. staff in PPE

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

32
Q

Which type of evidence can members of the dental team submit to the GDC that shows they are practicing within their SoP?

a. number of years qualified as a professional.
b. e-learning certificates
c. lecture attendance
d. number of UDAs completed in a financial year
e. clinical audits

A

b. e-learning certificates
c. lecture attendance
e. clinical audits

(GDC don’t recognise work output alone).

33
Q

If a patient has a complaint after they have received a course of treatment, how long do they have to log this to the dental practice?

a. 12 months
b. 3 years
c. 6 months
d. 2 years

A

a. 12 months

34
Q

A dental assurance framework (DAF) report is produced by the BSA for dental practices how often?

a. annually
b. quarterly
c. bi-annually
d. weekly

A

b. quarterly

35
Q

A dental nurse is able to take dental radiographs, but without any further training what stage of the radiographic process must be completed by another qualified member of the team?

a. reporting
b. referral
c. justification
d. interpretation

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

36
Q

From the options below, pick the 5 main lines of enquiry the CQC will use to inspect dental services in England:

a. clean
b. effective
c. caring
d. compliant
e. responsive
f. well led
g. secure
h. safe

A

effective, caring, responsive, well-led, safe.

37
Q

A patient makes a written complaint about treatment you have provided for them on the NHS.

What initial steps should you take?

a. acknowledge the complaint as soon as possible but within 3 days.
b. inform the patient they should contact the NHS PALs service.
c. acknowledge the complaint as soon as possible but within 7 days.
d. advise the patient to contact the dental complaints service.

A

a. acknowledge within 3 days

(7 days could give no other choice than to escalate).

38
Q

Why are clinical audits important in the dental practice?

a. audits help improve a service by constantly reviewing clinical processes.
b. audits help target neglect in patient care
c. audits help reduce costs
d. audits show you are compliant to the regulators

A

a. audits help improve a service by constantly reviewing clinical processes.

39
Q

Which of the roles below is linked to a radiation (medical) physics expert?

a. radiation protection advisor
b. IRMER practitioner
c. operator
d. radiation protection supervisor

A

a. Radiation Protection Advisor