Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SAC A&P II > Test 4 Questions > Flashcards

Test 4 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

When organic molecules are consumed, what process will catabolize these substances via enzymatic reactions?

A) chemical digestion
B) mechanical digestion
C) absorption
D) secretion

A

A) chemical digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which chemical stimulates the release of bile from the gallbladder when fatty chyme enters the duodenum?

A) hydrochloric acid
B) cholecystokinin
C) pancreatic lipase
D) secretin

A

B) cholecystokinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

All of the statements about saliva are true, EXCEPT:

A) Protein catabolism begins in the mouth due to enzymes present in saliva.
B) Saliva consists of enzymes to catabolize microbes in the mouth.
C) Saliva moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus.
D) Water content of saliva dissolves food chemicals, so they can be tasted.

A

A) Protein catabolism begins in the mouth due to enzymes present in saliva.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which enzyme is specific for triglyceride digestion?

A) nucleosidases
B) lingual lipase
C) pancreatic amylase
D) aminopeptidase

A

B) lingual lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding the small intestine?

A) The enzymes secreted by the small intestine function to convert chyme into feces.
B) Brush-border enzymes and segmentations are necessary for digestion to occur in the small intestine.
C) Intestinal juice is secreted in response to distention of the small intestine.
D) The small intestine absorbs nutrients in their simplest molecular forms.

A

A) The enzymes secreted by the small intestine function to convert chyme into feces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Identify the correct sequence of enzyme activation that occurs in the duodenum.

A) enteropeptidase → trypsinogen → trypsin → chymotrypsin → carboxypeptidase
B) enteropeptidase → trypsinogen → trypsin → chymotrypsinogen → chymotrypsin
C) enteropeptidase → trypsin → trypsinogen → chymotrypsin → chymotrypsinogen
D) enteropeptidase → trypsin → trypsinogen → carboxypeptidase → procarboxypeptidase

A

B) enteropeptidase → trypsinogen → trypsin → chymotrypsinogen → chymotrypsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What stage of deglutition involves relaxation of the UES to allow the food bolus to enter the esophagus?

A) segmentation and peristalsis
B) esophageal stage
C) pharyngeal stage
D) voluntary stage

A

C) pharyngeal stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The bacteria that live in the large intestine function to perform all of the following EXCEPT:

A) breakdown of proteins into amino acids
B) decompose bilirubin
C) secrete mucus for lubrication
D) release gases due to the fermentation of carbohydrates

A

C) secrete mucus for lubrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The ability of sperm to move through the ductus (vas) deferens is due to _____.

A) peristaltic contractions
B) enzymatic activity
C) gravity
D) hormonal action

A

A) peristaltic contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which hormone controls the release of hormones from the anterior pituitary?

A) luteinizing hormone (LH)
B) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) testosterone

A

B) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which event is involved in the development of male reproductive structures?

A) secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the first week of the pregnancy
B) secretion of androgens prenatally and lasting into the first few months after birth
C) suppression of female hormones during pregnancy
D) suppression of inhibin

A

B) secretion of androgens prenatally and lasting into the first few months after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The structure that immediately receives the ovulated oocyte and provides a site for fertilization is the _____.

A) myometirum of the uterus
B) uterine (Fallopian) tube
C) stratum functionalis of the endometrium
D) ovary

A

B) uterine (Fallopian) tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How are human egg and sperm similar?

A) Approximately the same number of egg and sperm are produced each month in both sexes.
B) Egg and sperm are about the same size.
C) Egg and sperm have the same number of chromosomes.
D) Egg and sperm develop and mature due to the presence of the same hormones.

A

C) Egg and sperm have the same number of chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Characteristics of the mature sperm include the______.

A) absence of a nucleus and mitochondria
B) presence of Y chromosomes in approximately half the sperm
C) presence of two X chromosomes in approximately half the sperm
D) absence of an acrosome

A

B) presence of Y chromosomes in approximately half the sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Effects of estrogen include _____.

A) growth of breasts via distribution of adipose tissue
B) growth of the larynx
C) increase in skeletal-muscle mass
D) descent of the testes in utero

A

A) growth of breasts via distribution of adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Secretion of progesterone stimulates ______.

A) preparation of the mammary glands for lactation
B) menstruation as the stratum functionalis is discharged from the uterus
C) development of the female secondary sex characteristics
D) uterine contractions of the myometrium

A

A) preparation of the mammary glands for lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Menstruation, typically, occurs when _____.

A) blood levels of FSH decline
B) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decline
C) the corpus luteum secretes progesterone
D) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone rise

A

B) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following events will occur after ovulation?

A) Menses will begin immediately.
B) The endometrium prepares for implantation of a fertilized egg.
C) The secretion of FSH causes the development of ovarian follicles.
D) The corpus luteum will only secrete estrogens.

A

B) The endometrium prepares for implantation of a fertilized egg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which hormone is absolutely necessary for ovulation to occur?

A) estrogens
B) progesterone
C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) luteinizing hormone (LH)

A

D) luteinizing hormone (LH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which statement is TRUE about testosterone control?

A) GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.
B) The pineal gland is believed to exert the most influence in testosterone control.
C) FSH stimulates testicular production of testosterone.
D) Inhibin slows sperm production by causing an increase in FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary.

A

A) GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What cells function to support and protect the developing sperm?

A) spermatogonia
B) Sertoli cells
C) Leydig cells
D) hypothalamic neurons

A

B) Sertoli cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What tissue layer of the uterus functions to contract during childbirth to expel the fetus from the body?

A) stratum basalis of the endometrium
B) myometrium
C) stratum functionalis of the endometrium
D) perimetrium

A

B) myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is _____.

A) fat
B) acetyl CoA
C) cellulose
D) glucose

A

D) glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following food groups are considered good sources of complete proteins?

A) lima beans, kidney beans, nuts, and cereals
B) eggs, milk, yogurt, meat, and fish
C) egg yolk, fish roe, and grains
D) corn, cottonseed oil, soy oil, and wheat germ

A

B) eggs, milk, yogurt, meat, and fish

25
Q

Cholesterol, though not an energy molecule, has importance in the body because it ______.

A) helps provide essential nutrients to the brain and lungs
B) helps mobilize fats during periods of starvation
C) enters the glycolytic pathway without being altered
D) is a stabilizing component of plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones

A

D) is a stabilizing component of plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones

26
Q

It is important to ensure that your diet is adequately rich in vitamins because ______.

A) all vitamins are water soluble and pass out of the body too quickly to ensure utilization
B) vitamins provide protection against the common cold
C) very few foods contain vitamins
D) most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients

A

D) most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients

27
Q

When proteins undergo deamination, the waste product of this process found in the urine is mostly ______.

A) ammonia
B) urea
C) ketone bodies
D) acetyl CoA

A

B) urea

28
Q

If Sue consumes a balanced diet of all nutrients, which protein function will likely NOT occur in her body?

A) formation of functional molecules like hemoglobin and cytochromes
B) production of enzymes, clotting factors, and antibodies
C) production of some hormones
D) production of energy

A

D) production of energy

29
Q

The term metabolism is BEST defined as ________.

A) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy
B) the number of calories it takes to keep from shivering on a cold day
C) the length of time it takes to digest and absorb fats
D) a measure of carbohydrate utilization, typically involving measurement of calories

A

A) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy

30
Q

The primary function of cellular respiration is to ______.

A) determine the amount of heat needed by the human body
B) break down food molecules and generate ATP
C) efficiently monitor the energy needs of the body
D) provide the body with adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals

A

B) break down food molecules and generate ATP

31
Q

The term basal metabolic rate reflects the ______.

A) loss of energy to perspiration
B) loss of organic molecules in urine
C) energy needed to make all organic molecules
D) energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities

A

D) energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities

32
Q

Many factors influence basal metabolic rate. What is the most critical factor?

A) the way skeletal muscles break down glycogen
B) the ratio of surface area to volume (weight) of the body
C) an individual’s body weight
D) the way an individual metabolizes fat

A

B) the ratio of surface area to volume (weight) of the body

33
Q

Which hormone causes glucose to enter tissue cells during the absorptive state of metabolism?

A) thyroid hormone
B) growth hormone (GH)
C) epinephrine
D) insulin

A

D) insulin

34
Q

Which physiological mechanism is NOT involved in heat production?

A) vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels
B) enhanced thyroxine release
C) sweating
D) shivering

A

C) sweating

35
Q

Heat-loss mechanisms do NOT include ____.

A) behavior measures such as wearing light, loose clothing
B) reducing activity
C) the evaporation of sweat
D) vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels

A

D) vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels

36
Q

The result of polyspermy in humans is ______.

A) multiple births
B) a nonfunctional zygote
C) mitotic insufficiency
D) interruption of meiosis

A

B) a nonfunctional zygote

37
Q

Proteases and acrosin are enzymes. How do they function in reproduction?

A) They direct the sperm to the egg through chemical messengers.
B) They act to break down the protective barriers around the egg, allowing the sperm to penetrate.
C) Their function is unknown.
D) They neutralize the mucous secretions of the uterine mucosa.

A

B) They act to break down the protective barriers around the egg, allowing the sperm to penetrate.

38
Q

Identify the correct sequence of pre-embryonic structures that form after fertilization.

A) morula → zygote → blastocyst
B) zygote → morula → blastocyst
C) blastocyst → morula → zygote
D) zygote → blastocyst → morula

A

B) zygote → morula → blastocyst

39
Q

How does the blastocyst obtain its nutrition in the uterine cavity before implantation occurs?

A) Blastocyst is nourished by nutrient stores in the embryonic cells.
B) Blastocyst is nourished by cell adhesion molecules.
C) Blastocyst is nourished by uterine secretions composed of glycoproteins.
D) Blastocyst is nourished by the blood supply of the placenta.

A

C) Blastocyst is nourished by uterine secretions composed of glycoproteins.

40
Q

What occurs if the secondary oocyte is fertilized and implantation takes place?

A) Increased levels of FSH will be produced.
B) The ovarian cycle begins.
C) The corpus luteum immediately degenerates and becomes the corpus albicans.
D) The corpus luteum is maintained until the placenta takes over its hormone-producing functions.

A

D) The corpus luteum is maintained until the placenta takes over its hormone-producing functions.

41
Q

What specific substances can be exchanged between the mother and fetus via the placenta?

A) hormones, blood cells, and nutrients
B) nutrients and respiratory gases only
C) respiratory gases, hormones, nutrients, and blood cells
D) nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, and alcohol

A

D) nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, and alcohol

42
Q

Onset of labor may be a result of all of the following factors EXCEPT:

A) aspirin and similar drugs
B) secretion of oxytocin
C) contraction-related increased emotional and physical stress
D) high estrogen levels

A

A) aspirin and similar drugs

43
Q

Catabolism of glycogen to release glucose in the form of glucose-6-phosphate

A

Glycogenolysis

44
Q

Formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate molecules, like proteins or fats

A

Gluconeogenesis

45
Q

Storage of glucose in the form of glycogen

A

Glycogenesis

46
Q

Breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid, which begins cellular respiration

A

Glycolysis

47
Q

Synthesis of lipids when ATP and glucose levels are high

A

Lipogenesis

48
Q

Catabolism of triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids

A

Lipolysis

49
Q

Initial phase of fatty acid oxidation that results in the formation of acetyl CoA

A

Beta oxidation

50
Q

Formation of ketone bodies from acetyl CoA via hepatocytes

A

Ketogenesis

51
Q

Leads to the development of a morula and then a blastocyst

A

Cleavage

52
Q

Embedding of the blastocyst in the endometrium

A

Implantation

53
Q

Leads to the formation of the first cell of the new individual

A

Fertilization

54
Q

Leads to the establishment of the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm in the embryo

A

Gastrulation

55
Q

Enhances sperm motility and increases membrane fragility to allow enzyme release from acrosomes

A

Capacitation

56
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding bile?

A) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from the digestion of old erythrocytes.
B) Bile functions to emulsify fats.
C) Bile can be released from the liver or gallbladder.
D) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.

A

D) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.

57
Q

What event occurs during the postovulatory phase of the female reproductive cycle?

A) Estrogens signal the stratum basalis to repair the of the stratum functionalis.
B) LH levels rapidly decline following ovulation.
C) Progesterone levels rise due to development of the corpus luteum.
D) The ovarian follicle develops and matures into a Graafian follicle.

A

C) Progesterone levels rise due to development of the corpus luteum.

58
Q

Which statement BEST describes spermatogenesis?

A) It is the process of releasing sperm into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule.
B) It involves meiosis, which forms spermatids from spermatogonia.
C) It results in the formation of diploid cells.
D) It is the process of Leydig cells secreting testosterone.

A

B) It involves meiosis, which forms spermatids from spermatogonia.

SAC A&P II (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions