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CRJ Inital > Takeoff Knowledge > Flashcards

Takeoff Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

What is the procedure for verifying the Runway?

A

Crossing the Hold-short, Lined up with Center line callouts

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2
Q

What is the min flap retraction speeds?

A

8: V2+12
20: V2+12/V2+20

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3
Q

At what speeds is full maneuvering capability achieved with flaps extended 8 or 20?

A

V2+20

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4
Q

At what speeds is full maneuvering capability achieved with flaps retracted?

A

VFTO

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5
Q

During takeoff with NORM thrust, how much thrust is reduced prior to starting the After Takeoff check flow?

A

2-3%

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6
Q

During takeoff with FLEX thrust, how much thrust is reduced prior to starting the After Takeoff check flow?

A

None

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7
Q

What is the callout for flap retraction?

A

CLIMB SEQUENCE

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8
Q

When would the callout for flap retraction occur?

A

Acceleration Alt (1000ft or MFRA)

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9
Q

At what altitude do you accelerate from 200IAS to 250IAS?

A

1500ft AFE

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10
Q

When is cowl anti-ice required for Takeoff?

A
  • OAT <10 C
  • Visible Moisture (Vis <1sm precip)
  • Runway contaminated
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11
Q

When are wing AND cowl anti-ice required for takeoff?

A
  • OAT <5 C
  • Vis moisture in ANY form (Precip/fog/mist/ clouds <400ft)
  • Runway wet or contaminated
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12
Q

After having been anti-iced with Type II or IV, when would anti-ice be selected on

A

Prior to Takeoff

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13
Q

At what crosswind component is continuous ignition required?

A

10 kts

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14
Q

How is NORM thrust displayed on ED-1?

A

Blue “Carrots” N1 say “TO”

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15
Q

How is FLEX thrust displayed on ED-1?

A

Magenta “Carrots” N1 say “FLX”

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16
Q

When is reduced thrust prohibited for takeoff?

A

Cowl or/and W Anti-Ice On

  • Contaminated runways
  • TW >5 kts
  • Windshear forecast or reported
  • Anti-skid inop
  • Flaps 8
  • Preceding a Heavier aircraft departure
17
Q

What could occur if the tiller is used during the takeoff roll?

A

Increase the load on the actuators to the point of system fault

18
Q

When would an un-pressurized takeoff be required?

A

APU inop and Perf limitations or anti-ice system requirements necessitate engine bleeds to be closed

19
Q

The pressurization altitude is set to what altitude prior to an un-pressurized takeoff?

A

3000ft above field elevation

20
Q

Where is this procedure located?

A

QRH Vol 1

21
Q

What conditions would direct a decision to abort?

A

-Engine failure

22
Q

What indications would direct a decision to abort?

A
  • EICAS warnings
  • REV UNLOCKED
  • SMOKE TOILET
23
Q

Who makes the decision to abort?

A

The Captain ONLY

24
Q

How is max deceleration achieved on a contaminated runway?

A
  • Max Thrust reversers

- Max braking

25
Q

What are the CP actions for an abort?

A

“ABORT” or “ABORT MY CONTROLS

  • Idle Thrust
  • Brakes apply until safe stop
  • Thrust Reverse
26
Q

What are the FO actions for an abort?

A

“YOUR CONTROLS”

  • Monitor deceleration
  • Verify reverse thrust
  • Advise ATC
27
Q

What precautions should be taken if there is suspected windshear during takeoff?

A
  • NORM Thrust
  • Flaps 8
  • Longest RWY Available
  • Monitor airspeed trend
  • Monitor vert flight path and call ANY deviations
  • DO NOT ENGAGE AUTOPILOT
28
Q

What alt can EGPWS detect windshear?

A

10-1500ft

29
Q

What is important to note when windshear is detected by EGPWS?

A

RA < 150ft

-May command pitch 2-3 degrees in excess of stick shaker

30
Q

Be able to describe the PF actions during a windshear escape maneuver?

A
  • TOGA
  • Go max thrust “MAX THRUST”
  • Follow FD commands
  • Stop descent
  • Leave config
  • Resume normal flight once clear
  • Clean up Aircraft
31
Q

Be able to describe a PM actions during a windshear escape maneuver

A
  • Verfy all actions by PF “MAX THRUST”
  • Monitor vert speed
  • Call out trends
  • Callout terrain in hundreds of feet
  • Communicate with ATC

CRJ Inital (27 decks)

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