T2 - L9 IMMUNISATION AND IPC

Question 1

Edward Jenner created which vaccine?

Answer 1

Inoculation with cowpox virus for protection against smallpox.

Question 2

Louis Pasteur created which vaccine?

Answer 2

vaccines against chickenpox, cholera, diphtheria, anthrax and rabies

Question 3

what are the three strategic aims of vaccinations?

Answer 3

1. selective protection of the vulnerable.
2. elimination (herd immunity).
3. Eradication.

Question 4

what is herd immunity?

Answer 4

a large percentage of a population has become immune/vaccinated , thereby interrupting transmission so people with the disease can’t pass it around.

Question 5

what are non-specific immune defences of the body?

Answer 5

● unbroken skin
● mucous membrane of gut, lung
● acid & enzymes of gut
● non-specific metabolism / inactivation

Question 6

what is the innate immune system made up of?

Answer 6

complement, WBC & cytokines

Question 7

what is passive immunity?

Answer 7

Passive immunity is the transfer ready-made antibodies.

• mother to child
• transfused blood

Question 8

what is active immunity?

Answer 8

long-lasting immunity produced by the immune system in

response to antigens.

Question 9

what type of immunity do vaccines provide?

Answer 9

active immunity

Question 10

how does active immunity arise?

Answer 10

as a result of natural infection or from vaccination

Question 11

what is the benefit of providing immunity via vaccines?

Answer 11

active immunity occurs without disease or disease

complications.

Question 12

The persistence of protection for many years after natural infection or vaccination is called what?

Answer 12

immunologic memory

Question 13

what is an epitope?

Answer 13

the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself.

Question 14

which antibody commonly features in the primary immune response?

Answer 14

IgM

Primary immune response [is slower and] develops in the weeks following first exposure to
an antigen

Question 15

which antibody commonly features in the secondary immune response?

Answer 15

IgG

Secondary immune response is faster and more powerful

Question 16

what cell produces antibodies?

Answer 16

Antibodies produced from B Lymphocytes

Question 17

once an antigen has bound non-specifically to a variable region of the antibody, what does this trigger?

Answer 17

clonal expansion

Question 18

natural infection will result in what type of immunity?

Answer 18

active

Question 19

what has to gain access to the body for active immunity to occur?

Answer 19

• inactivated or attenuated live organisms
• Inactivated organisms
• Components of organisms

Question 20

what are advantages of using live vaccines?

Answer 20

• Single dose often sufficient to induce long-lasting immunity
• Strong immune response evoked
• Local and systemic immunity produced

Question 21

what are disadvantages of using live vaccines?

Answer 21

• Potential to revert to virulence
• Contraindicated in immunosuppressed patients
• Poor stability
• Potential for contamination

Question 22

what are advantages of using inactivated/killed vaccines?

Answer 22

Stable

Constituents clearly defined

Unable to cause the infection

Question 23

what are disadvantages of using inactivated/killed vaccines?

Answer 23

Need several doses (more than one infection)

Local reactions common

Shorter lasting immunity

Adjuvant needed

Question 24

why is an Adjuvant needed after an inactivated/killed vaccine?

Answer 24

keeps vaccine at injection site

activates antigen presenting cells

Question 25

what does a pathogenic organism need to cause disease?

Answer 25

sufficient virulence and in adequate numbers

Question 26

what are the 6 stages of a chain of infection?

Answer 26

pathogenic organism

reservoir

exit

transmission

entry

susceptible host

back to pathogenic organism

Question 27

what activities are undertaken with the aim of breaking the chain of infection?

Answer 27

• eliminate pathogenic organism
• remove source/reservoir
• minimise transmission
• eliminate exit and entry
• reduce susceptibility to infection

Question 28

how do you eliminate a pathogenic organism?

Answer 28

• Environmental cleaning and decontamination
• Equipment decontamination
• Antisepsis
• Antibiotic prophylaxis

Question 29

what does Equipment decontamination refer to?

Answer 29

sterilisation

disinfection

Question 30

what does antisepsis refer to?

Answer 30

the practice of using antiseptics to eliminate the microorganisms that cause disease.

• Surgical skin prep
• MRSA decolonisation

Question 31

what does Antibiotic prophylaxis

refer to?

Answer 31

Antibiotic prophylaxis refers to, the prevention of infection complications using antibiotics

• Perioperative
  [At the time of the procedure where there’s the highest risk of infection]
• Post-exposure

Question 32

how do you remove a pathogenic organisms source/reservoir?

Answer 32

• hand hygiene

- environmental cleaning and decontamination

Question 33

how do you minimise the transmission of pathogenic organisms?

Answer 33

hand hygiene

personal protective equipment (PPE)

source and protective isolation

use of disposable equipment (syringes, needles)

Question 34

what is meant by “resident bacteria”?

Answer 34

• deep seated

- difficult to remove

Question 35

what is meant by “transient bacteria”?

Answer 35

• easily picked up and transferred
• easily removed
• cause of healthcare associated infections

Question 36

what are the WHO 5 moments for hand hygiene?

Answer 36

1. before patient contact
2. before aseptic task
3. after bodily fluid exposure risk
4. after patient contact
5. after contact with patient surroundings

Question 37

what is meant by sterilisation?

Answer 37

Complete killing or removal of all types of micro-organisms

Question 38

what are 4 methods of sterilisation?

Answer 38

heat
chemical (gas/liquid)
filtration
ionising radiation

Question 39

what is meant by disinfection?

Answer 39

Removal or destruction of sufficient numbers of potentially harmful micro-organisms to make an item safe to use