T1 - L5 VIRAL AND PRION PATHOGENS Flashcards

1
Q

viruses consist of what 4 components?

A
  • genome (RNA/DNA)
  • capsid (protein coat)
  • envelope (lipid bilayer)
  • their own enzymes
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2
Q

what are the 8 steps of the virus life cycle?

A
  1. attachment
  2. entry
  3. uncoating
  4. synthesis
  5. assembly
  6. release
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3
Q

what are the 2 things that classify viruses?

A
  1. genetic material
    - DNA vs RNA
    - single vs double stranded
    - positive vs negative sense
  2. presence or absence of an envelope
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4
Q

what type of viruses are the herpes viruses?

A

Double-stranded enveloped DNA viruses

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5
Q

what are the two characteristics of herpes viruses?

A

ability to establish latency and reactivate

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6
Q

which virus causes cold sores?

A

HSV-1

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7
Q

which virus causes genital herpes?

A

HSV-2

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8
Q

encephalitis is often associated with which virus?

A

HSV-1

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9
Q

meningitis is often associated with which virus?

A

HSV-2

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10
Q

what is viraemia?

A

the presence of viruses in the blood.

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11
Q

how does neonatal herpes occur?

A

usually as a consequence of

vertical transmission from mother’s genital tract at delivery.

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12
Q

which virus causes chicken pox?

A

primary infection of varicella zoster virus (herpes zoster)

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13
Q

which virus causes shingles?

A

reactivation of varicella zoster virus (herpes zoster)

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14
Q

what is the mode of transmission of varicella zoster virus?

A
  • respiratory droplet
  • vesicle fluid
  • latency established in dorsal root ganglion
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15
Q

what virus causes glandular fever/infectious mononucleosis?

A

Epstein Barr virus

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16
Q

what is the mode of transmission of Epstein Barr virus?

A

Virus is shed in saliva and genital secretions – ‘kissing disease’ (glandular fever)

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17
Q

what is the mode of transmission of Cytomegalovirus

?

A
  • Saliva or genital secretions
  • Donated blood, stem cells or organs
  • Latency in monocytes / dendritic cells / myeloid progenitors [i.e. immune system]
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18
Q

infants born to mothers who have Infectious mononucleosis at delivery - may suffer from what?

A

Retinitis,
deafness,
microcephaly,
hepatosplenomegaly

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19
Q

what is the most common virus to cause the common cold?

A

rhinoviruses (30-50%)

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20
Q

what is the transmission of rhinovirus?

A

Aerosolised respiratory secretions [cough; sneeze] and droplets from nose and eyes

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21
Q

what subtype of influenza A causes swine flu?

A

H1N1

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22
Q

respiratory syncytial virus

is most common in which group of people?

A

young children

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23
Q

mode of transmission of respiratory syncytial virus?

A

Aerosolisation of respiratory secretions

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24
Q

Bronchiolitis is caused by which virus?

A

respiratory syncytial virus

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25
Q

what is the mode of transmission of HIV?

A

vertically (from mother to child)

sexually

needlestick

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26
Q

HIV targets which cells?

A

helper T lymphocytes (CD4)

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27
Q

which hepatotropic viruses are face-oral spread?

A

hep A

hep E

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28
Q

which hepatotropic viruses are blood borne?

A

hep B
hep C
hep D

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29
Q

which type of hepatotropic virus is associated with pigs, undercooked meat (especially pork)?

A

Hep E genotypes 3 and 4

30
Q

which type of hepatotropic virus is associated with contaminated water?

A

Hep E genotypes 1 and 2

31
Q

which type of hepatotropic virus is asymptomatic in children but symptomatic in 50% of adults?

A

Hep A

32
Q

which type of hepatotropic virus is associated with lower socio-economic groups, returning tourists and men who have sex with men (MSM)?

A

Hep A

33
Q

what is acute clinical hepatitis?

A

The term acute viral hepatitis often refers to infection of the liver by one of the hepatitis viruses

  • nausea
  • myalgia
  • arthralgia
  • fevers
  • jaundice
  • right upper quadrant pain
34
Q

what is Fulminant hepatitis?

A

a rare syndrome of massive necrosis of liver parenchyma and a decrease in liver size (acute yellow atrophy) that usually occurs after infection with certain hepatitis viruses

35
Q

what is the association between risk of hepatitis B chronicity and age?

A

Risk of chronicity is inversely related to age at infection

may be due to mode of transmission is parenteral/having children/being sexually active

36
Q

how would hepatitis lead to cancer?

A

chronic hepatitis → cirrhosis → hepatocellular carcinoma

37
Q

what is the mode of transmission for hepatitis C?

A

IVDU, needlestick injuries, transfusion of contaminated products

(Vertical & sexual transmission is less common)

38
Q

what type of virus is norovirus?

A

ssRNA

39
Q

what type of virus is rotavirus?

A

dsRNA virus

40
Q

what is the mode of transmission of norovirus?

A

ingestion/inhalation of aerosolised vomit particles

41
Q

what is the mode of transmission of rotavirus?

A

faeco-oral via contaminated food/water and aerosolised faeces/vomit.

42
Q

which virus is a major cause of infant mortality in the developing world?

A

rotavirus

43
Q

which virus is associated with point-source outbreaks? (e.g hospitals, cruise ships, military)

A

norovirus

44
Q

what is the classic presentation of norovirus?

A

vomiting

45
Q

what is the classic presentation of rotavirus?

A

fever, vomiting and watery diarrhoea

46
Q

what time of year do enteroviruses peak?

A

summer/autumn in UK

47
Q

what type of virus are enteroviruses?

A

positive sense ssRNA

48
Q

what is the mode of transmission of enteroviruses?

A

contaminated food/water.

49
Q

where to enteroviruses replicate?

A

Replicate in gut, but do NOT cause GI symptoms

[Gets into blood and causes symptoms]

50
Q

list some serotypes of enteroviruses

A

poliovirus

Coxsackie A and B

enterovirus

echoviruses

51
Q

herpangina is associated with which enterovirus?

A

Coxsackie A

[oral ulceration in top pic]

52
Q

pericarditis is associated with which enterovirus?

A

Coxsackie B

[inflammation of pericardium]

53
Q

what time of year does Mumps peak?

A

winter

54
Q

what is the mode of transmission of mumps?

A
  • Virus is shed in saliva and respiratory secretions

- Droplet transmission from respiratory route

55
Q

what 3 clinical syndromes can mumps lead to?

A

Acute parotitis [inflammation of parotid gland]

orchitis

meningitis (which can lead to meningoencephalitis and sensorineural deafness)

56
Q

what is the mode of transmission of the measles?

A

Droplet transmission from respiratory route

NB: Highly infectious – environment still infectious after 2 hours

57
Q

how does primary measles present?

A

Fever, coryza, cough, conjunctivitis, Koplik’s spots on inside of cheek

THEN maculopapular rash

58
Q

what is the mode of transmission of rubella? (German measles)

A

Droplet transmission from respiratory route

59
Q

what is the triad of classical presentation of congenital rubella?

A

Bilateral cataracts

sensorineural deafness

microcephaly

60
Q

how does primary postnatal rubella present?

A
  • Mild illness, fever and maculopapular rash

- Arthralgia [achy joints] / arthritis occurs in 30% adults

61
Q

which virus is referred to as “slapped cheek syndrome” or “fifth disease”?

A

Parvovirus B19

62
Q

what time of year does Parvovirus B19

peak?

A

late winter/early summer

63
Q

what is the mode of transmission of Parvovirus B19?

A

Droplet transmission from respiratory route

64
Q

which virus Infects and destroys erythrocyte progenitor cells – causing transient anaemia?

A

Parvovirus B19

65
Q

list 3 clinical syndromes that can happen as a consequence of Parvovirus B19?

A
  • Erythema infectiosum (fever, coryza, fiery red rash
    to cheeks)
  • Transient aplastic crisi (Dyspnoea, confusion, cardiac failure)
  • infection in pregnancy (fatal loss/hydrops fetalis)
66
Q

what is a prion?

A

Small infectious pathogen containing protein, no nucleic acid

  • Prion proteins exist naturally in cells
  • Gene mutation leads to changes in folding pattern - As a result, prion becomes resistant to protease enzyme - Prion therefore accumulates in cell and becomes pathogenic
67
Q

how are abnormal prions transmitted?

A
  • inherited (genetic defects)

- Transmitted via consumption of infected meat or exposure to infected material.

68
Q

Human prion diseases share which properties?

A
  • pathologic manifestations confined largely to CNS
  • produce spongiform change in brain tissue
  • long incubation times (up to 30 yrs)
  • progressive and fatal
69
Q

what are symptoms of Creutzfeld-Jakob disease?

A

Progressive ataxia [unsteady gait], depression, dementia then death.

70
Q

New variant CJD is associated with the consumption of what?

A

infected beef

nvCJD directly linked to BSE (bovine spongiform encephalopathy) [prion disease in cows]