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Veterinary Physiology > Stuff I Thought Is Important Test 4 > Flashcards

Stuff I Thought Is Important Test 4 Flashcards

a whole melting pot of repro and neuro physio definitions

1
Q

How is an embryo different from a fetus?

A

embryo - placentation has not yet taken place
- not aquired an anatomical form that is readily recognizable

fetus - placentation has taken place, within uterus
- recognizable in a species

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2
Q

What are the 3 primary embryonic germ layers?

A

endoderm
mesoderm
ectoderm

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3
Q

In the [endoderm/ectoderm], there is formation of the vegina/vestibule and penis/clitoris. In the [endoderm/ectoderm], there is formation of the gonads, uterus, cervix, cranial vagina, epididymis, ductus deferens, and accessory sex glands

A

ectoderm
endoderm

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4
Q

The posterior lobe is comprised of _____ and the anterior lobe comprised of ______

A

neural tissue
stomodeal ectoderm

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5
Q

In the stomodeal ectoderm, glandular epithelial cells produce _______

A

glycoprotein hormones

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6
Q

How is the posterior lobe formed? Anterior lobe?

A

formed from a diverticulum from floor of brain - infundibulum
formed from an evagination from the oral cavity = rathe’s pouch

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7
Q

The stalk of Rathke’s pouch regresses and separates from ______

A

stomodeal ectoderm

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8
Q

Rathke’s pouch become closely associated with cells of the _______

A

infundibulum

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9
Q

The anterior pituitary utilizes the _____ system

A

hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system

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10
Q

What is the difference between sex differentiation and sex determination?

A

differentiation: process whereby a group of unspecified cells develops into a functional, recognizable group of cells that have a common function

determination: system that determines the sexual characteristics of an organism which generally consists of genetic (alleles or genes) or hormonal parameters

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11
Q

What is the difference between chimera and mosaic?

A

chimera: produced by fusion of 2 different zygotes in a single embryo
mosaic: an individual with 2 different cell lines that originated from the same individual (from a non-disjunction event)

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12
Q

List the 3 stages of sexual differentiation in order/

A

chromosomal sex
gonadal sex
phenotypic sex

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13
Q

Primordial germ cells originate in the _____ and then migrate through the ______ to the ________ (known as gonadal/genital ridge)

A

yolk sac
hind gut
undifferentiated gonad

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14
Q

What causes the development of testes?

A

testis determining factor (TDF)
sex-determining region Y (SRY)

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15
Q

List the order of sex determination

A

sex-determining region y and testis determining factor produce testosterone
anti-mülleran hormone cause degeneration of the paramesonephric duct
dihydrotestosterone causes development of penis, scrotum, and accessory sex glands

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16
Q

Testosterone + ________ = dihydrotestosterone

A

5-alpha reductase

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17
Q

What do Sertoli cells secrete?

A

anti-mülleran hormone
enzymes
to produce dihydrotestosterone

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18
Q

Define desert hedgehog gene

A

causes differentiation of fetal leydig cells

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19
Q

What do leydig cells produce?

A

testosterone

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20
Q

The presence of ______ causes regression of the female duct system

A

testosterone

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21
Q

Why are testes pulled through the inguinal region from the retroperitoneal space?

A

gubernaculum shrinks

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22
Q

What regresses in presence of AMH? What grows?

A

paramesonephric/mullarian ducts - regress
metanephros
gonads

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23
Q

Females have an absence of ____, ______, and _______

A

anti-mülleran hormone
testosterone
dihydrotestosterone

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24
Q

In female differentiation, what develops? What regresses?

A

paramesonephric ducts (mullarian)
follicles
mesonephric regress

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25
Q

What attaches to the fused paramesonephric ducts?

A

a small bud evaginating from the caudal urogenital sinus
become cranial and caudal vagina

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26
Q

The ______ is the future broad ligament

A

genital fold

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27
Q

What are the 2 things that regulate reproduction

A

simple neural reflex
neuroendocrine reflex

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28
Q

What is the neural control center for repro hormones?

A

hypothalamus

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29
Q

The hypothalamo-hypohyseal portal system allows [large/minute] quantities of releasing hormones to act on the anterior pituitary before they are diluted by the general circulation

A

minute

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30
Q

T/F: The posterior pituitary does not have a portal system and instead has neurohormones that are deposited directly into system circulation

A

TRUE!

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31
Q

What are the gonadal hormones?

A

prostaglandin F2 alpha - uterus
progesterone - ovary, corpus luteum
estrogen - ovary, follicle
equine chorionic gonadotropin - placenta

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32
Q

What is a luteolytic hormone?

A

prostaglandin F2 alpha

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33
Q

What travels freely through plasma membrane into cytoplasm and bind directly to specific nuclear receptors?

A

steroids

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34
Q

Differentiate protein hormones and steroid hormones

A

protein: bind to plasma membrane bound receptors
steroid: travel freely through plasma membrane into cytoplasm and bind directly to specific nuclear receptors

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35
Q

What does protein hormone activate>

A

activation of protein kinase chain

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36
Q

What is fast vs slow steroid hormone action?

A

fast: binds to membrane receptor causing protein production
slow: binds to nuclear receptor inside cell causing steroid production

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37
Q

Who only has a tonic center?

A

males

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38
Q

What does the hypothalamo-pituitary gonadal axis do?

A

regulates reproduction primarily based upon a positive and negative feedback system

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39
Q

What are the keys players in the HPG axis?

A

GnRH
LSH, FH, prolactin
Oxytocin
testosterone, estrogen

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40
Q

[Steroid/protein] hormones are metabolized in the liver, and [steroid/protein] hormones are metabolized in the liver and kidneys

A

steroid
protein

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41
Q

LH and FSH are

A

glycoproteins

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42
Q

Where is large amounts of GnRH released?

A

surge center

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43
Q

What defeminizes the hypothalamus during embryogenesis and eliminates the GnRH surge center in the male

A

testosterone but technically estradiol

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44
Q

_____ produced by the testes in the developing male fetus penetrates the ________ and is converted to ______

A

Testosterone
blood brain barrier
estradiol

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45
Q

In the female, estradiol is bound to ______ which prevents estradiol from crossing the blood brain barrier.

A

alpha-fetoprotein

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46
Q

T/F: Puberty is a single event

A

FALSE - gradual and multifactorial maturation process

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47
Q

_____ needs to be produced in sufficient quantities to support gametogenesis

A

GnRH

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48
Q

“It is the failure of the _______ to produce sufficient quantities of ______ to cause ______ release that is known to be the major factor limiting onset of puberty”

A

hypothalamus
GnRH
gonadotropin

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49
Q

The development of hypothalamic nuclei is dependent on ______

A

threshold body size
nutritional factor
environmental cues
photoperiod
genetics

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50
Q

In the male, the onset of puberty is brought about because of [increased/decreased] sensitivity to [positive/negative] feedback by _______

A

decreased
negative
testosterone/estradiol

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51
Q

What controls the preovulatory surge of GnRH?

A

surge center

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52
Q

About _____ months are required for the pulse frequency to become high enough for puberty to be achieved

A

2 months

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53
Q

In the prepubertal female, the surge center is quite sensitive to ____ but cannot release ovulatory qualities of GnRH because

A

estradiol
the ovary cannot secrete high enough levels of estradiol

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54
Q

What might stimulate glucose sensing neurons that stimulate GnRH neurons?

A

blood glucose concentrations

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55
Q

What are polyestrus cyclers?

A

cattle, swine, rodents

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56
Q

What are the primary ovarian structures for the follicular and luteal phases?

A

large follicles
corpus luteum

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57
Q

The luteal phase is the period from _______

A

ovulation to CL regression

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58
Q

What is characterized by major endocrine transition? What are the primary hormones responsible?

A

proestrus
FSH, LH

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59
Q

When is there peak estradiol secretion?

A

estrus

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60
Q

What are causes of anestrus? Except one in cats

A

pregnancy
lactation - not in cats mares, alpacas, llamas, dairy cows
presence of offspring
season (photoperiod)
stress
pathology

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61
Q

What inhibits GnRH when pregnant?

A

progesterone

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62
Q

When the number of suckling sessions is limited to 2 or less per day, the amplitude of ____ increases dramatically and she will begin to cycle

A

LH

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63
Q

In short day breeders, [increased/decreased] kisspeptin causes decreased GnRH which causes [increased/decreased] FSH and LH

A

decreased
decreased

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64
Q

[Estrous/estrus] is the stage of the cycle

A

estrus

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65
Q

What is the definition of folliculogenesis?

A

the process whereby immature follicles develop into more advanced follicles and become candidates for ovulation

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66
Q

What are the 4 significant events of the follicular phase?

A

gonadotropin (FSH, LH) released from anterior lobe of pituitary
follicular preparation (growth) for ovulation
sexual receptivity
ovulation (LH)

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67
Q

What is the dominant hormone in the follicular phase?

A

estrogen

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68
Q

In the follicular phase, the positive feedback of increasing levels of estrogen (in absence of progesterone) causes a release of a large quantity of ____ which then causes a release of _______ aka the ______

A

GnRH
LH, LH surge

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69
Q

Later in the follicular phase, follicles secrete ____ that causes negative feedback on _____ secretion. Estrogen can also suppress this

A

inhibin
FSH

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70
Q

What are the 2 GnRH neurons

A

surge center
tonic center

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71
Q

Why is there declining progesterone in follicular phase?

A

regression of previous corpus luteum

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72
Q

T/F: Follicles grow and regress constantly throughout the estrous cycle

A

TRUE

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73
Q

What is the term for a single follicle being selected?

A

monotocous

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74
Q

The majority of a follicle’s life is spent in the _____

A

prenatal stages

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75
Q

What are the stages of follicular dynamics

A

recruitment
selection
dominance
*slide 91, lecture 3

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76
Q

[Theca/granulosa] cell is where LH is bound

A

theca

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77
Q

[Theca/granulosa] cell is where FSH is bound

A

granulosa

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78
Q

Where is cholesterol converted to testosterone

A

theca cell (LH)

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79
Q

Where is testosterone converted to estradiol

A

granulosa cell (FSH)

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80
Q

The secondary oocyte produces the _____

A

first polar body

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81
Q

The bitch ovulates a ______

A

primary oocyte

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82
Q

Ovulation is ______ and is a 24 hour event

A

LH surge dependent

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83
Q

Which species doesn’t ovulate during estrous?

A

cow

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84
Q

Why is the preovulatory LH surge important?

A

it sets in motion a series of biochemical events that lead to ovulation

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85
Q

What does prostaglandin F2alpha accomplish?

A

luteolysis of the corpus luteum
causes contraction of ovarian smooth muscle which in turn increases follicular pressure

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86
Q

List a species other than cats that are induced ovulators

A

rabbits, minks, ferrtes

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87
Q

In induced ovulators, copulation stimulates sensory nerves in the _____ and ______

A

vagina
cervix

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88
Q

T/F: LARGE quantities of GnRH cause an LH surge

A

TRUE

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89
Q

What are the two main phases in the luteal phase?

A

Metestrus
Diestrus

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90
Q

Granulosa cells are [small/large], and theca cells are [large/small] luteal cells

A

large
small

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91
Q

When does progesterone plateau?

A

diestrus

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92
Q

The corpus luteum originates from an _____. What begins to break down as ovulation nears?

A

ovulatory follicle
basement membrane

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93
Q

What happens during the corpus hemorrhagicum?

A

small blood vessels rupture and theca and granulosa cells mix

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94
Q

What is the corpus luteum a mixture of?

A

small and large cells originating from theca and granulosa cells, respectively

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95
Q

What is luteinization?

A

transformation of the theca internal and granulosa cells (that produced estrogen prior to ovulation) to luteal cells producing progesterone

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96
Q

What produces progesterone in the corpus luteum?

A

small and large luteal cells

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97
Q

Other hormones produced by the corpus luteum include ____ and ______

A

oxytocin
relaxin

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98
Q

[Corpora hemmorrhagicum/Corpus Luteum] is first

A

Corpora hemmorragicum

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99
Q

What are the physiological affects of progesterone?

A

negative feedback on hypothalamus and anterior pituitary
uterus: has a positive influence to secrete “uterine milk” aka a histotroph for potential conceptus
mammary glands - causes final alveolar development

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100
Q

Because progesterone produced by the corpus luteum has negative feedback on the hypothalamus, what hormones are suppressed?

A

GnRH
LH
FSH
*remember to not abbreviate on the exam

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101
Q

Progesterone exerts a strong [positive/negative] influence on the endometrium of the uterus. It [increases/decreases] myometrial tone

A

positive
decreases (reduces contractility)

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102
Q

What is the luteolytic agent in domestic animals?

A

prostaglandin F2 alpha

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103
Q

What is the MAJOR source of prostaglandin F2 alpha?

A

endometrium (aka part of uterus)

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104
Q

Luteolysis causes structural regression to form a [corpus luteum/corpus albicans]

A

corpus albicans

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105
Q

What causes a new follicular phase?

A

removal of negative feedback by progesterone so GnRH can be secreted by the hypothalamus

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106
Q

What is the mechanism for luteolysis in ruminants?

A

vascular countercurrent exchange mechanism
high to low conc
**90% of systemic PGF2alpha is denatured in one circulatory pass through the pulmonary system

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107
Q

What are the mechanisms for luteolysis in the mare and sow?

A

mare: systemic only
sow: uses both systemic and countercurrent exchange - not responsive to PGF2a until at least day 12 post ovulation

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108
Q

In the first _____ days postovulation, PGF2a has a negligible effect

A

2-4 days
pig is different, day 12-14

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109
Q

The corpus luteum contains a large amount of _______

A

oxytocin

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110
Q

What aids prostaglandin f2 alpha in luteolysis via a positive feedback system?

A

oxytocin in the corpus luteum

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111
Q

[Leydig/Sertoli] are analogous to theca cells in the female, and [leydig/sertoli] cells are analogous to granulosa cells in female.

A

leydig
sertoli

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112
Q

Explain the 2-cell, 2-gonadatrope model for both male and female

A

theca cells: receptors for LH, convert cholesterol to testosterone
leydig cells: receptors for LH, produce testosterone, inhibin

granulosa cells: receptors for FSH, convert testosterone to estradiol
Sertoli cells: receptors for FSH, convert testosterone to estradiol, inhibin

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113
Q

Early sperm cells all develop in the space between two or more [sertoli/leydig] cells.

A

sertoli - they’re called “nurse cells” for a reason

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114
Q

When released as a spermatozoon, a major portion of the ______ of each spermatid remains as a residual body (______) within a pocket of Sertoli cell cytoplasm

A

cytoplasm
cytoplasmic droplet

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115
Q

[Sertoli/leydig] cells produce the enzyme necessary to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone. This enzyme is called ______

A

sertoli
5 alpha reductase

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116
Q

[Sertoli/leydig] cells secrete inhibin that exerts a [positive/negative] feedback on the [posterior/anterior] lobe of the pituitary to directly suppress FSH secretion

A

sertoli
negative
anterior

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117
Q

Define spermatogenesis

A

process of producing spermatozoa in the seminiferous tubules

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118
Q

What are the 3 phases of spermioogenesis

A

proliferation
meiotic phase
differentiation phase

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119
Q

What is the differentiation phase, aka spermiogenesis, marked by?

A

transformation from spermaTID to spermaTOZOA
from spherical-shaped to heaving a head, mid piece, and flagellum

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120
Q

The [first/last] mitotic divisions give rise to primary spermatocytes that enter meiosis.

A

last

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121
Q

After meiosis, [haploid/diploid] spherical spermatids differentiation into spermatozoa

A

haploid

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122
Q

Where does meiosis and differentiation take place?

A

adluminal compartment

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123
Q

What creates the blood-testes barrier?

A

tight junctions between sertoli cells

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124
Q

What are the 4 phases of differentiation?

A

Golgi phase
cap phase (acrostic vesicle spreading over nucleus)
acrosomic phase
maturation phase (final assembly)

“GG creates amazing masterpieces”

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125
Q

What happens during the Golgi phase?

A

newly formed, spherical spermatid has a well-developed Golgi apparatus
golgi vesicles fuse creating pro-acrosomic granules

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126
Q

What happens during the cap phase?

A

the Golgi is migrating and the acrosome is formed forming a distinct cap

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127
Q

What happens during the acrosomal phase?

A

nucleus begins to elongate and the neck between the head and tail is elongating

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128
Q

What happens during the maturation phase?

A

mitochondria form a spiral assembly around the flagellum that defines the midpiece

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129
Q

What makes up the majority of the tail?

A

principal piece

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130
Q

What is the geometric clutch model?

A

9+2 micro tubular pattern

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131
Q

T/F: If you travel down the seminiferous tubule, you would see spermatozoa in different stages of development.

A

TRUE
cycle of seminiferous epithelium

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132
Q

Where do “privileged pathways” take place? Capacitation?

A

cervix
uterus

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133
Q

Secretion of sulfomucins is [cranial/caudal] and is [towards/away] the lumen. It is secreted during [estrus/diestrus]

A

caudal
towards
estrus

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134
Q

During what phase has a result of muscle contraction following copulation? (sperm transport)

A

rapid phase

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135
Q

What happens during the sustained phase? (sperm transport)

A

sperm delivered to oviducts continually from reservoirs in (uterotubal junction and cervix)
extends time over which fertilization can occur
selected so that they are viable and morphological normal

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136
Q

Where is the spermatozoal reservoir?

A

oviductal isthmus

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137
Q

What is a result of capacitation? What happens?

A

hyper-activated sperm, unmasking of zona pellucid binding sites
- due to: stripping of sperm membrane proteins by uterine factors
Head bins to zona pellucida
Midpiece: metabolism
Tail: motility

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138
Q

Where must spermatozoa reside before they acquire maximum fertility?

A

female tract

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139
Q

What are some barriers to fertilization?

A

cumulus cells
thick zona pellucida
oocyte membrane

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140
Q

The sperm plasma membrane overlying the acrosome contains what 2 receptor-like regions?

A

zona binding region - physical attachment of sperm to zona pellucida
acrosome reaction promoting region - sperm plasma membrane to fuse to outer acrosomal membrane

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141
Q

What happens during the cortical reaction?

A

the sperm head attaches to the oocyte plasma membrane (vitelina membrane, oolemma)
- initiates the block to polyspermy!!

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142
Q

The spermatozoon settles into a _____ formed by the oocyte plasma membrane during the cortical reaction.

A

bed of microvilli

143
Q

T/F: Syngamy is the fusion of the female and male pronuclei.

A

TRUE
Once it has taken place, the one-celled organism is a zygote

144
Q

What is the difference between a zygote and embryo?

A

zygote: unicellular
embryo: paracellular

145
Q

Where does the embryo develop and then attaches to the uterus?

A

zona pellucida and then hatches

146
Q

Fusion of the male and female pronuclei into a single diploid nucleus constitutes _______. Then, there are cleavages which give rise to _______

A

syngamy
blastomeres (daughter cells)

147
Q

After the morula, a blastocyst develops. What is in the blastocyst?

A

inner cell mass
trophoblast - single layer of cells
blastocoele - cavity

148
Q

What is totipotency? What kind of embryo has it?

A

ability of a single BLASTOMERE to develop into a fully formed individual animal

149
Q

When is there a time of incredible conceptus growth?

A

post-hatching blastocyst growth

150
Q

Extraembryonic membrane development accounts for

A

rapid expansion of the blastocyst
- yolk sac
- chorion
- amnion
- allantois
essential to facilitate attachment to uterus

151
Q

Along with the primitive endoderm and mesoderm, _____ gives rise to the chorion and amnion

A

trophoblast cells

152
Q

The _______ develops from the primitive endoderm

A

yolk sac

153
Q

What fuses with the chorion?

A

allantois

154
Q

While the embryo is developing in the uterus, what prevents luteolysis from occurring?

A

maternal recognition of pregnancy which MUST occur before luteolysis
maintain high levels of progesterone

155
Q

Interferon tau in ruminants is produced by ______ which does what?

A

trophoblastic cells
inhibits oxytocin receptor synthesis (so that prostaglandin F2 alpha cannot be released and thus lyse the corpus luteum)

156
Q

In maternal recognition of pregnancy in the sow, what produces estrogen? What happens to prostaglandin F2 alpha?

A

blastocyst
re-routes PGF2a release into uterine lumen - then destroyed
PGF2a is changed to EXOcrine

157
Q

In maternal recognition of pregnancy in the mare, what migrates? What happens to prostaglandin F2 alpha?

A

blastocyst throughout the uterine lumen
reduced synthesis of PGF2a

158
Q

In maternal recognition of pregnancy in the dog/cat, what happens?

A

doesn’t require a signal from conceptus - similar lifespan in pregnant and non-pregnant

159
Q

What’s another word for equine chorionic gonadotropin? What kind of activity does it have?

A

endometrial cups
LH and FSH-like activities

160
Q

What is the purpose of equine chorionic gonadotropin?

A

helps to luteinize accessory and secondary corpora lutea

161
Q

What is the function of the placenta?

A

maintain pregnancy
induce giving birth (parturition)

162
Q

What is the functional unit of the placenta?

A

chorionic villi
- can be microscopic (micro cotyledons) and macroscopic (cotyledons)

163
Q

List the types of placental classifications

A

diffuse
cotyledontary
discoid
zonary
microcotyledontary

164
Q

What is a diffuse characteristic of a placenta? Which species?

A

almost the entire surface of the atlantochorion is involved in the formation of the placenta
- horses, pigs, camelids

165
Q

What is a cotyledonary characteristic of a placenta? Which species?

A

multiple, discrete areas of attachment called placemntomes are formed by interaction of patched of allantochorion with endometrium
- ruminants

166
Q

What is a placentome?

A

the cotyledon-caruncle complex

167
Q

What is a zonary characteristic of a placenta? Which species?

A

area of attachment is a complete or incomplete band of tissue surrounding the fetus
- carnivores like dogs, cats, seals, bears, elephants

168
Q

What is a discoid characteristic of a placenta? Which species?

A

area of attachment is discoid in shape
- primates and rodents

169
Q

What are two physical characteristics of a cotyledonary placenta?

A

convex vs concave

170
Q

In a cotyledonary placenta, the [caruncle/cotyledon] is associated with the mom, and the [caruncle/cotyledon] is associated with the fetus

A

caruncle - mom drives the CAR
cotyledonary - baby sleeps in the COT

171
Q

What is the LEAST intimate and both maternal and fetal epithelium are intact?

A

pig, horse, cow, ewe, doe

172
Q

Define endotheliochorial. Which species?

A

complete erosion of endometrial epithelium
- dog, cat

173
Q

Define hemochorial. Which species?

A

chorionic epithelium is in direct apposition to maternal pools of blood

174
Q

T/F: Cats are epitheliochorial and zonary.
If false, correct the statement.

A

FALSE
they are ENDOthelial and zonary

175
Q

What is the first foray to the CNS?

A

spinal cord

176
Q

What does a specialized sensory cell synapse with?

A

primary afferent neuron

177
Q

What is a sensory receptor?

A

specialized to detect a particular stimulus modality

178
Q

All ______ are able to perform [translation/transduction/transcription]

A

transduction

179
Q

Receptors have ______ channels that open based upon a specific type of stimulus

A

modality-gated channels

180
Q

The stimulus is then converted to ______

A

action potentials

181
Q

What defines stimulus intensity?

A

rate and frequency of action potentials

182
Q

If receptor has a higher rpm, it is [closer/farther] to threshold, meaning it is [more/less] sensitive

A

closer
more

183
Q

What is encoded by receptor adaptation?

A

stimulus duration

184
Q

Give examples of tonic receptors. Then phasic

A

tonic: proprioceptors, do not rapidly adapt and respond to a constant stimulus
phasic: touch receptors (Meissner & Pacinian), adapt rapidly, only respond to new stimuli

185
Q

The stimulus type is encoded by ______ and responsive to specific type of stimulus based on ______

A

modality
labeled line code

186
Q

Viscerosensory signals originate from ____ and detect changes from ______

A

viscera
internal stimuli

187
Q

Where do special sense signals (vision, hearing, taste, olfaction) originate?

A

special sensory organs in head

188
Q

Tactile is sensed by _______ and [most/few] are adaptable

A

mechanoreceptors
more

189
Q

Temperature is sensed by ______

A

transient receptor potential channels on nerve endings
- adaptable

190
Q

T/F: Nociceptors are not adaptable

A

TRUE

191
Q

Do proprioceptors readily adapt?

A

NO!

192
Q

What are the joint capsule mechanoreceptors? Muscle and tendon mechanoreceptors?

A

pacinian and ruffini
Golgi tendon organ and muscle spindle

193
Q

Golgi tendon organ detects muscle [contraction/stretch], and muscle spindles detect muscle [contraction/stretch]

A

contraction
stretch

194
Q

What are some somatosensory receptors?

A

thermoreceptors
nociceptors
proprioceptors
mechanoreceptors

195
Q

Define exteroception vs interoception

A

exteroception: external stimulus
interception: visceral stimulus

196
Q

After the primary afferent neuron fires, where does the signal go?

A

up the nerve fiber of the primary afferent neuron
cell body resides in dorsal root GANGLION
OR
nucleus of the trigeminal nerve for structures of the head

197
Q

What is the receptor type for proprioception?

A

muscle spindle

198
Q

T/F: Proprioception has a slower conduction velocity than nociception

A

FALSE - other way around!

199
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

General Somatic Afferent
one spinal nerve is responsible for somatosensory innervation of a particular soma

200
Q

A receptive field is the area of endings of a __________, which allows for [more/less] precise stimulus localization

A

primary afferent neuron
more

201
Q

What are the functions of the spinal cord? Do they involve a lot of decision making?

A

conduction of afferent and efferent
- structural and functional link between BRAIN & BODY
neural integration - does PROCESSING, not decision making
Reflexes!

202
Q

Do reflexes involve the brain?

A

NO - spinal cord

203
Q

Lateral horns are only present in ________ because they house [axons/cell bodies] of [somatic/sensory/autonomic] motor neurons

A

T1-L3
cell bodies
autonomic

204
Q

What do dorsal horns house? Ventral?

A

dorsal: house axons of sensory neurons and cell bodies of interneurons
ventral: house cell bodies of somatic motor neurons

205
Q

T/F: Funiculi are in the white matter, myelinated axons. Gray matter has the neuronal cell bodies.

A

TRUE

206
Q

The first-order neuron is also called a ______.

A

primary afferent neuron

207
Q

The cochlear n. in the auditory reflex is a [first order/second order/third order] neuron

A

first

208
Q

In the first-order neuron, from the body, it enters the spinal cord via the ____ or from the head, the ______

A

dorsal root
cranial nerve (trigeminal)

209
Q

When is there decussation to the contralateral side in the somatosensory projection pathway?

A

second-order neuron:
- projects from CNS cranially
- decussates to contralateral side
- ends in thalamus

210
Q

Where is the third-order neuron?

A

thalamus to primary somatosensory cortex of cerebrum

211
Q

In conscious proprioception and touch, what are the two primary parts? It detects

A

fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
- detects conscious proprioception, touch, pressure, vibration

212
Q

The fasciculus cuneatus is to the [cranial/caudal] trunk and the [thoracic/pelvic] limbs, and the fasciculus gracilis is to the [cranial/caudal] trunk and the [thoracic/pelvic] limbs

A

cranial trunk, thoracic limbs
caudal trunk, pelvic limbs

213
Q

Standing on the dorsum of the foot is an example of a defect in ______

A

conscious proprioception

214
Q

If conscious proprioception is contralateral, what is subconscious proprioception? To what structure?

A

ipsilateral
cerebellum

215
Q

What 2 tracts are involved in subconscious proprioception? Where does it go?

A

spinocerebellar tract - caudal trunk and pelvic limbs
spinocuneocerebellar tract (cuneocerebellar) - cranial trunk, thoracic limbs

216
Q

What runs with the fasciculus cuneatus?

A

spinocuneocerebellar tract (cuneocerebellar)

217
Q

Fill in the blanks

A
  1. pelvic
  2. thoracic
  3. thoracic
  4. pelvic
  5. fasciculus gracilis
  6. fasciculus cuneatus
  7. cuneocerebellar tract
  8. spinocerebellar tract
218
Q

What are the 2 tracts of the nociceptive pathways?

A

spinothalamic tract
spinocervicothalamic tract

219
Q

T/F: Loss of nociception is a poor prognostic indicator

A

TRUE

220
Q

Which nociceptive tract involves viscerosensory afferents? Where does it go?

A

spinothalamic tract
travels to the cerebrum for conscious perception

221
Q

What are the fibers of viscerosensory afferents? In which 2 ways does it travel?

A

A and delta C fibers
1. via autonomic nervous system fibers
2. via the spinothalamic tract - goes to cerebrum for conscious perception

222
Q

What cranial nerves are involved in viscerosensory afferents?

A

7, 9, 10 - goes to solitary tract in medulla to impact vagal reflexes

223
Q

Which autonomic fibers carry nociceptive action potentials? Which for physiologic receptor action potentials?

A

sympathetic nervous system
parasympathetic nervous system

224
Q

What is referred pain?

A

many somatic and visceral sensory neurons send signals via the same ascending tracts within the spinal cord
- somatosensory cortex unable to determine true source
- why people feel heart attacks in right arm

225
Q

Motor control is a [1/2/3] neuron system. List the neurons

A

2
UMN & LMN

226
Q

What initiates voluntary motor actions? Where is it located?

A

upper motor neuron (UMN)
brainstem, cerebral cortex

227
Q

Where are LMNs located?

A

cell BODIES in ventral grey horn of the spinal cord or brainstem “peripheral”
- reflexes
- directly innervate skeletal muscles, spinal reflexes

228
Q

Can LMNs work independently of UMNs? How so?

A

YES
- stepping/gaiting
- alerting and reflexes
- postural control

229
Q

What does the frontal cortex do? Where is it then sent?

A

strategizes and provides impulse control
basal nuclei

230
Q

What is the basal nuclei? It is composed of _____ and _____ areas.

A

deep cerebral grey matter
striatum
globus pallidus

231
Q

The globus pallidus sends [excitatory/inhibitory] to the thalamus

A

inhibitory

232
Q

List the descending motor tracts of cerebral motor control. List if they are ipsilateral or contralateral

A

corticonuclear - brainstem nuclei, ipsilateral
corticopontine - pontine nuclei, contralateral (to cerebellum)
corticospinal - most decussate and go contralaterally

233
Q

What has direct communication between cerebral cortex UMNs and LMNs?

A

corticospinal tract

234
Q

What is also called the pyramidal tract?

A

corticospinal tract

235
Q

What is special about the corticospinal tract, especially in humans?

A

controls voluntary, fine motor control, skilled movements

236
Q

List the UMNs of the brain stem. Where do they go?

A

red nucleus
pontine & medullary reticular nucleu
vestibular nuclei
- some go to cranial motor nuclei (LMN)
- MOST go to spinal cord ventral horn (LMNs) via long descending tracts

237
Q

List the extrapyramidal aka descending tracts

A

ruprospinal tract
pontine reticulospinal tract
medullary reticulospinal tract
vestibulospinal tract

238
Q

What is the key tract for voluntary movement in animals? What does it do?

A

rubrospinal tract
facilitate UMN flexor muscles

239
Q

The pontine reticulospinal tract [stimulates/inhibits] extensor muscles and [stimulates/inhibits] flexor muscles

A

stimulates
inhibits

240
Q

The medullary reticulospinal tract [stimulates/inhibits] extensor muscles and [stimulates/inhibits] flexor muscles

A

inhibits
stimulates

241
Q

The vestibulospinal tract [stimulates/inhibits] extensor muscles and [stimulates/inhibits] flexor muscles

A

stimulates
inhibits

242
Q

Which region are the descending tracts? Characterize them by speed, level of damage, etc

A

blue (go to lateral/ventral horn)
intermediate, myelinated sizes
less likely to be damaged compared to proprioceptive fibers
more likely to be damaged compared to nociceptive fibers

243
Q

List the cell bodies of the LMNs.

A

cranial nerve cell bodies (all but 1, 2, 8)
somatic motor neuron cell bodies - ventral horn
visceral motor cell bodies - lateral horn

244
Q

The autonomic motor neuron is a [1/2] neuron pathway

A

2
preganglionic, synapse on ganglion, postganglionic

245
Q

Somatic LMNs have a _______ neuron and a motor unit, which is a ______ and the muscle fibers it innervates

A

peripheral efferent neuron
somatic motor neuron

246
Q

alpha-motor neurons innervate and contract [extrafusal/intrafusal] muscle fibers. Gamma-motor neurons innervate contractile poles [extrafusal/intrafusal] muscle fibers of the muscle SPINDLE

A

extrafusal
intrafusal

247
Q

T/F: UMN pathways activate both types of alpha- and gamma-motor neurons during movement

A

TRUE

248
Q

What happens in the myotatic reflex?

A

stretching muscles activate Ia afferents

249
Q

Ia afferents [excite/inhibit] inhibitory [flexor/extensor] motor neuron

A

excite inhibitory
flexor motor neuron - aka antagonist

250
Q

The myotatic reflex is [mnosynaptic/polysnaptic]

A

monosynaptic

251
Q

T/F: Reciprocal inhibition of the myotatic reflex is not monosynaptic

A

TRUE

252
Q

What is required in polysynaptic reflex arcs? What are they in general?

A

interneurons
multiple synapses within CNS between sensory inout and LMN output

253
Q

Do polysynaptic reflexes involve ipsilateral and contralateral activation/inhibition?

A

YES

254
Q

What is the tendon reflex? What fiber has a higher threshold?

A

Golgi tendon organ stimulated by vigorous muscle contraction stretching tendon
- Ib fiber

255
Q

What is stimulated in the tendon reflex?

A

stimulate inhibition of alpha motor neuron to AGONIST muscle

256
Q

What guards against extreme muscle stress?

A

tendon reflex

257
Q

In the withdrawal reflex, spinal cord interneurons promote activity in ipsilateral [extensor/flexor] LMNs. Conversely, it inhibits activity in ipsilateral [extensor/flexor] LMNs.

A

flexor
extensor

258
Q

In the crossed extensor reflex, spinal cord interneurons promote activity in ipsilateral [extensor/flexor] LMNs. Conversely, it inhibits activity in contralateral [extensor/flexor] LMNs.

A

flexor
extensor

259
Q

T/F: You can do a crossed extensor on a recumbent animal and see a reflex because it is normal.

A

FALSE - do standing
it is not normal to see a crossed extensor reflex in a recumbent animal

260
Q

Why should there not be a crossed extensor reflex in a recumbent animal?

A

shows there is a loss of inhibitory UMN activity

261
Q

Where is the panniculus reflex? What muscle does it affect? Ipsilaterally or contralaterally or both?

A

T1-L7
cutaneous trunci m.
both

262
Q

In the panniculus reflex, there is bilateral transmission via [first-order/interneurons] in the ________

A

interneurons
fasciculus proprius

263
Q

What is the term classified by repetitive, stereotypical behaviors, chewing, walking, etc? It is a neural circuit.

A

central pattern generator - gaiting

264
Q

Gaiting is typically initiated by UMNs but maintained by LMNs and _______

A

fasciculus proprius

265
Q

What is still possible after a transected spinal cord?

A

“spinal walking”

266
Q

What is the RAT for LMNs?

A

Reflexes: decreases
Atrophy: heavily increased
Tone: decreased

267
Q

What is the RAT for UMNs?

A

Reflexes: increased or normal
Atrophy: increased or normal
Tone: increased or normal

268
Q

T/F: Muscle strength in UMN and LMN damage is both decreased

A

TRUE! - leads to -plegia or paresis

269
Q

When [UMN/LMN] is damaged, you see +/- crossed extension in recumbency

A

UMN damage

270
Q

Do you see UMN damage downstream of a transverse lesion in the lumbosacral plexus?

A

no, just LMN damage

271
Q

If there is a lesion in the brachial plexus (C6-T2), where do you expect to see analgesia/hypalgesia?

A

only the thoracic limbs

272
Q

If there is a lesion in C1-C5, where do you expect to see analgesia/hypalgesia?

A

all limbs

273
Q

If there is a lesion in T3-L3, would the animal be paraplegic or tetraplegic? What about in the pelvic limbs? Thoracic limbs?

A

paraplegic
paraplegic
tetraplegic

274
Q

Where do you expect to see hypalgesia/analgesia in ALL limbs? What about ataxia?

A

both C1-C5

275
Q

If there is a lesion in T3-L3, where is there UMN damage?

A

pelvic limbs

276
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

coordinates timing and smooth out somatic motor activity
helps maintain equilibrium - UMN
helps regulate muscle tone - UMN

277
Q

T/F: The cerebellum initiates movements

A

FALSE - corrects them

278
Q

What are the 3 parts of the cerebellar peduncles? Which one has only efferent fibers? Afferent? Both?

A

rostral (midbrain) - efferent
middle (pons) - afferent
caudal (medulla) - both

279
Q

Cerebellar afferents are from the spinal cord from these 2 pathways:

A

spinocuneocerebellar
spinocerebellar

280
Q

List the 3 cerebellar afferent locations

A

spinal cord
cerebral cortex
brainstem

281
Q

From the cerebral cortex, a motor plan is sent to the cerebellum. It is called the _______ pathway

A

corticopontocerebellar

282
Q

List the functional anatomy of the cerebellum

A

spinocerebellum
pontocerebellum
vestibulocerebellum

283
Q

What coordinates movement and posture and goes to brainstem LMN?

A

spinocerebellum

284
Q

What coordinates and properly times skilled movement and goes to motor cortex?

A

pontocerebellum

285
Q

What coordinates balance and eye movement and goes to vestibular nuclei?

A

vestibulocerebellum also called the flocculonodular lobe

286
Q

What are deep cerebellar nuclei?

A

cerebellar efferent
excitatory to nuclei of the pyramidal and extrapyramidal motor systems
- UMN of brainstem or cerebral cortex via thalamus

287
Q

T/F: Cerebellar efferents have a descending spinal path

A

FALSE - no direct synapse on LMN to impact muscles

288
Q

What are signs of cerebellar dysfunction? 3 main things.

A

spinocerebellar: hypermetria and ataxia (toy soldier)
pontocerebellar: intention tremors (cat shaking head)
vestibulocerebellar: wide-based stance

289
Q

Where is the vestibular apparatus located? What is its function?

A

inner ear
sense position of head and neck at rest and during motion
stabilizes position of the head and trunk and coordinates eye movement

290
Q

Where are receptors of the vestibular apparatus found?

A

3 semicircular ducts - crista ampullaris
vestibule - macula saccule & macula utricle

291
Q

The crista ampullaris senses [angular acceleration/static equilibrium/lilnear acceleration], the macula saccule senses [angular acceleration/static equilibrium/lilnear acceleration], and the macula utricle senses [angular acceleration/static equilibrium/lilnear acceleration]

A

angular acceleration
static equilibrium
linear acceleration

292
Q

What is the 1st order neuron in the vestibular apparatus? It travels to ____. What is the 2nd order neuron?

A

1st: vestibulocochlear n. (8)
travel to medulla or directly to cerebellum
2nd: vestibular nuclei in medulla

293
Q

What is bathed in endolymph and high in _____?

A

crista ampullaris
K+

294
Q

What tips towards kinocilium to induce an action potential in the crista ampullaris?

A

stereocilia

295
Q

In the crista ampullaris, hair cells are bathed in [gelatinous cupula/gelatinous layer with otoliths], and in the macula saccule and macula utricle, hair cells are bathed in [gelatinous cupula/gelatinous layer with otoliths]

A

crista: gelatinous cupula
s&u: gelatinous layer with otoliths

296
Q

The macula saccule is [horizontal/vertical] with [static equilibrium/linear] acceleration equilibrium, and the macula utricle is The macula saccule is [horizontal/vertical] with [static equilibrium/linear acceleration]

A

vertical and static
horizontal and linear
*crista ampullaris is angular acceleration

297
Q

The vestibulospinal tract activates [extensors/flexors] and inhibits [extensors/flexors]. Is it ipsilateral or contralateral?

A

extensors
flexors
ipsilateral ventral funiculus

298
Q

What cranial nerves do the medial longitudinal fasciculus involve? What reflex? What does it help?

A

3, 4, 6 - extra ocular muscles
vestibulo-ocular reflex
help fix eyes on target - “gaze stabilization”

299
Q

What is the target of the vestibular system? How so?

A

cerebellum
direct and indirect vestibulocerebellar pathways
axons vs nuclei at cerebellar flocculonodular lobe

300
Q

Differentiate peripheral vestibular subdvision and central vestibular subdivision.

A

peripheral: receptors (hair cells0, vestibular nerve (inner ear structures)
central: brainstem and cerebellar vestibular structures

301
Q

In vestibular disease, why does the dog tilt toward the lesion?

A

because the pathway is ipsilateral!

302
Q

A dog has a nystagmus with a slow return to the left. What side is affected?

A

left

303
Q

A dog has a nystagmus with a fast jerk to the right. What side if affected?

A

left

304
Q

List the 3 types of ataxia (off balance)

A

cerebellar
vestibular
spinal/proprioceptive

305
Q

A dog is trying to walk and has exaggerated movements. Diagnose the dog and what pathway is affected.

A

ataxia - specifically cerebellar
subconscious proprioception is affected

306
Q

A dog is crossing over to one side and has miscoordination of thoracic and pelvic limbs. He is also walking on his dorsum. Diagnose the dog and what pathway is affected.

A

ataxia - specifically spinal/proprioceptive
conscious proprioception is affected

307
Q

A dog is falling to one side. Diagnose the dog.

A

ataxia - specifically vestibular (characterized by balance issues)

308
Q

Where do all axons leave the eye?

A

optic disc - can’t see

309
Q

What is comprised of the retina?

A

optic disc - blind spot
horizontal visual streak

310
Q

The cornea refracts [more/less] light than the lens does

A

more

311
Q

What fine-tunes the image?

A

lens

312
Q

What are the 1st and 2nd order neurons of the retina?

A

1st: bipolar cell
2nd: ganglion cell

313
Q

Which layer of the eye absorbs light?

A

pigment cell layer

314
Q

Which layer of the retina houses bipolar cells, horizontal cells, and amacrine cells?

A

inner nuclear layer (cell bodies of retinal interneurons)
- outer plexiform layer has the dendrites of these

315
Q

What are the output cells of the retina?

A

ganglion cells

316
Q

What is the tapetum lucidum?

A

reflective layer in the choroid that increases light detection in dark conditions

317
Q

[Rods/Cones] are used in scotopic vision.

A

rods

318
Q

Do photopsins/lodopsins or rhodopsins have a lower threshold?

A

rhodopsins

319
Q

What contains retinal (vitamin A derivative) in combination with an opsin (G-protein coupled receptor)?

A

rhodopsin

320
Q

In the dark, rhodopsin contains [cis/trans]-retinal. What does light absorption cause?

A

cis
transformation to trans-retinal and dissociation from opsin —> bleaching reaction

321
Q

In photopsins, phototransduction is [faster/slower], with [more/less] intense light needed for bleaching. Photopsins regenerate [quickly/slowly]

A

faster
more
quickly

322
Q

What degrades cGMP during phototransduction?

A

PDE

323
Q

What kinds of gates close during phototransduction and what happens?

A

cGMP gated Na+ channels close
HYPERpolarization and decrease glutamate release

324
Q

_____ cells are more l likely to be activated by low levels of light due to convergence of RODS.

A

Bipolar cells
cones are different, only a few converge

325
Q

What is the 3rd order neuron for the vision pathway? It is [cortical/subcortical]

A

lateral geniculate nucleus
sub-cortical

326
Q

Do you see more if you have more decussation, meaning your eyes are farther apart?

A

YES
closer: more input each eye gets

327
Q

The pupillary light response, which is 20%, bypass the lateral geniculate nucleus and go to the _______. It is a [cortical/subcortical] reflex, inducing [sympathetic/parasympathetic] pupil constriction

A

rostral colliculus
subcortical - does not guarantee conscious perception of vision
parasympathetic

328
Q

The menace response involves which cranial nerves? It is a [cortical/subcortical] and is learned

A

2 and 7
cortical

329
Q

The visual startle reflex is at the _______ in the midbrain and [stays ipsilateral/decussates]

A

rostral colliculus
decussates

330
Q

What is filled with endolymph and perilymph?

A

membranous labyrinth

331
Q

What is the organ of hearing?

A

cochlea

332
Q

Which part(s) of the scala are filled with perilymph?

A

scala vestibuli - dorsal
scala tympani - ventral

333
Q

Which part(s) of the scala are filled with endolymph?

A

scala media

334
Q

What pulls open, allowing K+ to diffuse into the hair cell and depolarize it?

A

tip links

335
Q

The [higher/lower] the pitch, the closer to the base

A

higher

336
Q

Differentiate conductive deafness and sensorineural nerve deafness

A

conductive: conditions interfere with transmission of vibrations to inner ear
sensorineural: death of hair cells

337
Q

What are the first and second order neurons in the auditory pathway?

A

1st: cochlear n
2nd: superior olivary nucleus

338
Q

The auditory pathway goes to the [rostral/caudal] colliculus

A

caudal

339
Q

Acoustic startle reflex is [contralateral/ipsilateral] to sound and involves [rostral/caudal] colliculus

A

ipsilateral
caudal

340
Q

What is the primary afferent neuron for olfaction?

A

olfactory receptor cell - primary afferent neuron (bipolar cell)

341
Q

What are the types of receptors for olfaction and gustation?

A

chemoreceptors

342
Q

Where is the only location of neurogenesis of stem cells?

A

olfactory epithelium

343
Q

Which pathway does olfactory transduction involve?

A

g-protein subunit with adenylyl cyclase
leads to depolarization

344
Q

What is the 1st order neuron location? What is the 2nd order neuron of the olfactory path?

A

through cribriform plate to olfactory bulb
interneurons in bulb process, filter, and enhance transmission of specific odorants
2nd odor neuron: mitral cell, axons project to cerebrum

345
Q

The olfactory pathway has a directly path to the _____ aka ____, and transmission through the ______ is not required.

A

olfactory cortex
piriform lobe
thalamus

346
Q

What is connected to the nasal and oral cavity via the nasopalatine ducts?

A

vomeronasal organ

347
Q

What are the sensory organs for taste? Where are they found?

A

taste buds
on gustatory papillae

348
Q

Taste receptor cells have _____ that contain taste chemoreceptors

A

microvilli

349
Q

For bitter, sweet, or savory, the G-protein coupled receptor has a signaling pathway that opens _______

A

transient receptor potential channels

350
Q

For sour or salty, chemicals bind and directly open ________ to allow _____ or _____ to enter

A

inotropic epithelial sodium channels
H+, Na+

351
Q

Where are the primary afferent axons of first order taste neurons located in the gustatory pathway?

A

9, 7, 10

352
Q

Where are the second order neurons for the gustatory pathway?

A

solitary nucleus of the medulla

353
Q

Where are the third order neurons for the gustatory pathway? Where do they project?

A

thalamus
to the taste cortex of the temporal lobe

Veterinary Physiology (26 decks)

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