stuff i got wrong/need more review Flashcards
1
Q
A cell from a tadpole embryo’s eye was removed and then placed onto its tail region. This resulted in surrounding cells of that region of the tail differentiating into corneal cells. What term best describes this phenomenon?
A
Induction
2
Q
Induction
A
describes the embryonic process in which one group of cells influences what neighboring immature cells become in the future
3
Q
Metaplasia
A
transformation of one differentiated somatic cell type to another differentiated somatic cell type
4
Q
Dysplasia
A
presence of any of the various types of abnormal cells within a tissue or organ, can be a precursor to cancerous growth
5
Q
Cell plasticity
A
describes the ability of some cells to take on the characteristics of other cells in an organism - ex: adult bone marrow cells to convert to cells of other tissues
6
Q
Metamorphosis
A
describes an abrupt and conspicuous change in animals after birth or hatching
7
Q
Which technique determines which genes are actively expressed in a cell?
A
DNA microarray
8
Q
Gel electrophoresis allows you to:
A
separate macromolecules (DNA, RNA, proteins) by size and charge
9
Q
ELISA
A
technology to determine if a specific antigen exists
10
Q
Karyotyping
A
Tool to count the number of chromosomes in a cell
11
Q
What adaptations do herbivores have that aid them with their diet that carnivores do not have?
A
Large cecum and long intestines - since they eat a lot of cellulose (fiber) compared to carnivores
12
Q
Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?
A. Regulation of blood pH
B. Rising levels of estrogen stimulate a surge of luteinizing hormone
C. Blood platelet accumulation in blood vessels
D. Release of oxytocin during childbirth
E. Release of oxytocin during lactation
A
A. Regulation of blood pH
13
Q
A species of plant from Wyoming is artificially introduced to a marsh in New Jersey. It manages to reproduce and maintain a population, and is not disruptive to surrounding plant communities. How should this plant be categorized?
A
Naturalized
14
Q
What is a naturalized species?
A
non-native species that spreads beyond the place of introduction, and whose introduction is sufficient to maintain its population.
15
Q
True or false: naturalized species can become invasive
A
True - if they become sufficiently abundant to have an adverse effect on native plants and animals
16
Q
What is a non-native species?
A
A species that lives outside its native distributional range, but arrived there by human activity (deliberately or accidentally)
17
Q
Some non-native species called ____ ____ have a substantial negative effect on the local ecosystem
A
invasive species
18
Q
Exotic species
A
also known as a non-native species
19
Q
Desmosomes is a type of:
A
anchoring junction
20
Q
Desmosomes allow adhesion of:
A
cell to cell
21
Q
Hemidesmosomes allow adhesion of:
A
cell to extracellular matrix
22
Q
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Chordata? A. Post-anal tail B. Notochord C. Diploblastic D. Pharyngeal gill slits
A
B. Diploblastic
23
Q
Chordata is characterized as?
A
bilateral triploblastic deuterostomes
24
Q
Triploblastic organisms have ___ germ layers:
A
three; endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm
25
True or false: all bilaterians are triploblastic
True
26
What is a notochord?
cartilaginous rod that support the body of chordates when in embryonic stage
27
In most vertebrates, notochord is replaced by:
bone
28
What characteristics do chordates have? (4)
1. notochord
2. pharyngeal gill slits
3. dorsal hollow nerve cord
4. post-anal tail
29
Dorsal hollow nerve cord develops into:
spinal cord
30
What chordate structure goes on to form the basis of the nervous system?
dorsal hollow nerve cord
31
Pharyngeal gill slits go on to form the:
pharynx, gills, or other feeding systems
32
What happens to the post-anal tail during development?
lost during embryonic development of humans and many other chordates
33
____ are diploblastic
Cnidaria
34
Ingestion of ___ stimulates the release of cholecystokinin
Fats
35
What is the function of MHC II molecule?
display foreign antigens on the plasma membrane
36
Which cells display MHC II on their cell surface?
dendritic cells and macrophages (They are antigen-presenting cells APCs)
37
Contractile vacuoles excreting excess water is a type of ____ transport
active
38
Where are contractile vacuoles found?
organisms living in hypotonic environments where water passively diffuses along its conc. gradient
39
What is a method marine fish use to maintain homeostasis?
Constantly drink water
40
What is the purpose of a linkage map?
probability two genes get inherited together
41
If two genes show a recombination frequency that is anything less than 50%:
the genes are linked
42
What is a ribozyme?
Complex of RNA molecules that are capable of catalysis
43
What is the product of indeterminate cleavage?
Totipotent cell
44
True or false: Polarity of an egg is relevant to the type or products of cell cleavage that occurs.
False - polarity is irrelevant (whether animal or vegetal pole forms)
45
Totipotent cells can give rise to:
cells that can individually complete normal development
46
Determinate cleavage produces:
cells that have a decided fate, no longer totipotent
47
Pluripotent cells can differentiate into:
any of the 3 germ layers
48
Example of totipotent cells
zygote to morula
49
Pluripotent cells example
blastula to 3 germ layers
50
Multipotent cells can divide and differentiate into:
some of the 3 germ layers but not all (stem cell --> new brain cells)
51
____ cells can be produced through determinate cleavage
Pluripotent
52
Hemizygous
describes having only one copy of an allele instead of the typical two copies
53
What do yeast produce in an anaerobic environment that they do not produce in the presence of oxygen?
Ethanol
54
What is bone resorption?
Osteoclasts break down the tissue in bones --> leads to increase in circulating calcium and phosphorous levels
55
Polycythemia
increase in number or red blood cells in the body
56
What occurs in the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle?
Follicle develops into the corpus luteum
57
What accurately explains why along the same period, a non-metal has a smaller atomic radius than a metal?
Non-metals have a higher effective nuclear charge
58
Which of the following liquids would have the highest volatility?
A liquid with london dispersion forces
59
Volatility
Ability of a liquid to evaporate
60
As volatility increases, boiling point:
decreases
61
Half life equation
Amount remaining = (original amt)(1/2)^t
t = number of half lives
62
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If a fire breaks out in a lab, all of the following should be done EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Turn on the fire alarm
B. Leave as soon as possible
C. Notify teaching assistant
D. Turn off all instruments
```
D. Turn off all instruments
63
Do diastereomers have unique physical properties?
Yes - therefore can separate them from one another by physical means
64
Incomplete dominance
Heterozygous phenotype results in an intermediate between two phenotypes
65
Codominance
contributions of both alleles will be seen. ex: blood types
66
Pleiotropy
one gene affects many different traits
67
Polygenic inheritance
multiple genes affect one trait with continuous variation
68
Epistasis
Expression of one gene affects the expression of a second (ex: hair production --> hair color)
69
Kupffer cells
macrophages of the liver; help in the breakdown of RBCs
70
Langerhans cells
macrophages of the skin
71
Microglial cells
Macrophages of the CNS
72
ribozymes
RNA molecules that are capable of catalytic activity
73
What part of the inner ear is directly responsible for transducing a sound wave into a neuronal signal?
Cochlea
74
Stapes is part of the:
ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes)
75
Tympanic membrane transfers:
vibrations of pulsatile sound waves from the outer ear to the middle ear (to the ossicles)
76
What does the stapes connect to?
Oval window
77
Where are microspores produced in an angiosperm?
Anther
78
Microspores produced by angiosperms develop into:
male gametophytes
79
True or false: ferns produce two types of spores
False - only one, bisexual gametophyte
80
What are megaspores?
female gametophytes of heterosporous plants
81
What does the pistil contain?
ovary (ovules inside), stigma, style
82
What is the stamen?
Male plant sex organ - composed of an anther and a filament that supports the anther
83
Pollen is made of:
generative cell inside a tube cell
84
The microspore undergoes mitosis to form:
generative cell and tube cell
85
What happens when pollen lands on stigma of another plant?
1. tube cell elongates down the style towards the ovary
2. pollen tube is formed
3. male gametes meet female gametes to form a seed at the ovule
86
Where is acetyl-coA produced in eukaryotes?
Mitochondrial matrix
87
Which adrenal cortex hormone increases blood pressure?
Aldosterone
88
What does aldosterone do?
Increases Na+ reabsorption in the excretory system which causes water to be reabsorbed. this increases blood volume and blood pressure
89
Renin function
Increases blood pressure. Secreted by juxtaglomerular cells (not adrenal cortex)
90
Adrenal cortex secretes:
1. glucocorticoids (cortisol)
2. mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
3. small amount of sex hormones (androgens and estrogen)
91
Secretin is produced by the:
Duodenum
92
Purpose of secretin
stimulate pancreas to release bicarbonate to neutralize acidic chyme
93
Liver produces:
glycogen
94
If nondisjunction occurs during the first meiotic division of an oocyte, what are the possible number of chromosomes in the resulting zygote after this oocyte is fertilized?
45, 47
95
Hybridization
occurs when some hybrids are more fit than purebreds
96
balanced polymorphism
different phenotypes isolated within the same area
97
Sympatric speciation occurs:
without geographical barrier
98
Requirements for natural selection:
1. more demand than supply
2. Difference in levels of fitness due to variation in traits
3. Variation in traits must be genetically heritable
4. variation in traits must be significant for reproduction/survival
99
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All of the following are ways to achieve sympatric speciation EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Balanced polymorphism
B. Gamete isolation
C. Polyploidy
D. Hybridization
```
B. Gamete isolation
100
Gamete isolation
gametes cannot recognize and fertilize each other - prevents 2 species from interbreeding after they have already been separated and formed different species
101
An individual who is color-blind most likely has some deficiency in which part of the eye?
Cones
102
Rods
Most sensitive to light but not sensitive to color. They allow us to see in the dark and help with peripheral vision
103
The posterior pituitary stores and releases:
ADH (vasopressin) and oxytocin
104
The anterior pituitary produces and releases:
FLAT PiG (FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin, GH)
105
What term best describes animals that mate only once in their lifetime?
Semelparity (Only mate once = Sad = Semelparity)
106
Iteroparity
animals that will mate many times during their lifetimes
107
Which organelle would pellet first during centrifugation?
Nucleus - this is because it is the largest and most dense organelle in the cell and will pellet first
108
A student is examining a crystalline solid. Which of the following findings would be most expected during analysis of this substance?
A. Short range order of atoms
B. Sharp, well-defined melting temperature
C. Malleable shape deformation
D. Random lattice structure
E. Irregular breakage patterns
B. Sharp, well-defined melting temperature
109
State functions
Enthalpy, volume, mass and Gibbs free energy
110
___ is a path function
Work and heat
111
If partial pressure of a gas is tripled, the solubility will:
also triple. They are directly related
112
Rank the following in order of decreasing first ionization energy (highest first ionization energy to lowest first ionization energy):
N
Li
O
N > O > Li
Remember that N will have a higher first ionization energy than oxygen because its p shell is half filled, which is more stable than oxygen
113
Transition metals can form brightly colored compounds because:
their d orbitals are unfilled or half filled
114
Order for electromagnetic radiation
Mnemonic: Romans Invented Very Unusual X-ray Guns
Radio waves; Infrared; Visible light; Ultraviolet; X-ray; Gamma ray
Radio wave = lowest energy/longest wavelengths
115
In the eye, what contains aqueous humor?
Anterior chamber, located between the cornea and the iris
116
What relaxes when the lens flattens?
Ciliary muscle
117
Iodoform test is used to detect the presence of:
methyl ketones
118
Are more substituted amines more acidic or basic?
They are more basic because the alkyl groups are considered electron donating
119
What is the difference between the thermodynamic and kinetic product of a given reaction?
Thermodynamic product forms slower and is more stable.
120
Collenchyma tissue cells
provide extra support to the plant, especially in areas where the plant is actively growing
121
Which type of isolation prevents fertilization because male and female genitalia are not compatible between different species?
Mechanical
122
Which of the following is a target of glucocorticoids in order to raise the blood glucose level?
1. Muscle cells
2. Liver cells
3. Fat cells
1, 2, and 3
123
What movement of air corresponds to internal respiration?
From blood to body tissues
124
All of the following statements about fixed action patterns are true EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Increases the animal's fitness
B. Initiated by a releaser
C. Typically preserved amongst all members of a species
D. Pairs a conditioned response with an unconditioned stimulus
E. Once initiated, it cannot be stopped until the action is completed
D. Pairs a conditioned response with an unconditioned stimulus
125
Fixed action pattern is a/n ______ response
Unconditioned - because it is an instinct and does not involve any learning on the animal's part
126
Both NK and CD8 cells release:
granzymes and perforin
127
Which portion of the nephron is impermeable to water?
Ascending loop of Henle (because there are no aquaporins present)
128
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All of the following structures are considered to be part of the endomembrane system EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Central vacuoles
C. Mitochondria
D. Golgi apparatus
E. Plasma membrane
```
C. Mitochondria
129
```
What microstructure within long bones directly transports nutrients from the periosteum to osteons?
A. Osteoprogenitors
B. Lacunae
C. Volkmann's canals
D. Lamellae
E. Canaliculi
```
C. Volkmann's canals
130
```
Which of following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird?
A. Human forearm
B. Bat wing
C. Butterfly wing
D. Hornet wing
E. Shark fin
```
A. Human forearm
131
What is the goal of genome annotation?
Determine all coding sequences and their functions in a genome
132
What do nitrogen fixing bacteria convert?
Nitrogen gas into ammonium
133
Shotgun sequencing
laboratory technique for determining the DNA sequence of an organism's genome; utilizes restriction enzymes
134
hemocytometer
gridded slide upon which a sample is deposited. Under a microscope, the grid is used to manually count the number of cells in a known area. Then, the sample count is extrapolated for the full volume of the sample
135
Where does the majority of reabsorption take place in the nephron?
Proximal convoluted tubule
136
The embryonic archenteron develops into which of the following?
Digestive tract
137
What are the net products of pyruvate oxidation from each glucose molecule?
2 CO2, 2 NADH, 2 acetyl-CoA
138
For each acetyl-CoA, the Krebs cycle produces:
2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP
139
Which of the following activates pancreatic proteases?
Enteropeptidase (activates trypsin which in turn activates chymotrypsin)
140
As a zygote undergoes cleavage, what stage of development is the embryo in when it is a solid mass of around 16 cells?
Morula
141
According to Hamilton's rule of altruism, when would an animal exhibit an altruistic behavior?
If indirect fitness outweighs direct fitness
142
The role of the collecting duct in the urinary system involves
Sodium reabsorption in response to aldosterone
143
A defect in what structure of a plant would prevent an ovule from being produced?
Pistil
144
Which reagents are used to test for the presence of alkenes and alkynes?
Br2/CCl4
145
Tollen's test tests for:
aldehydes
146
Iodoform tests for:
presence of methyl ketones
147
Silver nitrate in alcohol tests for:
Alkyl halides
148
Bromine test
Tests for alkenes/alkynes
