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ABVP ECM Boards > Study group Qs 2 > Flashcards

Study group Qs 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In a rabbit, how much of the bladder can be removed before it interferes with the function of the bladder (assuming trigone is left intact)?
A ) 10 %
B ) 33 %
C ) 66%

A

C) 66%

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2
Q

What is NOT one of the factors in Whipple’s triad?:
A) hypoglycaemia <60 mg/dL (3.3mmol/L)
B) ultrasonographic evidence of pancreatic masses
C) neurological signs concurrent with hypoglycaemia

A

B) ultrasonographic evidence of pancreatic masses
(3rd is resolution of signs w/treatment)

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3
Q

Vaccination can be used in the face of an outbreak of Canine Distemper virus. It is only effective if <x time has elapsed since infection:
A) 48 h
B) 24 h
C) 12 h

A

A) 48 h

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4
Q

An owner brings you a rat with snuffling. You swab the purulent exudate from a rats forepaw. Under a gram stain you observe plenty of gram positive diplococci bacteria. What does the rat have?
A ) Mycoplasma pulmonis
B ) Corynebacterium kutscheri
C ) Streptococcus pneumoniea

A

C ) Streptococcus pneumoniea

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5
Q

Which treatment is ineffective at treating rat pinworms (Syphacia mutus)?
A ) selamectin
B ) ivermectin
C ) fenbendazole

A

A) selamectin

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6
Q

What is the most striking change in the renal function in rats with chronic progressive nephrosis (CPN)?
A ) Decrease in creatine elimination
B ) Increased protein loss into the urine
C ) Decrease in potassium uptake from tubules

A

B) increased protein loss into the urine

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7
Q

An older rat develops posterior paresis. Which does it most likely have?
A ) radiculoneuropathy
B ) polyradiculoneuropathy
C ) degenerative myelopathy
D ) evil person putting out a question so early in the morning - they all mean the same thing.

A

A) Radiculoneuropathy

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8
Q

Streptobacillus moniliformis normally is asymptomatic (commensal) in the rat. What can it present as?
A ) pyrexia
B ) otitis media
C ) lymphadenitis

A

B) Otitis media

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9
Q

What rabbit breeds are most prone to entropion?:
A) Dwarf rabbits
B) Dutch, Havana and Tan
C)French Lops and Continental Giants

A

C) French Lops and Continental Giants

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10
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Pneumocystis carinii in ferret?

A - TMS
B-AmoxClav
C- Azithromycin

A

A - TMS (other tx is Pentamidine isethionate)

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11
Q

Which of the following is true regarding adrenal disease in ferrets?

A - 67% of ferrets are pruritic along the sholder blades

B - 33% of ferrets are pruritic along the shoulder blades

C - 70% of ferrets have progressive alopecia

A

B - 33% of ferrets are pruritic along the shoulder blades

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12
Q

What % of ferrets with adrenal disease are alopecic?

A

90%+

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13
Q

What is false about sugar glider nutritional osteodystrophy aka NSHP?
A ) it is caused by the lack of UVB similar to reptiles
B ) it presents with similar clinical signs to reptiles
C ) the presentation of NSHP in sugar gliders is often sudden onset

A

A ) it’s caused by lack of UVB similar to reptiles (nocturnal)

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14
Q

What is not transported in a hamster cheek pouch?
A ) water
B ) food
C ) offspring

A

A) Water

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15
Q

What is the mechanism of diarrhea in proliferative ileitis in hamsters?
A ) inflammation induced by the bacteria creates excessive mucus
B ) inflammation by the bacteria reduces the absorption of potassium, glucose, and chloride
C ) the bacteria excrete a toxin that induces the release of sodium into the lumen.

A

B ) inflammation by the bacteria reduces the absorption of potassium, glucose, and chloride

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16
Q

What is not a factor that predispose the female hamster to cannibalizing their young?
A ) cold temperature (50f/10c)
B ) lean body condition
C ) high fat diet

A

C) high fat diet

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17
Q

Castrating male hamsters leads to an increased prevalence of what?
A ) diarrhea
B ) atrial thrombosis
C ) cardiomyopathy

A

B ) atrial thrombosis

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18
Q

Melanoma in hamsters have a:
A ) ratio of 10:1 male/female
B ) ratio of 10:1 female/male
C ) ratio of 1:1 male/female

A

A ) ratio of 10:1 male/female

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19
Q

What does hamster polyomavirus cause?
A ) epitheliotrophic t-cell lymphoma
B ) leukemia
C ) epizootic lymphoma

A

C ) epizootic lymphoma

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20
Q

Gerbils fed rat/mouse diet for 6 months can develop:
A ) Seizures
B ) Insidious periodontal disease
C ) Diarrhea

A

B) Insidious periodontal disease

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21
Q

What statement is false:
A ) 10% of gerbils develop reflex stereotypic epileptiform seizures
B ) Stereotypic epileptiform seizures in gerbils begin at 2 months of age and most gerbils affected it will outgrow it.
C ) Gerbil stereotypic epileptiform seizures are due to a deficiency in cerebral glutamine synthase.

A

A )10% of gerbils develop reflex stereotypic epileptiform seizures (20-40% is correct)

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22
Q

Which is false?
A )The most common tumor in a gerbil is the ovarian granulosa tumor
B ) ovarian granulosa tumors in gerbils are macroscopically small at<2 years, but start to spread locally when they age.
C ) ovarian granulosa tumors are more common in breeding females

A

C) ovarian granulosa tumors are more common in breeding females (more common in virgin females, so OVE if not planning to breed)

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23
Q

What has not been associated with cardiac disease in skunks?
A ) Trypanosoma cruzi infection (Chagas disease)
B ) dirofilariosis
C ) nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

C ) nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism

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24
Q

Skunks are the definitive host for Baylisascaris columnaris, a possible larval migrans in other species. Which is the true statement?
A ) B. columnaris is more pathogenic than the B. procyonis
B ) identification of the Baylisascaris spp usually requires PCR
C ) Fenbendazole is not effective at treating Baylisascaris spp

A

B ) identification of the Baylisascaris spp usually requires PCR

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25
Q

What is the most common primary brain tumor in a ferret?

A- astrocytoma

B - LSA

C - granular cell tumor

A

A - astrocytoma
(Most common PRIMARY brain tumor is a astrocytoma followed by granula cell tumor with the most common tumor in general of the CNS is LSA but wouldn’t be primary)

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26
Q

The most common PRIMARY neoplasia of the bladder is:

A - TCC

B- LSA

C- IDK

A

A - TCC

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27
Q

Honey has what effect on the pH of a healing wound:
A) Acidifies
B) No effect
C) Alkalinizes

A

A) Acidifies

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28
Q

What can happen to a Color point breed (Californian or Siamese sable) when you shave it?:
A) It bursts into flames
B) The fur regrows black
C) The fur doesn’t regrow

A

B) the fur regrows black

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29
Q

A soaked cotton tip applicator holds about how much blood?
A ) 0.01 ml
B ) 0.1 ml
C ) 1 ml

A

B) 0.1 mL

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30
Q

Rabbit ear mites can survive off the host for:
A) 30 days
B) 21 days
C) 14 days

A

B) 21 days

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31
Q

Which of the following is FALSE:

A - the external jugular vein how blood flows from the eye/head to the heart

B - the external carotid is the major supply of blood to the head/eye

C - significant anastomosis are common on the internal and external jugular veins of the rabbit

A

C - significant anastomosis are common on the internal and external jugular veins of the rabbit

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32
Q

Which ECM species does not have a cecum?

A

Hedgehog

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33
Q

In adrenal disease in ferrets, you might:
A ) palpate a mass cranial to the left kidney
B ) palpate a mass cranial to the right kidney
C ) toss a coin and decide which side the mass is on

A

A ) palpate a mass cranial to the left kidney

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34
Q

To surgical access the right adrenal gland in a ferret, you will need to incise the:
A ) hepatorenal ligament
B ) splenic ligament
C ) mesentery

A

A ) hepatorenal ligament

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35
Q

Manipulating any adrenal gland during adrenal surgery in the ferret may cause significant tachycardia and high blood pressure due to increased release of catecholamines. What can you do to counteract this?
A ) give an ace inhibitor
B ) give a beta blocker
C ) nothing, just be careful

A

B ) give a beta blocker (esmolol recommended)

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36
Q

33 to 40 days after surgery, ferrets may develop a blue tint to the skin because:
A ) new post-operative bruising
B ) post-operative infection
C ) new hair growth under the skin

A

C ) new hair growth under the skin

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37
Q

The mean disease free interval for ferrets with surgically treated Insulinoma is:
A ) 128 - 175 days
B ) 284 - 265 days
C ) 563 - 668 days

A

B) 284 - 265 days
(C 563 - 668 days is the mean survival time)

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38
Q

In rabbits:
A) The maxillary incisors erupt more rapidly than the mandibular incisors
B) The maxillary and mandibular incisors erupt at the same rate
C) The mandibular incisors erupt more rapidly than the maxillary incisors

A

C) The mandibular incisors erupt more rapidly than the maxillary incisors

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39
Q

When is the breeding season of ferrets in North America?
A. Nov- May
B. Jul-Dec
C. Mar-Aug

A

C. Mar-Aug

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40
Q

The “inflexum pellitium” in a rabbit is:
A) the furred skin between the toes
B) the thin skin on the underside of the hock
C) the furred margin of the lip

A

C) the furred margin of the lip

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41
Q

Which of these animals has isognathus jaws?
A) Rabbits
B) Gerbils
C) Chinchillas

A

B) gerbils
(Others are anisognathic - rabbits maxilla wider than mandible; g pigs/chins mandible wider than maxilla)

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42
Q

Which of these species have trilophodont teeth?
A)Rabbits
B) Guinea pigs
C) Chinchillas

A

C) Chinchillas
Rabbits/gpigs have bilophodont teeth

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43
Q

What percentage of preputial masses are malignant neoplasia in ferrets?
A ) 35 %
B ) 55%
C ) 75%

A

C) 75%

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44
Q

If you have to surgically remove a malignant preputial mass, what else is recommended?
A ) penile or partial penile amputation with PU
B ) reconstruction of the preputial opening
C ) nothing beyond wide surgical margins (preferred >5cm, >1cm at min)

A

A ) penile or partial penile amputation with PU
(B is for non-malignant adenomas)

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45
Q

If any anal sac is left after anal sacculectomy, what is the major sequelae?
A ) nothing significant
B ) post-op inflammation
C ) fistula development

A

C) fistula development

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46
Q

What is the Bruce effect in mice?
A) increased aggression in mice after watching a Bruce Lee movie
B) increased stress related behaviour due to the introduction of a new caregiver
C) decreased fertility following the introduction of foreign males to a room

A

C) decreased fertility following the introduction of foreign males to a room

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47
Q

What is a method used to minimize narrowing of the small intestines in a rabbit enterotomy?
A ) close using a single simple interrupted pattern
B ) close using a transversing pattern
C ) close using a simple continuous pattern

A

B ) close using a transversing pattern

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48
Q

What are the two most common signs of hyperadrenocortism in a guinea pig? (Pick two letters)
A. Bilateral symmetrical flank alopecia
B. PUPD
C. Hyperglycemia

A

A & B (flank alopecia and PU/PD)

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49
Q

You have to give a ferret a blood transfusion but you’re on a deserted island without any other ferrets. You do have a dog, a cat, and a skunk though. Who is the best donor?

A

Dog

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50
Q

Female gerbils have a high rate of ovarian cysts (50% of >400 days). What type is most common?:
A) Follicular
B) Serous
C) Parovarian

A

A) Follicular

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51
Q

What months do chinchillas have estrus?
A. Nov-May
B. Mar-Aug
C. Aug-Nov

A

A) Nov-May (in N hemisphere); opposite in southern hemisphere

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52
Q

In a rabbit, how much to the bladder can be removed before it interferes with the function of the bladder (assuming trigone if left intact)?
A ) 10 %
B ) 33 %
C ) 66%

A

C) 66%

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53
Q

When placing a closing suture in the bladder of a rabbit, what suture material may reduce the likelihood of urinary calculus formation?
A ) monocryl
B ) polydioxanone
C ) nylon

A

A) Monocryl

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54
Q

What is the median survival time for rabbits undergoing a surgical resection or a mediastinal mass?
A ) 3 days
B ) 55 days
C ) 955 days

A

A) 3 days

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55
Q

What does a positive Jones test indicate?
A) The nasolacrimal duct is unobstructed
B) There is pain on cranial abdominal palpation
C) The bladder is easily manually expressed

A

A) The nasolacrimal duct is unobstructed

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56
Q

Rodents have a duplex uterus with one cervix ( ____ ) or two cervix ( ___ ).
A ) guinea pig and rats, hamsters and chinchillas
B ) guinea pig and hamsters, rat and chinchillas
C ) Rat and mouse, guinea pig and chinchillas

A

B ) guinea pig and hamsters, rat and chinchillas

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57
Q

If a guinea pig prolapses it’s uterus and the breeding viability of the animal is needed, you can attempt to replace the uterus. What should you not do in this procedure?
A ) use a purse string suture on the vagina to prevent reprolapse
B ) use a cotton tipped applicator to replace the uterus to mid abdomen
C ) use appropriate analgesia and supportive care

A

A ) use a purse string suture on the vagina to prevent re-prolapse
(If the uterus reprolapse it could be retained in the vagina and cause fatal urinary obstruction)

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58
Q

What is an easy and cheap method to determine if a rectal prolapse in a hamster is a true rectal prolapse or an intestinal intussusception?
A ) contrast radiographs
B ) CT
C ) tom cat cath placement

A

C ) tom cat cath placement
(If you can pass the Tom cat cath alongside it pass the pelvic canal, it is an intestinal intussusception)

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59
Q

At what date should a bone fixation device be removed from a rabbit for the best strength?
A ) 2 weeks
B ) 6 weeks
C ) 12 weeks

A

B) 6 weeks

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60
Q

What statement is true?
A ) For the standard dental extraoral radiographs, there are 4 views: left lat, Left right oblique, right left oblique, right lat
B ) For the standard dental extraoral radiographs, there should be at least 5 views
C ) For the standard dental extraoral radiographs, there are 5 views: left lat, Left right oblique, right left oblique, right lat, dv

A

B ) For the standard dental extraoral radiographs, there should be at least 5 views

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61
Q

What is false?
A ) the lateral projection on a rabbit given a zigzag occlusion plane of the cheek teeth
B ) the ideal oblique angle in rabbits is 15 degress
C ) the lateral projection on guinea pigs allows visualization of the occlusal plane

A

C ) the lateral projection on guinea pigs allows visualization of the occlusal plane

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62
Q

Which imaging modality provide the best contrast resolution :
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Ultrasound

A

B) MRI

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63
Q

Which imaging modality provide the best spatial resolution :
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Xrays

A

A) CT

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64
Q

Which imaging modality provide radiation production :
A) CT
B) IRM
C) Ultrasound

A

A) CT

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65
Q

Which species are monophyodont?
A ) ferret
B ) rabbit
C ) guinea pig

A

C) Guinea pig

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66
Q

What is thigmotaxis?
A) heat seeking behaviour
B) preferring to travel in groups
C) Wall hugging behaviour

A

C) Wall hugging behaviour

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67
Q

What is the Dalila effect in mice?

A

Barbering

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68
Q

Which virus is the most common cause an acute hemorrhagic pneumonia in rabbits?

A - poxvirus

B - Coronavirus

C- Amdovirus

A

A) poxvirus
(Myxomatosis - only semi-common viral resp dz in rabbits)

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69
Q

If you have a patient under anesthesia, your capnography says your inspired CO2 is 10 mmHg, what should you do?
A ) decrease the respiration to allow more mixing of the air
B ) increase the oxygen flow
C ) decrease the oxygen flow

A

B) increase the oxygen flow

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70
Q

In rabbits, up to 60% can have a higher circulating atropinesterase than other species. Is there a sex prevalence preference?
A ) yes males more likely
B ) yes females more likely
C ) no, equal proportion

A

A) yes males more likely

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71
Q

Why can midazolam be given IM or SQ but diazepam cannot?
A ) because diazepam has propylene glycol as part of the inactive ingredients
B ) midazolam is water soluble and diazepam has a high osmolality making it unpredictable when moving from 3rd spaces
C ) most mammals have enzymes in the sq space that break down diazepam but not midazolam

A

B ) midazolam is water soluble and diazepam has a high osmolality making it unpredictable when moving from 3rd spaces

(Best answer - A is technically true and causes hypotension when given IV so have to monitor)

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72
Q

In what individual should you avoid ketamine?
A ) a highly stressed rabbit
B ) a chinchilla with a grade 1/6 murmur
C ) a rabbit with hepatopathy

A

A) a highly stressed rabbit
(Ketamine is a direct negative inotrope. Highly stressed patients can become hypotensive because they have maximized their sympathetic output = unmasking effect.)

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73
Q

In which species is alfaxalone not an appropriate drug on its own?
A ) rabbit
B ) guinea pigs
C ) chinchillas

A

C) chinchillas

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74
Q

Which cuterebra species is most commonly found on the ventral cervical region? ETA: rabbits

A - C. bulcata

B - C horripilum

C - C. cuniculi

A

B) C. horripilum

(A. C. bulcata prefers axilla and rump)

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75
Q

Which decrease in endotracheal tubes increases the resistance most?
A ) 2 mm to 1 mm
B ) 3 mm to 2 mm
C ) they are the same, both a decrease in 1 mm = same increase in resistance

A

A) 2 mm to 1 mm

Inverse 4th power of tube radius

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76
Q

A rodent owner developed Weil’s disease and at their doctor’s recommendation has brought their rat in to be tested. What test should you run?
A) Fecal culture
B) Mycoplasma PCR
C) Leptospira PCR

A

C) Leptospira PCR

(Weil’s is a condition that develops after initial recovery from lepto infection, when the person develops kidney/liver failure or meningitis)

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77
Q

What two points (in mmHg) are considered thresholds for anesthesia hypotension?
A ) mean arterial pressure 100, systolic pressure 110
B ) mean arterial pressure 90, systolic pressure 70
C ) mean arterial pressure 70, systolic pressure 90

A

C ) mean arterial pressure 70, systolic pressure 90

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78
Q

What are the appropriate steps of reducing hypotension in anesthesia?
A ) 1. Decrease amount of anesthesia. 2. increase circulating volume. 3. Use positive inotropes
B ) 1. increase circulating volume. 2. Decrease amount of anesthesia. 3. Use positive inotropes
C ) 1. Use positive inotropes. 2. increase circulating volume. 3. Decrease amount of anesthesia.

A

A ) 1. Decrease amount of anesthesia. 2. increase circulating volume. 3. Use positive inotropes

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79
Q

The effects of acupuncture can be reversed with:
A ) flumazenil
B ) naloxone
C ) time only

A

B) Naloxone
(acupuncture thought to stimulate endogenous opioids)

80
Q

Infection of which of these species has not resulted in transmission of Monkeypox virus to humans?
A) Cynomys spp.
B) Oryctolagus spp.
C) Phodopus spp.

A

C) Phodopus spp.

81
Q

Approximately what percentage of human ringworm cases are attributed to animal contact?
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 45%

A

B) 25%

82
Q

What can cause a decrease in RBC in the hamster?
A ) age, young animals have lower RBC
B ) ovariectomy, the reduction of estrogen based hormones decreased RBC production
C ) castration, the loss of the testicles reduces testosterone which in turn decreases rbc

A

C ) castration, the loss of the testicles reduces testosterone which in turn decreases rbc

83
Q

Which rodent has the shortest RBC halflife?
A ) gerbil
B ) hamster
C ) mouse

A

A) Gerbil
(10 days)
Hamster - 55 days
Mouse - 40-50 days

84
Q

What is the first cause of campylobacter infection in humans ?

A) Transmission from a ferret eating raw meat
B) Transmission from a dog eating raw meat
C) Transmission via contaminated food or water

A

C) Transmission via contaminated food or water

85
Q

Microcytic, hypochromic regenerative anemia most likely suggests:
A ) gi parasite blood loss
B ) non-infectious cause of anemia
C ) trauma induced blood loss

A

A) blood loss d/t GI parasitism

86
Q

Which statement is false:

A) Streptobacillus monofiliformis can only be transmitted to humans via bites
B) Spirilum minus can only be transmitted to humans via bites
C) Spirilum minus is not pathogenic in animals

A

A) S. mono can be transmitted via bite or contact (S. minus can only be transmitted via bites)

87
Q

Heinz bodies are seen in:
A ) polycythemia
B ) severe liver disease
C ) oxidant injury

A

C) oxidant injury

(Liver disease results in acanthocytes)

88
Q

In which species is 30% basophil not uncommon?
A ) rat
B ) rabbit
C ) hamster

A

B) Rabbit

89
Q

Which parasitic infection is not zoonotic ?

A) Trixacarus caviae
B) Cheyletiella parasitovorax
C) Psoroptes cuniculi

A

C) Psoroptes cuniculi

90
Q

What other species besides Guinea pigs are reported to have Kurloff cells?
A ) platypus
B ) capybara
C ) porcupine

A

B) Capybara

91
Q

What is not true about Syrian hamster leukocytes?
A ) the neutrophil is called a heterophil but is confused with eosinophils because the granules are round and rod shaped.
B ) Hamster eosinophils are similar to other rodents
C ) There is a drop in neutrophils at night

A

B ) Hamster eosinophils are similar to other rodents (rod-shaped granules instead of round)

92
Q

Ferrets under the age of 2.5 yrs spend what % of their time sleeping?
A) 40%
B) 60%
C) 80%

A

B) 60%

93
Q

How long of a fasting is required in rats to produce a significant change in biochemistry values?
A ) 2 hours
B ) 8 hours
C ) 16 hours

A

C) 16 hrs

94
Q

On what species should not use ALT for a hepatocellular biomarker?
A ) rat
B ) chinchilla
C ) guinea pig

A

C) guinea pig

(Alt is neither sensitive or specific for hepatocellular insult in guinea pigs, use sdh. If sdh is not available, use CK and AST to rule out muscle injury (high ck plus ast = muscle injury and not liver))

95
Q

Which is not a possible cause of artifact in refractometer measurement of total solids (often erroneously called total protein)?
A ) Hemolysis
B ) Hyperglycemia
C ) Azotemia

A

A) hemolysis

96
Q

In which species is hemolysis not been shown to increase potassium?
A ) rabbit
B ) guinea pig
C ) hamster

A

B) Guinea pig

(we don’t know if they have high potassium in their RBCs)

97
Q

Which is the MOST common reason for hypoproteinemia in rabbits?
A ) glomerular disease
B ) protein losing enteropathy
C ) malnutrition

A

C) malnutrition

98
Q

In which species is SDH not used to assess the liver because of risk of artifact?
A ) guinea pig
B ) rabbit
C ) ferret

A

C) ferret

(RBCs contain a lot of SDH so hemolysis will increase it)

99
Q

Which statement is true about ferret blood?
A ) hyperkalemia is not observed with hemolysis
B ) hyperkalemia is observed with hemolysis
C ) hyperkalemia is a made up word and I couldn’t think of a third distractor, sorry to make you read this sentence, but I will keep running it on and on and on…

A

A) hyperkalemia is not observed w/hemolysis

100
Q

Rabbits are unique among altricial young in that:
A) Their ears are open and functional at birth
B) They are able to independently control their body temperature
C) They do not require stimulation to urinate

A

C) They do not require stimulation to urinate

101
Q

Most common site of vertebral fracture in rabbits is:
A) L1-L2
B) T12-13
C) L6-7

A

C) L6-7

102
Q

X% of Guinea pigs with heart disease had a murmur:
A) 8%
B) 23%
C) 39%

A

A) 8%
Secret heart disease!

103
Q

X% of Guinea pigs with heart disease had pericardial effusion:
A) 42%
B) 63%
C) 74%

A

B) 63%

104
Q

How much time is usually required for a rabbit to develop a brain infection by E. cuniculi?

A) 1 month
B) 2 months
C) 3 months

A

C) 3 months

105
Q

When do rabbits start to become seropositive for E. cuniculi? When are the max titers reached?

A) 2 weeks, 4 weeks
B) 3-4 weeks, 6-9 weeks
C) 3-4 weeks, 9-12 weeks

A

B) 3-4 weeks, 6-9 weeks

106
Q

What statement is false?
A ) while menace is difficult to observe in rabbits, most rabbits will squint when a bright light is shined into the eye giving both the visual input and muscle feedback that a menace does
B ) rabbits have a well-myelinated optic nerve just ventral to the visual axis
C ) rabbits atropinesterase may prevent mydriatic agents from working, but phenylephrine may help

A

B) rabbits have a well-myelinated optic nerve just ventral to the visual axis
(it’s dorsal to the visual axis)

107
Q

In rabbits, what causes corneal dystrophy (aka lipid deposits in cornea)?
A ) spontaneous in Holland lops
B ) spontaneous in Dutch belted
C ) hepatic lipidosis

A

B) spontaneous in Dutch belted

108
Q

What is the difference between rabbit pseudopterygium and human pterygium?
A ) human is adherent to the cornea, but rabbit is not
B ) human is not adherent to the cornea, but rabbits do
C ) both adhere, but rabbits have good resolution with surgery

A

A) human adherent, rabbit is not (except in 2 recent published cases)

109
Q

In a ferret study evaluating behavioural responses to tooth pulp inflammation, which behaviour was most specific as an indicator of pain?:
A) Face wash strokes and head shakes
B) ipsilateral tongue protrusion
C) Paw licks and ear grasps

A

B) ipsilateral tongue protrusion

110
Q

Idiopathic necrosis of the skin in prairie dogs has been associated with what diagnostic procedure?:
A) Cystocentesis
B) Jugular blood collection
C) Ultrasound

A

A) Cystocentesis

111
Q

If left untreated, chronic glaucoma in a rabbit:
A ) may result in the return of normal intraocular pressure
B ) may lead to return to normal vision
C ) will not change

A

A) may result in the return of normal intraocular pressure (d/t pressure necrosis of ciliary body)

112
Q

In ferrets, what factor does not predispose a ferret to cataracts?
A ) high fat diets
B ) hypovitaminosis E
C ) hypovitaminosis A

A

C) hypovitaminosis A

113
Q

A ferret presents with mydriasis. There is reduced PLR. The fundic exam shows tapetal hyperreflectivity. What is the treatment?
A ) no treatment is possible for this condition
B ) phacofragmentation
C ) application of 5% sodium chloride every 6 to 8 hours

A

A ) no treatment is possible for this condition
(retinal detachment)

(B is tx for cataracts, C for corneal degen dz in mink which mayyy help reduce cloudiness)

114
Q

A guinea pig presents for conjunctivitis. There was mild chemosis and ocular discharge. Cytological examination of conjunctiva showed intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies. What is the treatment?
A ) No treatment in most cases
B ) vitamin c
C ) antibiotics

A

A) No treatment in most cases

115
Q

Why should you avoid xylazine in rats?
A ) it causes proptosis
B ) it causes reversible cataracts
C ) no reason it is safe

A

B) it causes reversible cataracts

116
Q

Which cardiac valves are more commonly affected in ferrets?

A) Tricuspid and aortic
B) Mitral and aortic
C) Mitral and tricuspid

A

B) mitral and aortic

117
Q

Reduced fractional shortening is typical of which disease?

A) DCM
B) HCM
C) RCM

A

A) DCM

118
Q

What is the best test to diagnose heartworm disease in ferrets?

A) Snap test
B) Cardiac US
C) Modified Knott test

A

B) Cardiac US

119
Q

Regarding arteriosclerosis in rabbits which statement is false:

A) Aortic arch and descending thoracic aorta are most commonly affected
B) Causes are unknown, but genetic, hypercalcemia with renal insufficiency or with hypervitaminosis D are suspected
C) Flemish giant are rarely affected

A

C) Flemish giant are rarely affected

120
Q

In which species atrial thrombi are most commonly reported?

A) Ferret, hamsters
B) Gerbils, hamsters
C) Guinea pig, hamsters

A

C) Guinea pig, hamsters

121
Q

A ferret is presented to you with muffled heart sounds, tachycardia and pulsus paradoxus (drop in arterial blood pressure concurrent with inspiration). What is the most likely dx?

A) Pericardial effusion
B) Thymoma
C) Pleural effusion

A

A) Pericardial effusion

122
Q

The cardiologist asks that you sedate your very nervous rabbit patient for his echocardiogram, which drug shouldn’t you use?

A) Midazolam-butorphanol
B) Ketamine-dexmed
C) Midazolam-hydromorphone

A

B) Ketamine-dexmed

123
Q

When would you use blood products for emergency resuscitation?
A ) severe anemia
B ) severe trauma
C ) severe sepsis

A

B) Severe trauma

124
Q

A rabbit presents to your clinic for trauma. You do a quick bedside tfast. There is no glide signs and no B lines. What does that suggest?
A ) pulmonary effusion
B ) pericardial effusion
C ) gas in the pleural space (E.g pneumothorax)

A

C ) gas in the pleural space (E.g pneumothorax)

125
Q

Ferrets that recover from campylobacter can shed it for how long?
A ) 10 days
B ) 75 days
C ) 140 days

A

C) 140 days

126
Q

Which species is more likely to spread Francisella.tularensis?
A ) pet cats
B ) pet rabbits
C ) pet rodents

A

A) pet cats

127
Q

What are true about the 5 etiologies or abnormal repetitive behaviors and/or self-mutilation in exotic companion mammals (pain, stress, boredom, stereotypic movement disorder, secondary stereotypies)?
A ) all have been observed in ECM
B ) stress does not lead to chronic excessive grooming
C ) stereotypic movement disorders have not been documented in ECM

A

C ) stereotypic movement disorders have not been documented in ECM

128
Q

Hard feces has increased ____ while cecotropes have increased ______ (wabbits)

A - prostaglandin, aldosterone

B- aldosterone, prostaglandin

C - oxytocin, calcium

A

B- aldosterone, prostaglandin

More aldosterone stimulates hard feces while prostaglandin stimulates cecotropes

129
Q

MST of ferrets with pacemaker?

A - 6 months

B - 60 months

C- 24 months

A

C - 24 months

130
Q
A
131
Q

What was the most common hemogram change in a study of ostipation in pigs?

A - leukopenia

B- toxic change to heterophils

C- lymphopenia

A

C- lymphopenia

132
Q

Elbow luxation are common in rabbits and ferrets because they have a poorly developed ______ process.

A

Anconeal process

133
Q

After surgical breakdown of adhesions in rabbits, what is the only treatment shown to be effective to prevent recurrence?

A - maropitant

B- gabapentin

C - pentoxyphylline

A

C - pentoxiphylline

134
Q

Which salivary gland has the highest incidence of mucocele development in the ferret?

A zygomatic

B parotid

C submandibular

A

A zygomatic

135
Q

A rabbit owner happens to mention they think they are allergic to their rabbit. They continue to get papule-like rashes that go away and come back. What treatment for the rabbit would you recommend?
A ) re-home the rabbit. It sounds like allergies and nothing given to the rabbit can fix it for the owner.
B ) place the rabbit on an antifungal because you suspect dermatophytosis
C ) place the rabbit on selamectin because it sounds like a human reaction to a zoonotic fur mite

A

C ) place the rabbit on selamectin because it sounds like a human reaction to a zoonotic fur mite

136
Q

What is true about sarcoptes scabiei var cuniculi?
A ) Self-Limiting reaction in humans
B ) only causes mild papules and vesicles in humans
C ) can reproduce on other species than the definitive host

A

A ) Self-Limiting reaction in humans

137
Q

Which dermatophyte is most prevalent in rabbits, guinea pigs, and other ECM (in general)?
A ) Trichophyton mentagrophyte
B ) Microsporidium canis
C ) Microsporidium gypseum

A

A ) Trichophyton mentagrophyte

138
Q

A ferret that recently moved from Italy presents with papular non-pruritic cutaneous lesions and local lymph node swelling. What is your suspected differential diagnosis?
A ) Cryptococcosis
B ) Pseudomycetoma form of dermatophytosis
C ) Leishmaniasis

A

C) Leishmaniasis

139
Q

A ferret from North Carolina presents with a ulcerative, non-healing dermatitis of the footpad. What is your suspected differential diagnosis?
A ) Scabies
B ) blastomycosis
C ) neoplasia

A

B ) blastomycosis

140
Q

A ferret with adrenal disease is given a lupron injection. 18 days later, the ferret starts to develop erythema and papules. What is your suspected diagnosis?
A ) reaction to lupron
B ) Lymphoma
C ) Erythema multiforme

A

C) Erythema multiforme

141
Q

In which species is demodex mites more common?
A ) rat
B ) guinea pig
C ) hamster

A

C) Hamster

142
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding chinchilla urolithiasis?

A - the mean time to recurrence is 68 days and occurs in less than 25% of cases

B- the mean time to recurrence is 68 days and occurs in greater than or equal to 50% of cases

C - the mean survival time is 6 years with recurrence

A

B- the mean time to recurrence is 68 days and occurs in greater than or equal to 50% of cases

143
Q

What is the MOST important monitor for CPR?

A - ETCO2

B- SPO2

C - Blood pressure

A

A - ETCO2

144
Q

Which location would be inappropriate to use a ligasure or other vessel sealing device in a rabbit?

A - Ovarian vessels

B - Uterine Horns

C - Cervical-vestibular junction

A

C - Cervical-vestibular junction

145
Q

Rabbits (which is TRUE):

A - 1 mg/kg pimobendan should be administered as a tablet

B - 2 mg/kg pimobendan should be administered in critical care

C - 2mg/kg pimobendan should be administered as a tablet

A

B - 2 mg/kg pimobendan should be administered in critical care

146
Q

What was the most common microscopic clinical sign in rabbits infected with clostridium spiroforme?
A ) gastric and intestinal distension with gas
B ) necrotizing enteritis
C ) submucosal edema

A

B) necrotizing enteritis

147
Q

“Cotton fur syndrome” in chinchillas is associated with:
A) Zinc deficiency
B) Dermatophytosis
C) High protein diet

A

C) High protein diet

148
Q

A rabbit presents for hypoglycemia and lateral recumbency. The patient was hypothermic and had diffuse muscle wasting; weight loss since a previous visit was also noted. Hematologic abnormalities included progressive nonregenerative anemia and severe heteropenia. A bone marrow biopsy showed active hematopoiesis with abundant pink matrix. What is the diagnosis pending additional staining?
A ) gelatinous transformation of the bone marrow
B ) hyperestrogen induced bone marrow suppression
C ) neoplasia of the bone marrow

A

A ) gelatinous transformation of the bone marrow

149
Q

What is true regarding rabbits?

A - Na+ < 129 was associated with with 4.1X higher chance death

B - Na+ < 129 was associated with with 2.3X higher chance death

C - Na+ < 129 was associated with with improved survival

A

B - Na+ < 129 was associated with with 2.3X higher chance death

150
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with nephrotic syndrome in hamsters secondary to amyloidosis?

A - hypolipidemia

B- hypoalbuminemia

C - ascites

A

A - hypolipidemia

151
Q

What is the most common cardio disease in skunks?
A. Myocardial fibrosis
B. HCM
C. Valvular endocardiosis

A

A. Myocardial fibrosis

152
Q

Which is NOT one of the most common diseases of Djungarian hamsters?
A. Cutaneous lymphoma
B. Respiratory infections
C. Oral cancers

A

A. Cutaneous lymphoma

153
Q

Which of these organisms is NOT a common cause of urinary obstruction in mice?
A. Pasteurella pneumotropica of bulbourethral gland
B. Staph aureus of preputial gland
C. Strep zooepidemicus of prostate gland

A

C. Strep zooepidemicus of prostate gland

154
Q

What does human herpes simplex cause in hedgehogs?
A. Encephalitis
B. Hepatic necrosis
C. Cold sores

A

B. Hepatic necrosis

155
Q

According to CT studies, how often were v-gels placed CORRECTLY (rabbits):

A - 50-85%

B- 15-50%

C- 80-100%

A

B - 15-50%

156
Q

What is the best recommendation for breeding a jill?

A - Breed for 12 hours during the first week of heat

B- Breed for 48 hours the second week of heat

C- breed for 12 hours the second week of heat

A

B- Breed for 48 hours the second week of heat

157
Q

The deslorelin 4.7mg implant was effective for hobs for :

A - 969 days

B - 209 days

C - 91 days

A

A - 969 days

158
Q

What is the FIRST change on bloodwork with a ferret with hyperestrogenemia?

A - leukocytosis

B - leukopenia

C - thrombocytopenia

A

A - leukocytosis
(Thrombocytosis actually first, then leukocytosis, then -penias)

159
Q

Dermatophytosis has not yet been reported in which species?:
A) Ferrets
B) Gerbils
C) Chinchillas

A

B) Gerbils

160
Q

Which is false in regards to cystine urolithiasis in ferrets?
A ) the most common clinical presentation is acute obstruction and related signs
B ) Males are 2.5 times more likely to get it
C ) a seasonal effect similar to humans appears to be present albeit not definitively proven

A

C ) a seasonal effect similar to humans appears to be present albeit not definitively proven

161
Q

Ketamine given to rabbits intranasally while in dorsal recumbency has been associated with:
A ) dead due to intranasal hemorrhage
B ) no sedation effect
C ) dead due to apnea

A

A ) dead due to intranasal hemorrhage

162
Q

What is true about RHDV?
A ) RHDV (classic, a, 1 whichever is your preferred nomenclature) is the dominant strain worldwide.
B ) RHDV2 causes high morbidity, low mortality
C ) RHDV2 evolved separately from rhdv1

A

C ) RHDV2 evolved separately from rhdv1

163
Q

Which species has a significant amount of collateralizatino of the coronary arteries?

A - Guinea pig

B- Rabbit

C - Ferret

A

A - Guinea pig

164
Q

Which species has the thinnest pulmonary artery and thickest pulmonary vein?
A - ferrets

B - Rats

C - Chinchilla

A

B - Rats

165
Q

Visible cyanosis occurs when oxygen saturation drops to:
A) 50-60%
B) 60-70%
C) 70-80%

A

A) 50-60%

166
Q

Mammary tumours in gerbils are typically:
A) Benign
B) Malignant
C) 50:50

A

B) Malignant

167
Q

What is a common finding in hepatitis E (HEV) in rabbits?
A ) high alt
B ) high AST
C ) high lymphocytes

A

A) high ALT

168
Q

What species is known as being extremely susceptible to Clostridium piliforme?:
A) Rabbits
B) rats
C) Gerbils

A

C) Gerbils

169
Q

In which species is diabetes mellitus more common?
A ) rat
B ) guinea pig
C ) degu

A

C) degu

170
Q

What is the ferret dental formula?

A

3/3 1/1 3/3 1/2

171
Q

With urethrostomy surgery, how much will the finished urethrostomy site reduce in size as it heals?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%

A

B) 50%

172
Q

What 2 viruses can affect rabbits under 3 weeks old?

A

RHDV2 and Rotavirus

173
Q

You have a ferret with an insulinoma and is not responding to routine dextrose and steriod therapy while hospitalized. Name a hormone/drug that can counteract (or has opposing action) of insulin

A

Glucagon

174
Q

Fructosamine is helpful for the diagnosis of insulinoma in ferrets? TRUE or FALSE

A

False

175
Q

Which cells release parathyroid hormone in response to low serum calcium?

A - Delta cells

B - Beta cells

C - Chief cells

A

C - chief cells

176
Q

Which “zone” of the ferrets adrenal gland contibutes to the clinical “adrenal disease” seen in practice?

A

Reticularis

177
Q

What other species has an extra layer to the adrenal?

A - rat

b - mouse

c - gerbil

A

b - mouse

178
Q

ACTH stimulation test is most helpful to test which “zone” of the adrenal gland?

A

Fasciculata primarily, but glomerulosa and reticularis to some extent

179
Q

Which of the following was least helpful in the diagnosis of an ectopic ureter in a ferret?

A - Contrast CT

B - Excreatory urogram with rads

C - Ultrasound

A

C - ultrasound

180
Q

What is thought be reduce the risk of seizures in gerbils?

A - Handling when they are young

B - pre-emptive anti-seizure medications

C - midazolam CRI from birth

A

A - handling when young

181
Q

What shape are ureteroliths?:
A) cylindrical to oval
B) spherical
C) starburst

A

A) cylindrical to oval

182
Q

Which zoonotic pathogen is associated with chorioamniotis in humans?

A - C. kutscheri

B - B. brochoseptica

C - Streptobacillus moniformis

A

A - C. kutscheri

183
Q

Glove perforation occurs in what % of surgeries (underscoring the need for hand asepsis):
A) 39%
B) 52%
C) 67%

A

C) 67%

184
Q

which rat bite fever pathogen leads to macolopapular rash?

A - Spirillum minus

B - Streptobaccillus moniformis

A

B - Streptobaccillus moniformis

185
Q

What is the major vector of plague?

A

Rat flea

186
Q

What is the primary reservoir for LCM? What other two species can be reservoirs?

A

Mouse
Hamster, guinea pig

187
Q

How long do rats shed hantavirus?

A - 31 days

B - 31 weeks

C - life

A

C - life

188
Q

List 4 DNA viruses

A

Myxoma, Papilloma, Hamster polyoma, Aleutian dz

189
Q

List RNA viruses

A

Rabies
Coronaviruses
LCM
Distemper
Sialodacryoadenitis
Rotavirus
Influenza

190
Q

Suturing what was shown to help reduce adhesion formation in rabbits?

A

Peritoneum

191
Q

The presence of a chest tube will result in x amount of pleural effusion:

A

1-2 ml/kg/day

192
Q

In ferrets, bristling of hair of the tail could be:
A ) due to ectoparasites
B ) an anaphylactic reaction
C ) due to boredom

A

B ) an anaphylactic reaction

193
Q

To help ensure a rabbit gets pregnant after mating, what can be administered?
A ) Deslorelin
B ) Prednisolone
C ) HCG

A

C ) HCG

194
Q

What is a more reliable indicator of puberty in guinea pig boars?
A ) Age
B ) weight
C ) genetics

A

B) weight - 650 grams

195
Q

What is the prognosis of pregnancy toxemia in a guinea pig?
A ) good
B ) fair
C ) poor

A

C ) poor

196
Q
A

ABVP ECM Boards (19 decks)

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