Study group Qs 2 Flashcards
In a rabbit, how much of the bladder can be removed before it interferes with the function of the bladder (assuming trigone is left intact)?
A ) 10 %
B ) 33 %
C ) 66%
C) 66%
What is NOT one of the factors in Whipple’s triad?:
A) hypoglycaemia <60 mg/dL (3.3mmol/L)
B) ultrasonographic evidence of pancreatic masses
C) neurological signs concurrent with hypoglycaemia
B) ultrasonographic evidence of pancreatic masses
(3rd is resolution of signs w/treatment)
Vaccination can be used in the face of an outbreak of Canine Distemper virus. It is only effective if <x time has elapsed since infection:
A) 48 h
B) 24 h
C) 12 h
A) 48 h
An owner brings you a rat with snuffling. You swab the purulent exudate from a rats forepaw. Under a gram stain you observe plenty of gram positive diplococci bacteria. What does the rat have?
A ) Mycoplasma pulmonis
B ) Corynebacterium kutscheri
C ) Streptococcus pneumoniea
C ) Streptococcus pneumoniea
Which treatment is ineffective at treating rat pinworms (Syphacia mutus)?
A ) selamectin
B ) ivermectin
C ) fenbendazole
A) selamectin
What is the most striking change in the renal function in rats with chronic progressive nephrosis (CPN)?
A ) Decrease in creatine elimination
B ) Increased protein loss into the urine
C ) Decrease in potassium uptake from tubules
B) increased protein loss into the urine
An older rat develops posterior paresis. Which does it most likely have?
A ) radiculoneuropathy
B ) polyradiculoneuropathy
C ) degenerative myelopathy
D ) evil person putting out a question so early in the morning - they all mean the same thing.
A) Radiculoneuropathy
Streptobacillus moniliformis normally is asymptomatic (commensal) in the rat. What can it present as?
A ) pyrexia
B ) otitis media
C ) lymphadenitis
B) Otitis media
What rabbit breeds are most prone to entropion?:
A) Dwarf rabbits
B) Dutch, Havana and Tan
C)French Lops and Continental Giants
C) French Lops and Continental Giants
What is the treatment of choice for Pneumocystis carinii in ferret?
A - TMS
B-AmoxClav
C- Azithromycin
A - TMS (other tx is Pentamidine isethionate)
Which of the following is true regarding adrenal disease in ferrets?
A - 67% of ferrets are pruritic along the sholder blades
B - 33% of ferrets are pruritic along the shoulder blades
C - 70% of ferrets have progressive alopecia
B - 33% of ferrets are pruritic along the shoulder blades
What % of ferrets with adrenal disease are alopecic?
90%+
What is false about sugar glider nutritional osteodystrophy aka NSHP?
A ) it is caused by the lack of UVB similar to reptiles
B ) it presents with similar clinical signs to reptiles
C ) the presentation of NSHP in sugar gliders is often sudden onset
A ) it’s caused by lack of UVB similar to reptiles (nocturnal)
What is not transported in a hamster cheek pouch?
A ) water
B ) food
C ) offspring
A) Water
What is the mechanism of diarrhea in proliferative ileitis in hamsters?
A ) inflammation induced by the bacteria creates excessive mucus
B ) inflammation by the bacteria reduces the absorption of potassium, glucose, and chloride
C ) the bacteria excrete a toxin that induces the release of sodium into the lumen.
B ) inflammation by the bacteria reduces the absorption of potassium, glucose, and chloride
What is not a factor that predispose the female hamster to cannibalizing their young?
A ) cold temperature (50f/10c)
B ) lean body condition
C ) high fat diet
C) high fat diet
Castrating male hamsters leads to an increased prevalence of what?
A ) diarrhea
B ) atrial thrombosis
C ) cardiomyopathy
B ) atrial thrombosis
Melanoma in hamsters have a:
A ) ratio of 10:1 male/female
B ) ratio of 10:1 female/male
C ) ratio of 1:1 male/female
A ) ratio of 10:1 male/female
What does hamster polyomavirus cause?
A ) epitheliotrophic t-cell lymphoma
B ) leukemia
C ) epizootic lymphoma
C ) epizootic lymphoma
Gerbils fed rat/mouse diet for 6 months can develop:
A ) Seizures
B ) Insidious periodontal disease
C ) Diarrhea
B) Insidious periodontal disease
What statement is false:
A ) 10% of gerbils develop reflex stereotypic epileptiform seizures
B ) Stereotypic epileptiform seizures in gerbils begin at 2 months of age and most gerbils affected it will outgrow it.
C ) Gerbil stereotypic epileptiform seizures are due to a deficiency in cerebral glutamine synthase.
A )10% of gerbils develop reflex stereotypic epileptiform seizures (20-40% is correct)
Which is false?
A )The most common tumor in a gerbil is the ovarian granulosa tumor
B ) ovarian granulosa tumors in gerbils are macroscopically small at<2 years, but start to spread locally when they age.
C ) ovarian granulosa tumors are more common in breeding females
C) ovarian granulosa tumors are more common in breeding females (more common in virgin females, so OVE if not planning to breed)
What has not been associated with cardiac disease in skunks?
A ) Trypanosoma cruzi infection (Chagas disease)
B ) dirofilariosis
C ) nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
C ) nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
Skunks are the definitive host for Baylisascaris columnaris, a possible larval migrans in other species. Which is the true statement?
A ) B. columnaris is more pathogenic than the B. procyonis
B ) identification of the Baylisascaris spp usually requires PCR
C ) Fenbendazole is not effective at treating Baylisascaris spp
B ) identification of the Baylisascaris spp usually requires PCR