Study group Qs Flashcards

1
Q

In which rabbit breed is renal agenesis overrepresented?
A. Dutch
B. Havana
C. French lop

A

B. Havana

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2
Q

What disease can Hoeppli bodies be seen with in ferrets?

A

Eosinophilic gastroenteritis

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3
Q

What does barbering look like in mice?
A. Fur loss around the tail base and limbs
B. Fur loss around the face, eyelids, and whiskers
C. Fur loss along the dorsum, between the shoulder blades extending caudally

A

B. face, eyelids, whiskers

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4
Q

Who does the barbering in mice?
A. Most dominant animal
B. Most subordinate animal
C. They do it to themselves

A

A. most dominant

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5
Q

How can you tell which mouse is doing the barbering in an enclosure?
A. You can’t - all equally affected
B. Animal with the most fight wounds
C. Animal with all their fur

A

C. Animal with all fur

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6
Q

Which population is more likely to barber?
A. Group housed males
B. Group housed females
C. Singly housed animals

A

B. group housed females

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7
Q

Why does barbering happen in mice?
A. Genetic predisposition & stress
B. Cage cleaning/inadequate diet
C. Mites and fungal infections

A

A. Genetic predisposition & stress

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8
Q

What can you do to stop barbering in mice?
A. Remove the perpetrator
B. Treat for mites based on SS
C. Add vitamin A to diet

A

A. Remove the perpetrator

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9
Q

In which species does Lawsonia intracellularis mainly affect the colon?
A) Hamster
B) Ferret
C) Guinea pig

A

B. Ferret

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10
Q

What is the dental formula for Mesocricetus auratus?

A

2 I1/1 M 3/3 = 16

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11
Q

Which one is the agent of inclusion body conjunctivitis?
A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Chlamydophila caviae
C) Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus

A

B) Chlamydophila caviae

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12
Q

Introduction of Salmonella in a group of GP is more likely to be via which route?
A. Inhalation
B. Fecal-oral
C. Contaminated food or water

A

C. Contaminated food or water

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13
Q

Which form of Chlamydia/Chlamydophila infects the cells?
A. Reticulate
B. Elementary
C. Tertiary

A

B. Elementary

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14
Q

What is the dx test of choice for hypothyroidism in ferrets?
A - T3 stimulation
B- TRH stimulation
C - TSH stimulation

A

C - TSH stimulation

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15
Q

When treating a rabbit with thymoma using radiation, rapid tumor size reduction is attributed to death of what cell type via apoptosis?
A. Epithelial cells
B. Heterophils
C. Lymphocytes

A

C. Lymphocytes

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16
Q

When performing a postmortem exam on a 3 yr old rabbit, you find one of the kidneys has multiple smooth distinct nodules projecting from the cortical surface. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Renal carcinoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Leiomyoma

A

B. nephroblastoma

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17
Q

In a retrospective study of Ibuprofen toxicity in ferrets reported to the ASPCA, what were the most common clinical signs?:
A) Gastrointestinal signs
B) Neurological signs
C) Renal dysfunction

A

B. Neuro -93% (A - 55%)

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18
Q

What disease can cause sudden onset crusting and erythema on ventral inguinal area of ferrets and well-demarcated alopecia, erythema, scaling and lichenification of front/rear limbs and ventral region in guinea pigs?
A. Sarcoptes scabei
B. Sebaceous adenitis
C. Epitheliotropic lymphoma

A

C. Epitheliotropic lymphoma

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19
Q

The European rabbit (Orytoclagus) is the natural host of which virus :
A) Oral papilloma virus
B) Myxoma virus
C) Rabbit (Shope) fibroma virus

A

A) Oral papillomavirus

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20
Q

In what 2 ECM species are neoplastic skin lesions uncommon?
A. Degus and chinchillas
B. Mini pigs and chinchillas
C. Ferrets and mice

A

A. Degus and chinchillas

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21
Q

Spinal cord termination in the rabbit (most common site)

A - L2
B- S1
C -S2

A

C-S2

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22
Q

In rabbits and rodents, pneumonia is always __.

A

Lobar (no septae dividing the lungs into lobules)

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23
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a kit. The kit died from hemorrhagic diarrhea.
On necropsy you see that the cecum has linear hemorrhages resembling the strokes from a paintbrush.
What is the most likely pathogen?
A - E coli
B- C piliforme
C- C spiroforme

A

A. E coli (due to the Shiga toxin)

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24
Q

During necropsy of a rabbit, you find severe constriction of the pulmonary arteries and dilation of the right side of the heart. What is a possible cause of death?
A ) 1st degree heart block
B ) Pulmonary hypertension
C ) coronary vessel obstruction

A

B. pulmonary hypertension

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25
Q

A rabbit owner reports a rabbit is urinating blood. They report an intense red color to the urine. Which of these diet items could have contributed to the urine coloration?
A ) broccoli
B ) bell peppers
C ) orchard grass

A

A) Broccoli - cruciferous vegetables selectively induce cytochrome p450 enzymes in liver and increase production of urochrome B

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26
Q

In which species does ovulation occur 10 hours after copulation?
A ) Domestic Rat
B ) Rabbit
C ) Ferret

A

B) Rabbit (Domestic rats are spontaneous, Ferrets induced 30 hours post copulation)

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27
Q

What disease might explain “Jackalopes”?
A) Myxomatosis
B) Shope’s papillomavirus
C) cuterebra

A

B Shope’s papillomavirus (horn-like papilloma growths)

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28
Q

The most common cause of pruritic skin disorders in a rabbit is:
A) Environmental allergies
B) Contact dermatitis
C) Ectoparasites

A

C. Ectoparasites

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29
Q

A common cause of nasolacrimal duct disease in chinchinchillas is due to:
A - Rhintis
B - Incisor and Maxillary Apical Elongation
C- Maxillary Apical Elongation

A

C - Maxillary apical elongation

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30
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the reproductive behavior of prairie dogs
A - gestation is 91 days
B - infanticide is uncommon
C - female are receptive for 5 hours only once yearly

A

C - only receptive for 5 hours, once yearly

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31
Q

Which is true (in regards to mice):
A - Syphacia obvelata is best diagnosed in a fecal float or direct smear
B - Aspircularis tetrapetra is best diagnosed with perianal tape cytology
C - Syphacia obvelata is best diagnosed with perianal tape cytology

A

C - S. obvelata - tape; A. tetrapetra fecal float/direct smear

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32
Q

In rabbits, the odds of death during hospitalization or within 1 week are __ for each 1C (1.8F) body temperature below normal on admissions.
A ) doubled
B ) tripled
C ) quadrupled

A

A) doubled

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33
Q

When comparing human and veterinary portable blood glucose meters (pbgms) to veterinary benchtop analyzers in rabbits, which of the following statements is most accurate?
A ) Human pbgms consistently underestimate blood glucose concentrations, while veterinary pbgms consistently overestimate them.
B ) Both human and veterinary pbgms have decreased accuracy at high hematocrit levels.
C ) Human pbgms have the highest total error, while veterinary pbgms have the lowest.

A

A) Human monitors underestimate and veterinary monitors overestimate them.
(Human monitors have decreased accuracy at high HCT levels and vet monitors have decreased accuracy at low HCT levels; Human monitors have least overall error)

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34
Q

Which type of ovarian cyst is most common in guinea pigs:
A) Follicular
B) Serous
C) Parovarian

A

B. Serous (64%)

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35
Q

Which type of ovarian cyst is most likely to respond to medical management with human chorionic gonadotropin or gonadotropin releasing hormone?
A) Follicular
B) Serous
C) Parovarian

A

A) Follicular

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36
Q

Why is Deslorelin not recommended for management of cystic ovaries in guinea pigs?
A) increased risk of mammary neoplasia
B) ineffective in treatment of follicular cysts
C) increased risk of vaginal infections due to opening of vaginal membrane

A

C) Increased risk of vaginal infections due to opening vaginal membrane

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37
Q

Estimate the blood loss with 3 saturated 4x4 gauze.

A

30-36 mL

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38
Q

Fluids injected into the tibial bone marrow in rabbits reaches the heart in how many seconds?
A) 2 seconds
B ) 10 seconds
C ) 60 seconds

A

B) 10 seconds

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39
Q

Regarding the use of auricular thermometers in dogs, guinea pigs, rabbits and chinchillas, which statement is true
A) auricular thermometers provide good agreement with core body temperature measurements and are a good alternative to rectal temperature measurements
B) auricular thermometers have poor agreement with core body temperature, but are generally consistent in their disagreement.
C) auricular thermometers have poor agreement with core body temperature, and are highly variable/poorly reproducible in their readings.

A

C) auricular thermometers have poor agreement with core body temperature, and are highly variable/poorly reproducible in their readings.

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40
Q

Heat loss between solid objects (such as between a patient and a surgical table) is an example of what kind of heat loss:
A) Convection
B) Conduction
C) Radiation

A

B) Conduction

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41
Q

Heat loss when cooler air moves over the surface of a warmer animal, or when warm blood moves into cooler extremities is an example of what kind of heat loss:
A) Convection
B) Conduction
C) Radiation

A

A) Convection

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42
Q

In any rabbit with corneal dystrophy you should :
A) evaluate the content of fat in the diet
B) evaluate the content of calcium in the diet
C) evaluate the content of vitamin A in the diet

A

A) evaluate the content of fat in the diet

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43
Q

The pseudopterygium in rabbits has been compared to the pterygium in humans, distinctions between the 2 conditions are :
A) the membrane is triangular and non-adherent in rabbits
B) the membrane is circumferential and adherent in rabbits
C) the membrane is triangular and adherent in humans

A

C) the membrane is triangular and adherent in humans
(Rabbit is opposite, but recent case report reported adherent)

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44
Q

Volatile Fatty Acids contribute what percent of a rabbit’s basal metabolic needs?
A. 10-20%
B. 30-50%
C. 60-80%

A

B. 30-50%

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45
Q

What would be an inappropriate way to manage hyperthyroidism in a guinea pig?

A- Ethanol Ablation
B- I131
C- Methimazole

A

A. Ethanol ablation

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46
Q

Based on the 2021 Canadian Veterinary Journal article “Obstipation in pet pigs”, which of the following treatments are not utilized in treating obstipation in pet pigs?
A. Anti-emetics and oral administration of carbonated beverages
B. Fluid therapy and oral laxative administration
C. Surgical intervention and NSAIDs

A

B. Fluid therapy and oral laxative admin
(Article doesn’t mention oral laxatives; they give anti-emetics, fluids, NSAIDs and antimicrobials. and carbonated beverages. 25% go to surgery

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47
Q

Which species of companion rodent has both foregut fermentation (with a pre gastric region of the stomach with a lower pH and a microbial population) and hind gut fermentation ?
A) Gerbils
B) Prairie Dogs
C) Hamsters

A

C) Hamsters

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48
Q

Which of the components of plant fiber are partially digestible by mammalian enzymes?:
A) lignan
B) hemicellulose
C) cellulose

A

B) Hemicellulose

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49
Q

An adult rabbit will consume how much food in a typical short food consumption cycle (approximately 4 to 6 minutes)?
A ) 2 - 8 grams
B ) 8 - 14 grams
C ) 14 - 20 grams

A

A) 2-8 grams

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50
Q

The stomach acid of a rabbit drops to _ after consumption of food and _ after consumption of cecotrophs.
A ) 1 - 2, 3
B ) 3 - 4, 5
C ) 1 - 2, 5

A

A) 1-2, 3 (juvenile pH 5-6)

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51
Q

How much of the dietary starches and amino acids are absorbed in a rabbit’s small intestines?
A ) 40 - 60%
B ) 70 - 90%
C ) 80 - 100%

A

C) 80-100%

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52
Q

Which of the following sites host the rabbits Gut-Associated Lymphoid Tissues (GALT)?
A ) Proximal Cecum
B ) Colon
C ) Sacculus Rotundus

A

C) Sacculus rotundus

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53
Q

Besides being a source of GALT, what functions does the rabbit appendix serve?
A ) secrets water
B ) secrets bicarbonate
C ) both A and B

A

C) both A&B

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54
Q

Which of these groups of bacteria are NOT present in the rabbit GI tract?
A ) Lactobacillus
B ) Bacteroidetes
C ) Ruminococcaceae

A

A) Lactobacillus

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55
Q

How frequently does the gut microbiome change in rabbits?
A ) rarely
B ) sometimes
C ) frequently

A

C) Frequently

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56
Q

The mean age of onset of cysteine uroliths in ferrets is:
A) 1-2 years
B) 3-4 years
C) 5-6 years

A

B. 3-4 years

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57
Q

Place these fibers in order of fermentability in rabbits: cellulose, pectin, and hemicellulose.
A ) cellulose > pectin > hemicellulose
B ) pectin > hemicellulose> cellulose
C ) cellulose> hemicellulose > pectin

A

B) pectin > hemicellulose > cellulose

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58
Q

Which of the following volatile fatty acids is most often the most abundant VFA produced during the fermentation process in rabbits?
A ) acetate
B ) propionate
C ) butyrate

A

A) Acetate (75%)
(Butyrate 15%, Proprionate 10% - alphabetical)

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59
Q

Which VFA is the preferred energy source for the colon?
A ) acetate
B ) propionate
C ) butyrate

A

C. Butyrate (rest transmitted to blood stream)

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60
Q

What is the energy density of rabbit milk (for reference a MJ is about 240kcal)?
A ) 2 MJ / kg
B ) 8 MJ / kg
C ) 15 MJ / kg

A

B) 8 mJ/kg

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61
Q

Which part of rabbit milk confers antimicrobial properties?
A ) Short chain triglycerides
B ) Medium chain triglycerides
C ) Long chain triglycerides

A

B) Medium chain triglycerides (Octanoic and decanoic acids)

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62
Q

Accepting that this physiologic process is affected by age, light cycle and feeding pattern, how soon after a meal is a cecotrope produced in a rabbit?
A ) 2 hour
B ) 3 hour
C ) 4 hour

A

C) 4 hours

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63
Q

Rabbit cecotrope protein account for what percentage of daily dietary amino acid requirements?
A ) 5 - 15 %
B ) 10 - 23 %
C ) 25 - 41%

A

B) 10-23%

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64
Q

How long can a cecotrope remain intact in the rabbit’s stomach?
A) 3 - 6 hours
B ) 6 - 9 hours
C ) 9 - 12 hours

A

A) 3-6 hrs

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65
Q

Mini pigs reach —% of their adult weight at 1 year of age:
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 100%

A

A) 50%

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66
Q

Which component is missing from the diet when an adult rabbit is fed ad lib hay, greens, and no concentrates?
A ) water soluble vitamins
B ) fat soluble vitamins
C ) calcium

A

B) fat soluble vitamins (cecotropes only have vitamin K of the fat soluble)

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67
Q

Which statement is true?
A ) High carbohydrates directly causes enteritis in rabbits.
B ) Low protein directly causes enteritis in rabbits.
C ) High carbohydrates indirectly causes enteritis in rabbits.

A

C ) High carbohydrates indirectly causes enteritis in rabbits.
(High carbs result in low fiber intake, which is what is believed to cause enteritis)

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68
Q

Which of the following statements are true:
A ) The use of pineapple juice has been associated with a return to normal intestinal function in rabbits.
B ) The use of pineapple juice may cause gastric mucosal damage, potentially causing gastric ulcers.
C ) The use of pineapple juice does not help a return of normal intestinal function in rabbits, but does not cause any harm.

A

B ) The use of pineapple juice may cause gastric mucosal damage, potentially causing gastric ulcers.

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69
Q

Where does the majority of fluid and sodium excretion occur in a rabbit?
A ) within the first 5 to 19 cm of the duodenum
B ) within the first 25 to 30 cm of the duodenum
C ) within the first 5 to 19 cm of the jejunum

A

B) within the first 25 to 30 cm of the duodenum

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70
Q

Within __ hours of an obstruction the bacterial flora starts to shift to Enterobacteriaceae (assuming the gut with an obstruction acts like the study in which they ligated the intestines)
A ) 1
B ) 4
C ) 8

A

A) 1

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71
Q

Rabbit presented with lethargy and diarrhea, dies in 24h. On necropsy, cecal content is liquid, presence of pleural effusion and evidence of hemagglutination in the feces. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Rabbit rotavirus
B) Rabbit enteric coronavirus
C) Salmonella Typhimurium

A

B) Rabbit enteric coronavirus

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72
Q

Which bacterium causes thrombotic microangiopathy in rabbits ?
A) E Coli (shiga toxin)
B) Salmonella Typhimurium
C) Clostridium (iota toxin)

A

A) E coli (shiga toxin)

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73
Q

What is the incubation period for RHDV ?
A) 1-3 days
B) 3-5 days
C) 5-10 days

A

A) 1-3 days

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74
Q

Which agents are intracellular bacteria:
A) Lawsonia intracellularis, Clostridium piliforme
B) Clostridium spiroforme, Lawsonia intracellularis
C) Clostridium difficile, Lawsonia intracellularis

A

A) Lawsonia intracellularis, Clostridium piliforme

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75
Q

What area is most likely to have the highest density of Caparinia tripilis mites (and is therefore a good area to sample)?
A) Dorsum
B) External ear canals
C) Ventrum

A

B) external ear canals

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76
Q

For proliferative ileitis in hamsters, what is the causative agent and most affected age group?
A) 1-3 wks
B) 3-10 wks
C) 10-14 wks

A

B) 3-10 wks

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77
Q

For proliferative ileitis in hamsters, what is the mortality rate?)
A) Low
B) Medium
C) High

A

C) high

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78
Q

For proliferative ileitis in hamsters, what is the cause of diarrhea:
A) Secretion of fluid through damaged GI barrier
B) Toxic effect from causative agent
C) Malabsorption (glucose, potassium, chloride)

A

C) Malabsorption

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79
Q

How is proliferative ileitis definitively diagnosed?
A) Necropsy and histopath
B) Culture
C) Fecal PCR

A

A) Necropsy and histopath

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80
Q

Regarding Canine Distemper Virus in Ferrets:
Genus:
A) Orthomyxovirus
B) Morbillivirus
C) Lissavirus

A

B) Morbillivirus

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81
Q

Regarding Canine Distemper Virus in Ferrets:
Incubation:
A) 1-4 days
B) 7-10 days
C) 10-14 days

A

B) 7-10 days

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82
Q

Regarding Canine Distemper Virus in Ferrets:
Most common transmission:
A) Aerosols/droplets
B) Vertical
C) Fomite

A

A) Aerosols/droplets

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83
Q

Regarding Canine Distemper Virus in Ferrets:
Antemortem diagnosis:
A) Fecal PCR
B) Virus isolation from nasal discharge
C) Fluorescent Antibody Testing

A

C) Fluorescent antibody testing on conjunctival smears, MM scrapings or blood smears

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84
Q

Regarding Influenza in Ferrets:
Virus Family?
A) Paramyxoviridae
B) Orthomyxoviridae
C) Lyssaviridae

A

B) Orthomyxoviridae

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85
Q

Regarding Influenza in Ferrets:
Strains that affect ferrets:
A) Strain A and B
B) Strain C and D
C) Strain E and F

A

A) Strains A & B

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86
Q

Regarding Influenza in Ferrets:
Transmission?:
A) Fomites and direct contact
B) Aerosols, droplets and direct contact
C) Aerosols and fomites

A

B) Aerosol, droplets and direct contact

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87
Q

Regarding Influenza in Ferrets:
Incubation period?:
A) 2 days
B) 4 days
C) 7 days

A

A) 2 days

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88
Q

A study in mice gave CBD at the allometrically equivalent dose to the human maximum dose. What was the outcome:
A) the CBD was shown to provide safe and effective pain control
B) There was no effect and no noted adverse effects
C) It resulted in liver damage

A

C) liver damage

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89
Q

Approximately 30% of Syrian hamsters develop neoplasms, with no appreciable sex difference. Which type of tumor is most common?:
A) Adrenocortical tumours
B) Lymphoreticular tumours
C) Endometrial tumours

A

A) Adrenocortical tumors (13.5%); LR 3%, endometrial 3%

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90
Q

Isoflurane decreases the PCV in a ferret by how much?
A ) 16%
B ) 26%
C ) 36%

A

C) 36%

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91
Q

How many detectable blood groups do ferrets have?
A ) 0
B ) 2
C ) 4

A

A) 0

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92
Q

In what condition are Kurloff cells more abundant in the peripheral blood smear in a guinea pig?
A ) Immature guinea pigs
B ) Pregnant guinea pigs
C ) Both A and B

A

B) pregnant guinea pigs

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93
Q

Which analyte has a poor correlation to renal failure in ferrets?
A ) BUN
B ) CREA
C ) Both have been proven to have poor correlation to renal failure in ferrets

A

A) BUN

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94
Q

In ferrets, room temperature plasma glucose will decrease how much per hour when exposed to red blood cells?
A ) 2 %
B ) 7%
C ) 15%

A

B) 7%

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95
Q

Which lipoprotein is the major lipoprotein in a ferret?
A ) Low Density (LDL)
B ) High Density (hdl)
C ) Very Low Density (vldl)

A

B) HDL

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96
Q

Which disease is hypergammaglobulinemia associated with ferrets?
A ) Aleutian Disease
B ) Insulinoma
C ) Adrenal Disease

A

A ) Aleutian Disease (Ferret systemic coronavirus also does this!)

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97
Q

Glucosuria in ferrets is rarely seen with this condition:
A ) Chronic Renal Insufficiency
B ) Diabetes Mellitus
C ) Insulinoma

A

B) diabetes mellitus

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98
Q

Green urine coloration in ferrets indicates what condition should be on the differential list?
A ) Heartworm
B ) Insulinoma
C ) Cystitis

A

A) Heartworm

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99
Q

An adult rabbit died at home after chronic weight loss and 3-4 days of diarrhea according to the owners. You sent the body to necropsy. The report comes back with identification of Eimeria steidae, Cryptosporidium parvum, and Passalurus ambiguus in the intestines. Which parasite is the most likely cause of the diarrhea?

A

Eimeria steidae

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100
Q

Regarding one study on subconjuntival enucleation in rabbits (JAVMA 2023), what were the conclusions?

A-removing the 3rd eyelid is necessary to avoid post-op hemorrhage
B-removing the 3rd eyelid or not is viable option, but it can result in transient discharge and swelling
C-removing the 3rd eyelid is not recommended to avoid post-op serous discharge

A

B - remove or not, but can result in transient discharge/swelling

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101
Q

In a recent study what were the 2 factors associated with a better chance of survival in rabbits with intestinal obstruction ?
A-IV lidocaine and male rabbits
B-IV lidocaine and female rabbits
C-IV lidocaine and buprenorphine IV or IM

A

A - IV lidocaine and male rabbits

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102
Q

A ferret presents to you with a bone marrow biopsy of showing pancytopenia with myeloid, erythroid, and megakaryoctic cell suppression. What is your primary treatment?
A ) Blood Transfusion
B ) Antibiosis
C ) Progesterone

A

C) progesterone (and may need A depending on PCV)

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103
Q

According to a recent study (JAVMA) on appendicitis, which sentence is true:
A. Common signs include : hypoglycemia, hypercalcemia, and abnormal rectal temperature
B. All cases were successfully diagnosed with ultrasonography
C. Appendectomy may be a viable treatment in some cases

A

C. Appendectomy may be a viable treatment in some cases

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104
Q

Regarding a recent retrospective study on liver lobe torsions in rabbits, which sentence is true :
A. The prognosis is overall very good, especially for rabbits that received tramadol
B. Seven-day survival rate did not differ between medical tx alone and surgical tx, but medial survival time following medical tx was shorter than following sx tx
C. Rabbits with right LLT were more likely to survive than those with caudate torsions

A

B. Seven-day survival rate did not differ between medical tx alone and surgical tx, but median survival time following medical tx was shorter than following sx tx

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105
Q

Regarding retrobulbar abscesses in rabbits (JAVMA 2023), which sentence is true ?
A-Most cases had clinical disease resolution when surgical treatment combined with systemic antibiotic therapy were used
B-On the basis of this study, retrobulbar abscesses carry a good prognosis
C-Even when surgical treatment and systemic antibiotic therapy were used, the abscesses in most cases did not resolve.

A

A-Most cases had clinical disease resolution when surgical treatment combined with systemic antibiotic therapy were used

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106
Q

According to a 2024 AJVR journal -
Which of the following was associated with the highest odds of death in ferrets?
A - hypothermia
B - anemia
C - hypoglycemia

A

C - hypoglycemia
Anemia had a 4.74X increased odds of death
Hyperglycemia (>152mg/dl or 8.4mmol/L) was 2.61X
hypothermic (<37.8C or 100.04F) was 3.72X
Also for every 0.56 C lower than baseline odds of death increased by 1.5X
Hypoglycemia (<40mg/dL or 2.2mmol/L) was 9.45X !!

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107
Q

According to a 2023 AJVR study

Which of the following is the limiting factor for the size of an ET tube in rabbits?

A - caudal thyroid cartilage

B - caudal cricoid cartilage

C - rostral thyroid cartilage

A

A - caudal thyroid cartilage

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108
Q

According to a 2019 JAVMA article, what is the most common cause of dystocia in rabbit?
A. Fetal death/mummification
B. Fetal macrosomia
C. Uterine inertia

A

B (but 2 of the 4 also had uterine inertia)

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109
Q

In ferrets with suspected hyperadrenocorticism, which diagnostic test is the most useful to determine if one or both glands are affected and whether an ovarian remnant is present ?

A. Abdominal ultrasound
B. Abdominal radiographs
C. Measurement of plasma hormones concentration

A

A. ultrasound

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110
Q

What test is recommended to differentiate between adrenal gland disease and ferrets with gonads not completely removed (other than US):
A. Stimulation test with human chorionic gonadotropin (LH agonist)
B. Urinary corticoid-creatinine ratio
C. Stimulation test with ACTH

A

A. Stim test with hCG

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111
Q

Based on a 2023 JAVMA study of 49 hedgehogs with Wobbly Hedgehog Syndrome based on histopathology, which of the following statements is true?
A. All patients with histopathologic diagnosis of WHS had antemortem neurologic signs
B. The mean age at onset of clinical signs was 5.5 +/- 1.2 years
C. 63% of hedgehogs with WHS had concurrent histopathologic diagnosis of neoplasia outside the CNS

A

C. 63% of hedgehogs with WHS had concurrent histopathologic diagnosis of neoplasia outside the CNS
(30% had no neurologic signs (subclinical disease) and the mean age at onset was 3.3 +/- 1.5 yrs)

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112
Q

About surgical treatment for adrenal gland disease, which statement is true:

A. Complete or partial resection of the RA combined with cryosurgery has a better outcome than partial resection alone

B. Removing the entire LA and part of the RA in bilateral cases led to an Addisonian crisis in 50% of cases

C. After surgical removal of unilateral gland tumor, the disease commonly recur in 15% of ferrets due to development of disease in remaining gland.

A

C. After surgical removal of unilateral gland tumor, the disease commonly recur in 15% of ferrets due to development of disease in remaining gland.
(A - poorer outcome; B - 5%)

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113
Q

Regarding insulinomas in ferrets, which statement is true :

A. Sinus bradycardia is a rare finding
B. Nausea is commonly seen
C. CS usually don’t disappear after providing food

A

B. Nausea is commonly seen

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114
Q

Regarding insulinomas in ferrets, which sentence is FALSE :

A. Like in dogs, insulinomas tend to metastasize in ferrets

B. Insulinomas are tumors that originate from the beta cells of the pancreas

C. Prevalence of insulinomas is about 20-25% of all neoplasms in ferrets

A

A. Like in dogs, insulinomas tend to metastasize in ferrets

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115
Q

Associate the cell type with the appropriate peptide (islets of Langerhans) :

alpha cells; beta cells; delta cells; P (F) cells

insulin, somatostatin, pancreatic polypeptide, glucagon

A

alpha - glucagon; beta - insulin; delta - somatostatin; p (f) cells - pancreatic polypeptide

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116
Q

Regarding diagnosis of insulinomas in ferrets, which statement is true:

A. Diagnosis can be confirmed with portable blood glucose meters
B. Insulinomas can be excluded with normal insulin concentration
C. Fructosamine measurements are unlikely to be useful

A

C. Fructosamine measurements are unlikely to be useful

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117
Q

Which is true in regards to ferrets:

A - The parotid and submandibular salivary glands lack amylase production

B - The ferrets salivary glands consistent of : parotid, submandibular, molar and zygomatic

C- Trauma is the least common cause of salivary mucocele in the ferret

A

A - The parotid and submandibular salivary glands lack amylase production

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118
Q

Periosteal bone proliferation may be detected x days after infection of a fracture:
A) 3-4 days
B) 7-10 days
C) 14-21 days

A

B) 7-10 days

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119
Q

The most commonly fractured bone in ferrets and guinea pigs is:
A) Femur
B) Tibia
C) Humerus

A

A) Femur

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120
Q

The most traumatic fracture in a chinchilla is:
A) Femur
B) Tibia
C) Humerus

A

B) tibia

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121
Q

What is the correct dental formula for Meriones unguiculatus
A) I1/1, C0/0, PM 2/1, M3/3
B) I 1/1, C0/0, PM3/2, M3/3
C) 1/1, C0/0, PM 0/0, M3/3

A

C) 1/1, C0/0, PM 0/0, M3/3

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122
Q

What is the correct dental formula for Cynomys ludovicianus
A) I1/1, C0/0, PM 2/1, M3/3
B) I 1/1, C0/0, PM3/2, M3/3
C) 1/1, C0/0, PM 0/0, M3/3

A

A) I1/1, C0/0, PM 2/1, M3/3

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123
Q

What is the correct dental formula for Oryctolagus cuniculi
A) I1/1, C0/0, PM 2/1, M3/3
B) I 2/1, C0/0, PM3/2, M3/3
C) 1/1, C0/0, PM 0/0, M3/3

A

B) I 2/1, C0/0, PM3/2, M3/3

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124
Q

Clostridial spores are killed by:
A ) 0.3 % Sodium Hypochlorite
B ) Heat of 173F (80C) for 30 minutes
C ) Both

A

C) Both

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125
Q

Rabbit papilloma lesions may persist for how long?
A ) 145 days
B ) 265 days
C ) 365 days

A

A) 145 days; often only weeks

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126
Q

Which statement is true?
A) RHDV2 incubation period of 5 - 7 days
B ) RHDV2 is less virulent than RHDV
C ) Rabbits vaccinated against RHDV (classic) are protected from RHDV2

A

B) RHDV2 is less virulent than RHDV

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127
Q

Definitive diagnosis of rabbit Rotavirus is through clinical signs and:
A ) Histopathology of the intestines
B ) Viral Isolation
C ) Serology

A

A) intestine histopath

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128
Q

The presences of hemagglutination activity in the feces helps support a tentative diagnosis of what viral disease in rabbits?
A ) Rabbit Enteric Coronavirus
B ) RHDV2
C ) Rabbit Rotavirus

A

A) Rabbit enteric coronavirus

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129
Q

Which statement is true:
A ) 12 species of Eimeria infect the intestines of rabbits while only 1 is found in the liver.
B ) 10 species of Eimeria infect the intestines of rabbits while only 1 is found in the liver.
C ) 10 species of Eimeria infect the intestines of rabbits while only 5 is found in the liver.

A

A ) 12 species of Eimeria infect the intestines of rabbits while only 1 is found in the liver.

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130
Q

How many species are more often present in clinical cases of coccidia in rabbits?
A ) 0
B ) 1
C ) 2+

A

C ) 2+

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131
Q

Which statement about rabbit intestinal coccidia is false?
A ) Cecotrophs contain coccidial oocysts
B ) Infection is through ingestion of sporulated oocyst
C ) the finding of coccidia in clinically normal rabbits does not warrant treatment.

A

A ) Cecotrophs contain coccidial oocysts

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132
Q

According to a study in JEPM on treatment options for thymoma in rabbits, which statement is FALSE:

A. Survival times of rabbits who were administered prednisolone alone were significantly longer than those that did not receive any tx
B. Survival times of rabbits who were administered intensity modulated radiotherapy were significantly longer than those that did not receive any tx
C. Prednisolone was associated with minimal side effects

A

B. Survival times of rabbits who were administered intensity modulated radiotherapy were significantly longer than those that did not receive any tx
(However, one rabbit died from anesthetic complications during IMRT, and overall survival times did not differ significantly from the no treatment group. Glucocorticoid therapy alone, on average, also reduced clinical signs associated with thymoma with minimal side effects. Survival times of rabbits who were administered prednisolone alone were significantly longer compared to those of rabbits receiving no treatment. )

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133
Q

According to a study (JEPM) on SCC in rabbits, which statement is TRUE

A. Agressive surgical resection was unfortunately not curative in most cases
B. SCC was clearly associated with papillomavirus infection
C. Predilection for ears and feet, and light colored rabbits

A

C. Predilection for ears and feet, and light colored rabbits

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134
Q

Cone beam CT has generally been found to be superior to conventional CT for imaging the rabbit dentition. The imaging of which structure was most strikingly improved?
A) overall tooth outline
B) pulp cavity
C) periodontal ligament

A

C) periodontal ligament

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135
Q

Passalurus ambiguus is what type of organism?
A ) bacteria
B ) coccidia
C ) nematode

A

C) nematode - rabbit pinworm

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136
Q

Please identify the FALSE statement.
A ) pinworms are zoonotic
B ) pinworms can be visualized during abdominal surgery in the cecum
C ) pinworm infestations, even heavy burden, are often asymptomatic

A

A) they are not zoonotic

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137
Q

Hamster polyomavirus. What is true?

A- adults have mesenteric lymphoma
B - spread by urine
C - juveniles have epithelioma especially on the head and dorsum

A

B - spread by urine
(young get mesenteric lymphoma, adults get epithelioma)

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138
Q

Disseminated collagen’s hamartoma in rabbit. What is true

A - almost exclusively seen in young does

B - X- linked dominant

C - X linked recessive

A

C - x linked recessive (don’t have a second X to cover it up like females)

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139
Q

Aleutian disease replicates in what location in neonatal ferrets

A - monocytes and dendritic cells

B- neutrophils and basophils

C - type II pneumocytes

A

C - type II pneumocytes

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140
Q

A pathologist reports physaliferous cells on a histo report for a ferret but the final diagnosis is cut off

The ferret had:

A - chordoma

B - basal cell tumor

C - AGASACA

A

A - chordoma

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141
Q

A young ferret has suspected cr mediastinal mass

The most common IHC pattern is:

A - CD3 + and CD79a -

B - CD3 - and CD79a +

C - CD3 + and CD79a +

A

A - CD3+/CD79a- (T-cell lymphoma)
(CD3- and CD79a+ is B-cell which is less common)

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142
Q

Which is correct regarding fungal diseases in ferrets?
A. Histoplasmosis has been described in the GI
B. Cryptococcus most commonly occurs in the lungs
C. Blastomycosis most commonly causes cutaneous nodules

A

A. Histo-GI
(Crypto-cutaneous/nasal; Blasto-pulmonary)

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143
Q

Regarding pregnancy toxemia, which statement is FALSE

A. Can be predisposed by stress
B. It is recommended to limit calorie intake, especially in the last 2 weeks
C. Weakness, dyspnea, abortions are common CS

A

B. It is recommended to limit calorie intake, especially in the last 2 weeks

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144
Q

Which skull rad view in guinea pigs is the only one that allows for evaluation of occclusal plane?
A. Rostrocaudal
B. Oblique
C. DV

A

A. Rostrocaudal

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145
Q

Regarding chinchilla eyes - What is true:

A - chinchillas do not have cones

B - cones density is higher in the lateral retina and blue cones were higher than red/green

C - cone density is higher in the central retina and red/green cones were higher than blue

A

C - cone density is higher in the central retina and red/green cones were higher than blue

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146
Q

In regards to rabbit anesthesia, which is FALSE:

A - Mainstream ETCO2 underestimated PaCO2 by ~13mmHg

B - Sidestream underestimated the PaCO2 by ~24mmHg at 12 breathes per minutes

C - Sidestream overestimated the PaCO2 by ~38mmHg at 20 breathes per minute

A

C - Sidestream overestimated the PaCO2 by ~38mmHg at 20 breathes per minute
True statements:
Mainstream ETCO2 underestimated PaCO2 by ~13mmHg
Sidestream underestimated the PaCO2 by ~24mmHg at 12 breathes per minutes
Sidestream UNDERestimated the PaCO2 by ~38mmHg at 20 breathes per minute

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147
Q

Based on a 2021 study in piglets,
What is the amount of time recommend to withhold food to avoid “unacceptable hypoglycemia“

A - 4H

B - 48H

C- 6H

A

A - 4H

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148
Q

Which statement is true regarding testing for Treponema?

A. The rapid plasma reagin card test is very specific
B. The venereal disease research lab test is a specific treponemal antigen test
C. The fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption test is not used anymore

A

A. The rapid plasma reagin card test is very specific

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149
Q

Regarding renal agenesis in rabbits which statement is FALSE

A. Associated with an autosomal recessive mutation
B. Incidence is high in Havana breed
C. Condition is only seen in males

A

C. is false - it’s seen in both sexes

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150
Q

Regarding E. Cuniculi, which statement is FALSE:

A. Excretion in urine can last up to 3 months after inoculation
B. Infection typically result in suppurative nephritis
C. Spores have a predilection for kidneys and brain/spine

A

B - nonsuppurative granulomatous is correct

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151
Q

At birth, which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in macropods?
A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Kidney

A

A) Liver

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152
Q

In hand reared macropods, it is important to determine how long the Joey has been separated from the dam, as they lose maternal immunoglobulins x weeks after separation
A) 1-3 weeks
B) 4-6 weeks
C) 6-8 weeks

A

B) 4-6 wks

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153
Q

Parturition in rabbits typically takes x time. Longer parturition was significantly associated with increased numbers of stillbirths:
A) 30 minutes
B) 60 minutes
C) 90 minutes

A

A) 30 min (guinea pigs too)

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154
Q

Which is an important potential source for bacterial pneumonia in hamsters?
A. Canines
B. Children
C. Contaminated bedding

A

B. Children (especially Streptococcal pneumonia)

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155
Q

Which is true regarding melanomas in hamsters?
A. They only occur in association with the flank glands
B. They are most common in Djungarian hamsters
C. They occur 10:1 in males can females

A

C. 10:1 in males
A - occur on flank glands and anywhere else; B - more common in Syrian hamsters

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156
Q

The most common inherited disease of rabbits is:
A) Maxillary brachygnathism
B) Congenital glaucoma
C) Cardiac septal defects (atrial, ventricular)

A

A) Maxillary brachygnathism

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157
Q

Congenital glaucoma is more common in:
A) Mini lops
B) Albinos
C) English Spot rabbits

A

B) albinos

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158
Q

In which procedure caliectasis should be expected ?

A. Excretory urography
B. Retrograde pyelography
C. Contrast cystography

A

B) Retrograde pyelography

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159
Q

Most struvite uroliths in ferrets are retrieved from the ___ whereas most cystine uroliths from the ___.

A

Bladder; urethra

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160
Q

Which statement is true regarding paraurethral cysts?

A. More common on ventral aspect of bladder
B. Cases in female are not reported
C. Appears to be frequently associated with adrenal glands disease

A

C. Adrenal gland disease

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161
Q

Besides a rabbit, what species group are suspected to be involved in the rabbit cestode (the cestodes that live in the small intestines of rabbits)life cycle?
A ) carnivores
B ) arthropods
C ) herbivores

A

B) Arthropods are intermediate (rabbits are primary in this case);
Rabbits are intermediate hosts (not primary as in this question) for tapeworms affecting carnivores

162
Q

Which statement is true about rectal papillomas?
A ) they are unrelated to the skin or oral papillomas
B ) they are most often malignant
C ) They are aggressive locally, and surgical resection is often not curative.

A

A ) they are unrelated to the skin or oral papillomas

163
Q

Which is false?
A ) the species of fungus that cause aflatoxicosis in rabbits are: Aspergillus flavus and A. parasiticus.
B ) Clinical signs of aflatoxicosis are: anorexia, dullness, and weight loss +/- jaundice
C ) Rabbits have one of the highest LD50 for aflatoxins when compared to other mammals.

A

C ) Rabbits have one of the highest LD50 for aflatoxins when compared to other mammals.
(Rabbits have the LOWEST LD50, so small amounts kill them more easily)

164
Q

Which is false?
A ) rabbit tracheal rings are incomplete on the ventral side
B ) Rabbit tracheal rings can have various levels of calcification
C ) Hyperextension of the head can dislodge the epiglottis and allow access to the trachea in rabbits.

A

A - incomplete on the dorsal side

165
Q

In rabbits, such as other species, severe upper respiratory disease tends to increase __ effort, whereas lower respiratory disease tends to increase __ effort.
A ) inspiratory, expiratory
B ) expiratory, inspiratory
C ) 42, 42

A

A) inspiratory, expiratory

166
Q

When collecting fluid or specimens from thoracic masses for diagnostic purposes from a rabbit, which of the following statements is correct?
A ) Submission of purulent material from thoracic abscesses for culture is highly rewarding.
B ) Certain culture techniques may enhance the isolation of Pasteurella multocida; therefore, consulting the reference laboratory for sample collection and handling instructions is recommended.
C ) Cytologic examination is not recommended for fluid collected by ultrasound-guided thoracocentesis.

A

B ) Certain culture techniques may enhance the isolation of Pasteurella multocida; therefore, consulting the reference laboratory for sample collection and handling instructions is recommended.

167
Q

In rabbit research models, and suspected in natural infections, obstruction of this part of the nasal cavity is an important requirement for establishment of a sinusitis?
A ) The ventral meatus
B ) The conchomaxillary cavity
C ) The ostium

A

C) The ostium

168
Q

Which is true?
A ) Fungal sinus disease in rabbits is common.
B ) In experimental models in rabbits, introduction of a fungal pathogen is usually enough to trigger a disease
C ) Fungal upper respiratory pathogens usually produce a granuloma in rabbits.

A

C) Fungal upper respiratory pathogens usually produce a granuloma in rabbits.

169
Q

In a rabbit with post-intubation tracheal stricture/stenosis, what is true?
A ) usually self limiting.
B ) the placement of a tracheal stent has been reported to be successful in treatment of the stenosis.
C ) It appears usually 45 to 60 days after intubation.

A

B ) the placement of a tracheal stent has been reported to be successful in treatment of the stenosis.
(Not self-limiting; appears 17-21 days after)

170
Q

Which of the following is not a method used to prevent tracheal stricture / stenosis when intubating a rabbit?
A ) Placement of a tube size 4- 5-mm internal diameter
B ) Avoid damaging the glottis when intubating
C ) Do not overinflate the cuff if a cuffed tube is used.

A

A ) Placement of a tube size 4- 5-mm internal diameter

171
Q

Which of these miscellaneous upper respiratory track diseases have been reported in rabbits?
A ) laryngeal paralysis
B ) collapsing trachea
C ) both

A

C) Both

172
Q

According to a recent study (JEPM), reference intervals for lactate measurements in GP are closer to which species?

A. Rabbits
B. Cats and dogs
C. Human

A

B) Cats and dogs

173
Q

Regarding a recent study on marcrodonts in GP which statement is FALSE:

A. Mandibular incisors were frequently affected
B. First and second premolars in all quadrants were the most common affected CT
C. Most macrodonts show structural loss and expansion

A

B. First and second premolars in all quadrants were the most common affected CT (it’s the last 2)

174
Q

Which of the following hamsters are not from the genus Phodopus?
A) Winter white
B) Chinese
C) Campbell’s

A

B) Chinese - genus Cricetus

175
Q

Which is false?
A ) GnRH implants decrease male rabbit fertility
B ) GnRH implants prevent ovarian activity in female rabbits
C ) GnRH implants do not prevent uterine disorders in the rabbit

A

A ) GnRH implants decrease male rabbit fertility

176
Q

In which of the following rabbit breeds of rabbits is the risk of uterine adenocarcinoma highest?
A ) Dutch
B ) English spot
C ) French lop

A

A) Dutch (also tan, silver french and Havana)

177
Q

Of the following factors, which is the most important in the risk of developing uterine adenocarcinoma in rabbits?
A ) Breed
B ) Age
C ) Breeding history

A

B) Age

178
Q

What percentage of rabbits with uterine adenocarcinoma develop serosanguinous vaginal discharge?
A ) 17%
B ) 37%
C ) 57%

A

A) 17%

179
Q

How many pathways of developing uterine adenocarcinoma in rabbits are suspected?
A ) 1
B ) 2
C ) 3

A

B) 2
Tubular/solid and papillary. Papillary are negative for estrogen and progrestrone receptors and infiltrates the myometrium and causes thinning. Tubular/solid were positive for either 1 or both estrogen or progesterone and they invade the myometrium but do not cause thinning.

180
Q

In treatment of early rabbit uterine adenocarcinoma, what is false?
A ) Chemotherapy is useful if metastatic disease is present
B ) pets should be reexamined every 3-6 months for 1- 2 years after OHE to look for metastasis.
C ) OHE before visible metastatic disease have a survival time greater than 22 months.

A

A) Chemo is useful if mets present

181
Q

In a study of rabbit does treated with deslorelin implant to suppress ovarian function, how many developed endometritis?
A ) 2 / 13
B ) 7 / 13
C ) 12 / 13

A

B) 7/13 (~50%)

182
Q

In rabbit does pyometra, which species of bacteria is not a main bacteria?
A ) pasteurella spp
B ) staphylococcus spp
C ) actinomyces spp

A

C) Actinomyces spp

183
Q

In pregnant rabbits, a urine pH of 5 - 6 is suggestive of what disease?
A ) pregnancy toxemia
B ) dystocia
C ) abdominal pregnancy (ectopic pregnancy)

A

A) pregnancy toxemia

184
Q

What is the prognosis of pregnancy toxemia in rabbits?
A ) fair
B ) poor
C ) grave

A

C) grave

185
Q

During delivery, the sugar glider Joey passes through which portion of the vaginal apparatus?:
A) Median vagina
B) Right lateral vagina
C) Left lateral vagina

A

A) median vagina

186
Q

What 2 features of other marsupial groups is absent in sugar gliders?

A

Sugar gliders lack epipubic bones (aka marsupial bones) and there is no evidence of embryonic diapause

187
Q

What is the most common litter size in sugar gliders?:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3

A

B) 2 (can have up to 3; have 4 teats)

188
Q

What pathogen is believed to cause Sugar Glider “ick”?:
A) Candida spp
B) Staphylococcus spp
C) Simplicimonas spp

A

C) Simplicimonas spp

189
Q

Which of the following was NOT an observed side effect of sedation with Detomidine OTM gel in ferrets?:
A) Piloerection on the tail
B) Second degree AV block
C) hypoglycaemia

A

C) Hypoglycemia

190
Q

According to a JEPM study, what was the most common clinical sign associated with LSA in rats:

A - respiratory disease

B- lymphadenopathy

C- dermatological disease

A

A - respiratory disease

191
Q

Which exotic companion mammal species has the lowest relative anesthetic-related risk of death?:
A) Rabbits
B)Ferrets
C) Mice

A

B) ferrets (0.33% risk)

192
Q

The easiest vein for venous access and catheterization in a mini pig is:
A) Auricular vein
B) Cephalic vein
C) Subcutaneous abdominal vein

A

A) Auricular vein

193
Q

Which of the following is FALSE when comparing Midazolam with Diazepam:
A) it has a quicker onset
B) it has a longer duration of action
C) it has a higher potency

A

B) is false. Diazepam has a longer duration of action

194
Q

Why does Flumazenil often have to be redosed?
A) It is not very effective at reversing benzos
B) It is often underdosed in practice
C) It has a shorter half-life than benzos

A

C) shorter half life

195
Q

What receptors do Benzos act on?
A) NDMA
B) GABA
C) Dopamine

A

B) Gaba

196
Q

So apparently this article was on the exam last year (from a friend who took the exam and recognized her article !!) According to a 2022 study (JEPM) on measurement of blood glucose concentration in ferrets, which statement is true :

A. Glucose values obtained with the PBGM and the reference analyzer were not in agreement however the variation was predictable. Important clinical error would have occurred in 1% of cases with the PBGM.
B. Glucose values obtained with the PBGM and the reference analyzer were not in agreement however the variation was unpredictable. Important clinical error would have occurred in 25% of cases with the PBGM.
C. Glucose values obtained with the PBGM and the reference analyzer were not in agreement however the variation was unpredictable. Important clinical error would have occurred in 1% of cases with the PBGM.

A

C. Glucose values obtained with the PBGM and the reference analyzer were not in agreement however the variation was unpredictable. Important clinical error would have occurred in 1% of cases with the PBGM.

197
Q

According to a study (JEPM), ferrets with lymphoma are more likely to have which kind of red blood cell morphologies ?

A. Keratinocytes and schizocytes
B. Keratinocytes and acanthocytes
C. Acanthocytes and schizocytes

A

C. Acanthocytes and schizocytes

198
Q

In rabbits, what appears to be a treatment for hypervitaminosis A?
A ) ACE inhibitors
B ) Doxycycline
C ) Vitamin E

A

C) Vitamin E (So if high can also cause vitamin A deficiency)

199
Q

2019 again According to a case series (JEPM 2019) on Pseudomonas luteola in ferrets, which statement is true:

A. With the appropriate antibiotic therapy based on culture and sensitivity, the prognosis is very good
B. Pseudomonas luteola is small, oval to round, rod-like bacteria with a nonstaining capsule
C. Conjunctivitis and sinusitis are the most common CS reported

A

B. Pseudomonas luteola is small, oval to round, rod-like bacteria with a nonstaining capsule

200
Q

In regards to cryptorchid rabbits, which statement is false?
A ) cryptorchid rabbits are non-sexual
B ) Rabbit testicles begin to descend by week 12.
C ) Officially, the rabbit is cryptorchid after 16 weeks and no testicle descending.

A

A) is false - they retain sexual behaviors

201
Q

Which statement is false about Treponema paraluiscuniculi in rabbits?
A ) Autoinfection is the cause for facial lesions
B ) It can be zoonotic
C ) Silver stain is required on a biopsy

A

B) it’s not zoonotic

202
Q

A primiparous female intact rabbit presents with an enlarged and discolored teat. A biopsy of the teat shows a dysplastic change of the mammary tissue. What is your primary suspicious cause?
A ) uterine adenocarcinoma
B ) mammary adenocarcinoma
C ) pituitary adenoma

A

C) pituitary adenoma

203
Q

Which of these renal diseases is least likely to be found in a rabbit younger than 10 months?
A ) Renal fibrosis
B ) Renal abscess
C ) Pyelonephritis

A

A) renal fibrosis

204
Q

Which of the following sign is least effective at diagnosing rabbit chronic renal failure?
A ) isosthenuria
B ) high crea
C ) high BUN

A

A) Isosthenuria

205
Q

When using UPCR in rabbits, what else should you know?
A. E. cuniculi titer
B. Serum Crea
C. Age

A

A. E cuniculi titers - b/c our “normal” UPCR is based on e cuniculi seronegative rabbits… So who knows what a seropositive level is if normal

206
Q

What was the effect of SQ Methadone at 0.5 mg/kg, 1 mg/kg, and 1.5 mg/kg in hedgehogs?:
A) All 3 doses provided 2 or more hours of antinociception with minimal side effects
B) Only 1.5 mg/dose provided antinociception with minimal side effects
C) Only 1 mg/kg and 1.5 mg provided <2 hours of antinociception, but transient behavioural effects were noted in all hedgehogs

A

C) Only 1 mg/kg and 1.5 mg provided <2 hours of antinociception, but transient behavioural effects were noted in all hedgehogs

207
Q

Nosematosis is an older than for what common disease?
A ) E cuniculi in rabbits
B ) pasteurella in rabbits
C ) corona virus in ferrets?

A

A ) E cuniculi in rabbit

208
Q

What happens at the end stage of ulcerative pododermatitis in rabbits ?

A. Lateral luxation of the superficial digital flexor tendon
B. Medial luxation of the superficial digital flexor tendon
C. Lateral luxation of the deep digital flexor tendon

A

B. Medial luxation of the superficial digital flexor tendon

209
Q

The most effective treatment for ulcerative dermatitis in rats and mice is:
A) triple antibiotic ointment
B) laser therapy
C) nail trimming

A

C) nail trimming

210
Q

In a retrospective study (JEPM) comparing OHE/ovariectomy via the flank approach or the ventral midline approach in rats, which statement is true:

A. Complications were significantly higher in rats what underwent the procedure via the ventral midline approach

B. Complications were significantly higher in rats older than 18 month old

C. Complications did not differ between surgical approaches, and any other factors (age, weight or surgeon experience)

A

C. Complications did not differ between surgical approaches, and any other factors (age, weight or surgeon experience)

211
Q

According to a study evaluation the benefits of placing deslorelin implant in rats following mammary tumor removal which statement is true (recent conf):

A. Deslorelin implant administration was associated with a decreased risk of developing subsequent mammary tumors

B. Deslorelin implant administration was NOT associated with a decreased risk of developing subsequent mammary tumors

C. Deslorelin implant administration was associated with an increased survival time

A

B. Deslorelin implant administration was NOT associated with a decreased risk of developing subsequent mammary tumors

212
Q

According to a study on PECALBO in rabbits in JSAP which statement is FALSE:

A. 65% of rabbits developed at least one complication
B. Overall the prognosis is guarded with only 25% of rabbits showing complete resolution of CS
C. 25% of rabbits died of causes related to otitis or to the surgery

A

B. Overall the prognosis is guarded with only 25% of rabbits showing complete resolution of CS (they conclude that the px is good to excellent with 75% of cases doing well)

213
Q

According to a study on urolithiasis in rabbits presented to a referral centre, which statement is TRUE

A. Rabbits with urolithiasis that underwent imaging were associated with increasing plasma calcium concentration and referral centre

B. Rabbits with urolithiasis that underwent imaging were associated with increasing plasma phosphorus concentration and referral centre

C. Rabbits with urolithiasis that underwent imaging were not associated with any biochemistry abnormalities

A

A. Rabbits with urolithiasis that underwent imaging were associated with increasing plasma calcium concentration and referral centre

214
Q

What is the correct lymphocyte to heterophil ratio in gerbils?

A - 3:1 L:H

B - 6:1 L:H

C- 9:1 L:H

A

B - 6:1 L:H

215
Q

Okay, easy question. What is the primary pathological lesion of pododermatitis in rabbits:
A ) Lymphocytic dermatitis
B ) Avascular necrosis
C ) Ulcerative dermatitis with Pseudomonas infection

A

B) Avascular necrosis
C = primary lesion of moist dermatitis

216
Q

In rabbits normal movement physiology seems to be the main pathogenesis of rabbits pododermatitis?
A ) the nails cannot dig into ground
B ) the rabbit increased weight on the hock
C ) the rabbit distributing more weight into the metatarsals

A

A is right. Essentially since the nails dig into the ground, the SDF shifts the weight to the toes and away from the hock, on hard surfaces the toes cannot dig into ground and thus the hock hits the ground during motion. Even in overweight rabbits if the SDF is working correctly the hock won’t hit the ground during motion meaning they shouldn’t be developing hock sores

217
Q

In rabbit syphilis, serological conversion takes _ weeks and lesions can develop _ weeks after infection.
A ) 3 - 4, 3 - 6
B ) 8 - 12, 3 - 6
C ) 3 - 4, 1 - 2

A

B) 8-12, 3-6

218
Q

Which statement is false?
A ) Necrobacillosis in rabbits must be anaerobic cultures
B ) Cytological examination of the organism of Necrobacillosis in rabbits shows long, filamentous rod shaped bacteria
C ) penicillin is not effective at treating necrobacillosis

A

C ) penicillin is not effective at treating necrobacillosis

219
Q

Which statement is false?
A ) pet rabbits and lab rabbits seem to be infected by the same species that commonly cause dermatophytosis.
B ) Indoor and outdoor rabbits have different species that commonly cause dermatophytosis.
C ) Young rabbits are more suspectable to dermatophytosis due to low levels of fungi-static fatty acids in their sebum.

A

A ) pet rabbits and lab rabbits seem to be infected by the same species that commonly cause dermatophytosis.
Pet is M. canis/gypseum; Lab/wild - Trichophyton mentographytes

220
Q

In a retrospective study of coxofemoral luxation in rabbits, most luxations were:
A) Craniodorsal
B) Caudoventral
C) Cranioventral

A

A) Craniodorsal

221
Q

In rabbits, cervicofacial cellulitis carries what prognosis?
A ) fair
B ) poor
C ) grave

A

C) grave

222
Q

In recent study, what percentage of hamster disease was undiagnosed?
A ) 7.3%
B ) 10.4%
C ) 11.3 %

A

A) 7.3%

223
Q

What percentage of drug doses cited in formularies are from primary sources?
A ) 21.7%
B ) 39.2%
C ) 52.4%

A

B) 39.2%

224
Q

What was the most common clinical sign of cardiac disease in guinea pigs?
A) Lethargy
B) Dyspnea
C) Anorexia

A

B) dyspnea

225
Q

What is a reported complication of femoral condylar fracture fixation using a screw in rabbits?
A ) Femoral fracture
B ) Patella fracture
C ) Luxation of the stifle

A

A) Femoral fracture

226
Q

In a retrospective study of hedgehogs with a histological diagnosis of WHS, what % were subclinical, with no antemortem neuro signs?:
A) 16%
B) 31%
C) 44%

A

B) 31%

227
Q

In guinea pigs, for each decrease in 0.55C of rectal temperature upon admission, what was the increase in the odds ratio of death?
A )0.6 times
B ) 1.6 times
C ) 2.6 times

A

B) 1.6 times

228
Q

Hypothermic guineas (upon admission) where how many times more likely to die within 7 day?
A ) 3 times
B ) 7 times
C ) 10 times

A

A) 3 times

229
Q

Ureteral stenting in rabbits for ureteroliths provides what type of solution?
A ) short term
B ) long term
C ) curative

A

A) short term - they all encrusted then reobstructed later (in 1 case, 1 month later)

230
Q

Which dose of metronidazole benzoate in chinchilla resulted in less pronounced appetite suppression?
A ) 20 mg /kg
B ) 10 mg/kg
C ) 5 mg/kg

A

B) 10 mg/kg

231
Q

In a retrospective study of rabbits that were treated surgically for small intestinal obstruction, what factor affected prognosis :
A) Age
B) Presense of full thickness GI wall injury
C)Previous small intestinal obstruction

A

A) age

232
Q

Which species is prone to diabetic cataracts?
A) Cricetulus griseus
B) Phodopus songurus
C) Mesocrecitus auratus

A

A) Cricetulus griseus (Chinese hamster)

233
Q

What is the most likely underlying cause of lymphoma in a young hamster (especially if littermates affected)?
A) Murine leukemia virus
B) Hamster polyomavirus
C) Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus

A

B) Hamster polyomavirus

234
Q

Which breed was over-represented in a retrospective study of odontogenic abscesses?
A) Mini Rex
B) Lion head
C) Mini lop

A

C) Mini lop

235
Q

In a retrospective study of rabbit odontogenic abscesses, which quadrants were most commonly affected?
A) Maxillary
B) Mandibular
C) Both equally

A

B) Mandibular

236
Q

In a retrospective study of rabbit odontogenic abscesses, which aerobic bacteria was most commonly cultured from the odontogenic abscesses?
A) Streptococcus spp
B) Staphylococcus app
C) Pasteurella app

A

A) Streptococcus spp

237
Q

In rabbits with coxofemoral luxation, how effective was an Ehmer sling, closed reduction and cage rest?
A ) 1 out of 5
B ) 2 out of 5
C ) 5 out of 5

A

B ) 2 out of 5

238
Q

In rabbits with simulated ruptured TM, what is the most significant thing that happens when you apply Enrofloxacin -Silver Sulfadiazine emulsion?
A ) nothing significant
B ) minor inflammation
C ) ototoxic

A

C) Ototoxic

239
Q

When using Doppler to examine the peristaltic waves in a rabbit, what is false?
A ) Pulse Wave Doppler and B mode Doppler were in agreement
B ) The cecum had consistent measurable waves
C ) Sedation and conscious measurement where in agreement

A

B ) The cecum had consistent measurable waves

240
Q

With regards to rabbits and maropitant, what is false?
A ) IV and SQ produced similar plasma concentration 24 hours later
B ) 1 mg/kg produced similar plasma concentration to dogs
C ) the use of maropitant did not produce any changes in the GI tract

A

C) is false - it produced an increased fecal output

241
Q

In naked mole rats, which is false?
A ) alfaxalone-ketamine-dexmedetomidine was an effective method to sedate
B ) alfaxalone-butorphanol-midazolam was an effective method to sedate
C ) alfaxalone-butorphanol-midazolam produced a more consistent anesthesia

A

C) AKD (not ABM) produced more consistent anesthesia

242
Q

What is the disk-shaped protuberance at the base of the spine in hedgehogs called?
A) Spinous process
B) Basal bulb
C) Spinous bulb

A

B) basal bulb

243
Q

What is the most common dermatophyte reported in captive hedgehogs?
A) Trichophyton erinacei
B) Microsporum canis
C) Trichophyton verrucosum

A

A) Trichophyton erinacei

244
Q

“Foot rot” which is a disease in ferrets that causes the feet to be swollen and painful and the claws to be dystrophic before falling off is related to what ectoparasite?

A - Scabies

B - Atypical Otodectes

C - Localized Demodex

A

A - Scabies

245
Q

What pheromone is excreted from the chin of a dominate rabbit’s chin?

A - 2-methybut-2-enal

B - yeah, couldn’t think of a 3rd option

C - 2-phenoxyethanol

A

C) 2-phenoxyethanol
A) is the pheromone that attracts kits when doe is lactating

246
Q

Which statement regarding granular cell tumours in rabbits was FALSE based on a retrospective of tumours submitted to a pathology service:
A) 87% of testicular tumours were granular cell tumours
B) Metastasis was commonly reported
C) Median survival time was 599 days

A

B is false - mets uncommon

247
Q

What skin neoplasia is frequently reported in male Syrian Hamster? What is the striking M:F ratio ?

A

Melanoma; 10:1

248
Q

In a retrospective study published in JEPM of rabbits presented to a referral centre, which body system was most commonly affected?
A) Integumentary
B) Digestive
C) Genitourinary

A

A) Integumentary
(then digestive)

249
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding S. cuniculi in rabbits?

A - the life cycle is affected by the cycle of the doe

B - the flea spends the majority of the time on the caudodorsum

C - S. cuniculi can transmit tularemia

A

B is false. They live on the head and pinna

250
Q

What is unique about the rat coronary blood supply?

A

It’s extracoronary, arising from the subclavian and internal mammary arteries

251
Q

What should we remember about the chinchilla coronary blood supply?

A

While previously reported to NOT have a right coronary artery, a 2022 study found that is incorrect and 30/30 subjects did have both right and left coronary artery - however this paper isn’t in our reading, so remember reports that they don’t

252
Q

What is the most commonly affected portion of the brain in rabbits naturally infected with ECUN according to a histologic study mentioned in FRR?

A - leptomeninges

B - cerebellum

C - cerebrum

A

C
Cerebrum –> leptomeniges –> vestibular core –> cerebellum

253
Q

Which of the follow is PCR the most reliable for in detecting ECUN?

A - urine

B - lens post phaco

C - CSF

A

B - lens post phaco

254
Q

Which of the following biochemical markers is seen in rabbits with Floppy Rabbit Syndrome?

A - normal CK

B - low CK

C - high CK

A

C - high CK
(remember it’s normal in DIM in ferrets)

255
Q

What agent is most susceptible to cause a rectal prolapse in a hamster? And in a mouse?

A

Lawsonia intracellularis
Helicobacter

256
Q

Which statement is false?
A ) Cheyletiela infection in rabbits are predominantly found on the dorsal neck and trunk
B ) Lyme dips are not effective at treating Cheyletiela
C ) all in-contact dogs, cats, and rabbits should also be treated

A

B is false; lyme dips are effective

257
Q

Regarding castration techniques in degus, what finding was TRUE when prescrotal and scrotal techniques were compared?:
A) scrotal technique showed significantly more peri surgical complications than prescrotal
B) Prescrotal technique was significantly faster than scrotal
C) Prescrotal was associated with higher post surgical pain scores

A

B is true

258
Q

3YO Rabbit that likes to chew on the baseboards and old figurines in the garage is presenting with anemia and see pictures. The rabbit may have ____ and the picture is showing _

A - lead toxicity, reticulocytes

B - fipronil toxicity, basophilic stippling

C - lead toxicity, basophilic stippling

A

C - lead, basophilic stippling

259
Q

Which little rodent friend has an intermediate lung lobe?

A - Guinea pig

B- Hamster

C- Gerbil

A

B - hamster

260
Q

Which species have a single L lung lobe?

A

Hamsters, gerbils, rats, mice

261
Q

What lobes does the right lung in the hamster have?

A

Cranial, middle, caudal, intermediate, accessory

262
Q

What lobes does the right lung in hystricomorphs, gerbils, rats and mice have?

A

Cranial, middle, caudal, accessory

263
Q

Venipuncture from the tail of mice could lead to changes in:

A - MCV & HGB

B- PCV & MCV

C - HCT and HGB

A

C - HCT/HGB

264
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperglycemia and glucosuria in chinchillas?

A - Diabetes mellitus

B - Renal disease

C - Hepatic lipidosis

A

C - hepatic lipidosis

265
Q

In a study of the use of a 5-point BCS (Size-o-meter) for rabbits, what % of owners assigned the same score as the veterinarian?
A) 44%
B) 64%
C) 84%

A

B) 64%

266
Q

In a study evaluating the potential of non-thyroidal illness syndrome in rabbits, which statement is TRUE:
A) Mean values of total and free T4 were unaffected by the rabbit’s health state
B) Free and total T4 alone are sufficient to diagnose hypothyroidism in rabbits
C) Both T4 and Free T4 decreased by a similar degree in sick rabbits

A

C) Both total T4 and free T4 decreased by a similar degree in sick rabbits

267
Q

What is the most likely dx for a chinchilla presented with a fast growing cervical mass and conjunctivitis?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Streptococcus equi subs zooepidemicus
C) Fusobacterium necrophorum

A

B) Streptococcus equi subs zooepidemicus

268
Q

What is the most likely dx for a chinchilla presented with rhinitis and conjunctivitis?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Streptococcus equi subs zooepidemicus
C) Fusobacterium necrophorum

A

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

269
Q

What statement is TRUE about Leporacarus gibbus infection in rabbits?
A ) Found only on wild rabbits
B ) Usually non-pathogenic
C ) They cannot spread to humans

A

B) usually non-pathogenic
But can cause signs but is attributed to underlying cause such as Cheyletiela

270
Q

In rabbits fleas (Spilopsyllus cuniculi), what seems to impact the life cycle?
A ) light cycle
B ) hormone cycle of the does
C ) temperature

A

B) hormone cycle

271
Q

What is the prognosis for hedgehogs w/severe enteritis due to salmonellosis?

A

Poor, consider euthanasia (welfare and concern of dz transmission to other animals and humans)

272
Q

What is a risk of treating hedgehogs affected by salmonella with systemic antibiotics?

A

Creating a carrier status w/long-term shedding of the bacteria

273
Q

If antibiotics are elected, which of the following is NOT a good choice for hedgehogs with confirmed salmonella, before c/s results are back?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Enrofloxacin
C) Chloramphenicol

A

C) Chloramphenicol
(Amoxi/ampi, fluoroquinolones, tetracyclines, erythro/clinda/strepto/gentamicin, TMS on OK list)

274
Q

Which flea treatment should you avoid in rabbits?
A ) lufenuron
B ) selamectin
C ) fipronil

A

C) fipronil

275
Q

In rabbits, what flea treatment appears to be only effective for 7 days?
A ) lufenuron
B ) selamectin
C ) fluralaner

A

B ) Selamectin

276
Q

Regarding a study on rabbits comparing tracheal damage secondary to blind or endoscopic-assisted orotracheal intubation, which statement is true:

A. Blind technique was associated with more significant laryngeal/tracheal damage and a higher number of attempts.

B. Both orotracheal intubation techniques were associated with laryngeal/tracheal damage. Although blind orotracheal intubation was associated with a higher number of attempts, the tissue damage was similar between groups.

C. Endoscopic-assisted technique was associated with more significant laryngeal/tracheal damage and a higher number of attempts.

A

B. Both orotracheal intubation techniques were associated with laryngeal/tracheal damage. Although blind orotracheal intubation was associated with a higher number of attempts, the tissue damage was similar between groups.

277
Q

According to a recent study (JEPM 2024), transfusion between ferrets should be preferred but if not possible, what is recommended?

A. Xenotransfusion with crossmatched-compatible feline packed RBC can be considered.

B. Xenotransfusion with crossmatched-compatible canine packed RBC can be considered.

C. Xenotransfusion with crossmatched-compatible canine whole blood can be considered.

A

B. Xenotransfusion with crossmatched-compatible canine packed RBC can be considered.

278
Q

Dacryocystography is a radiologic technique which uses iodinated contrast medium, with the aim to:
A ) resolve the subocclusion of the nasolacrimal duct
B ) visualize the nasolacrimal duct and related abnormalities
C ) prepare the extraction of incisor teeth
D ) diagnose urinary disorders concurrent with dental disease

A

B ) visualize the nasolacrimal duct and related abnormalities

279
Q

Oral tumors have been reported in the pet rabbits by Miwa et Al 2019. Which was the most commonly reported tumor type in this retrospective study?
A ) lymphoma
B ) basal cell carcinoma
C ) squamous cell carcinoma
D ) malignant melanoma

A

C) squamous cell carcinoma

280
Q

Which of the following can be seen with T caviae in GP?

A - heterophila

B - monocytosis

C- basophilia

A

B - monocytosis

281
Q

Which virus is NOT a DNA virus?

A - LCM

B- Myxomatosis

C- rabbit papilloma virus

A

A - LCM

282
Q

If you cannot place a rabbit in lateral recumbency to test the patella reflex due to increased anxiety, you should:
A ) don’t do it as it is not worth the test to stress the rabbit
B ) test the patella reflex while the rabbit is being held in sternal positioning in the assistant’s arm
C ) give low level midazolam to reduce the anxiety but not demish the reflexes

A

B ) test the patella reflex while the rabbit is being held in sternal positioning in the assistant’s arm

283
Q

Which stain is more reliable at detecting e cuniculi spores?
A ) gram stain
B ) ZN stain
C ) acid-fast trichome

A

B) ZN stain

284
Q

Which statement is false?
A ) most rabbits with e. cuniculi develop a chronic host/parasite relationship
B ) a healthy immune system in a rabbit will stop e cuniculi from replicating, but the spores remain viable
C ) Histological inflammatory lesions correspond to clinical signs in rabbits with e cuniculi

A

C ) Histological inflammatory lesions correspond to clinical signs in rabbits with e cuniculi

285
Q

Which disinfectant are effective at destroying e cuniculi spores?
A ) quaternary ammonium compounds
B ) alcohol
C ) both

A

C) both (most are effective at destroying the spores)

286
Q

Most common clinical sign of toxoplasmosis in rabbits is:
A ) ataxia
B ) posterior paresis
C ) none - subclinical

A

C) none - subclinical

287
Q

Between 1971 and 1997, how many cases of rabies in rabbits were reported to the US CDC?
A ) 0
B ) 30
D ) 150

A

B) 30

288
Q

What is the most common variant of rabies in states where rabies was diagnosed in pet rabbits?
A ) raccoon variant
B ) bat variant
C ) canine variant

A

A) Raccoon variant

289
Q

Where is the most common vertebral fracture in rabbits?
A ) S1-S2
B ) L6-L7
C ) L2-L3

A

B) L6-7

290
Q

Which condition is a common sequelae to rabbit back injuries?
A ) decubitus ulcers
B ) renal insufficiency
C ) increase deep pain

A

A) decubitus ulcers

291
Q

The rabbit is a _ species in the traditional Chinese veterinary medicine?
A) yin
B ) yang
C ) both

A

A) yin

292
Q

Which of the following statements are false?
A ) splay leg in rabbits causes flattening and reduction of the femoral head, subluxation of the hip, valgus deformity, and patellar luxation.
B ) there is no way to reverse splay leg deformities in rabbits
C ) there is a suspected genetic component to rabbit splay leg syndrome

A

B ) there is no way to reverse splay leg deformities in rabbits (can correct w/bandages and env’t if caught early enough)

293
Q

Rabbit lead toxicity:
A ) causes disturbances in the biochemistry of a rabbit
B ) is not detected using blood lead concentrations
C ) usually causes anemia with reticulocytes

A

C) causes anemia w/reticulocytes

294
Q

The treatment for fipronil toxicity is:
A ) bath with shampoo
B ) iv lipid emulsion
C ) no treatment - just supportive care and poor prognosis

A

A) Bath w/shampoo

295
Q

According to a recent study, what was the most common cause of orofacial masses in rabbits?

A - Abscesses

B - Neoplasia

C - Other diagnoses including cysts, as well as hyperplastic skin and proliferative bone lesions

A

B) Neoplasia
(but this was a histopath study - how many vets were sending in abscesses for histopath?!)

296
Q

Hydrocephalus in rabbit kits is suspected to be due to:
A ) vitamin E deficiency in the doe
B ) vitamins A deficiency in the doe
C ) Vitamin D deficiency in the doe

A

B) Vit A deficiency in the doe

297
Q

What is hypersplenism in ferrets?

A

Splenomegaly WITH increased removal of platelets and/or other blood cells by the spleen

298
Q

A study using cyclophosphamide in rabbits found that:
A ) when e cuniculi is introduced, all rabbits die within 6 weeks suggestive that a subclinical infection could be fatal.
B ) cyclophosphamide did not produce immunosuppression in rabbits.
C ) both

A

A ) when e cuniculi is introduced, all rabbits die within 6 weeks suggestive that a subclinical infection could be fatal.

299
Q

Which is false?
A ) daunorubin in rabbits is cardiotoxic but doxorubicin is not
B ) Only doxorubicin manifested as aplastic anemia in rabbits (not daunorubin)
C ) Doxorubicin had a higher mortality rate than daunorubin

A

B ) Only doxorubicin manifested as aplastic anemia in rabbits (not daunorubin)

300
Q

The rabbits’ nasal cavities have four turbinates (nasal conchae). Which turbinate has the most arboreal structure?
A )dorsal nasal concha
B )middle nasal concha
C )ventral nasal concha
D )3rd-4th endoturbinates

A

C) ventral nasal concha

301
Q

How many meatuses are present in between the four turbinates (nasal conchae) and the nasal septum?
A )four
B )two
C )three
D )one (the common meatus)

A

A) four

302
Q

Sinuses (empty spaces within pneumatic bones of the skull) and recesses (dead ends in between turbinates and skull bones) form the paranasal cavities. Rabbits have:
A )both sinuses and recesses
B )recesses only
C )sinuses only
D )rabbits lack paranasal cavities

A

C) sinuses only

303
Q

Which is the dedicated 3D volume rendering applied to CT scan with a DICOM viewer, aimed at optimizing evaluation of the air passages?
A )3D multiplanar
B )3D surface
C )basic
D )airways

A

D) Airways

304
Q

Rigid endoscopy through the natural opening of the nares can explore:
A) the common meatus only
B )all meatuses
C )the common and the dorsal meatus
D )the common and the ventral meatus

A

A) The common meatus only

305
Q

The surgical procedure of rhinostomy can be defined as:
A )the incision of a nasal cavity via an osteotomy
B )the incision of a paranasal cavity via an osteotomy
C )the incision of a nasal cavity via an ostectomy, followed by postoperative opening of the nasal cavity
D )the incision of a paranasal cavity via an ostectomy, followed by postoperative opening of the paranasal cavity

A

C )the incision of a nasal cavity via an ostectomy, followed by postoperative opening of the nasal cavity

306
Q

The surgical approach to the maxillary recess only (a pararhino[s]tomy) is:
A )dorsal
B ) lateral
C ) ventral
D )rostral

A

B) lateral

307
Q

Which of the following procedure does not represent an indication for rhinostomy in pet rabbits?
A )improve the patency of diseased nasal cavities and air passage
B )flush, clean, and administer local postoperative medication in case of chronic rhinitis
C )detailed endoscopic inspection and biopsy
D )the surgical treatment of the alveolar bulla

A

D) the surgical treatment of the alveolar bulla

308
Q

The surgical approach for unilateral rhinostomy is:
A )dorsal and median over the midline
B )lateral, through the maxillary recess
C )dorsal and paramedian, over the midline of the selected nasal cavity
D )ventral, through the hard palate

A

C) dorsal and paramedian, over the midline of the selected nasal cavity

309
Q

In respect to the ear pinna, the auricular artery is positioned:
A)about along the midline
B )along the cranial margin
C )along the caudal margin
D )at the base

A

A) about along the midline

310
Q

The [rabbit] ear canal is:
A )completely cartilaginous
B )almost completely cartilaginous, with a short tract within the petrous bone
C )completely bony
D )cartilaginous and bony

A

B) almost completely cartilaginous, with a short tract w/in the petrous bone

311
Q

The cartilage connecting the cartilaginous part of the ear canal with the bony acoustic meatus is:
A )the tragus
B )the tympanic membrane
C )the helix
D )the cartilage of the acoustic meatus (CAM)

A

D) the cartilage of the acoustic meatus (CAM)

312
Q

Which type of otitis commonly results in head tilt in rabbits?
A ) externa
B )media
C )interna
D )otitis from E. cuniculi

A

C) interna

313
Q

Which pathophysiology of otitis has not been reported in pet rabbits?
A) otitis media following otitis externa after rupture of the tympanic membrane
B ) otitis externa following otitis media after rupture of the tympanic membrane
C )otitis media from E. cuniculi
D )otitis media following rhinitis after extension through the Eustachian tubes

A

C )otitis media from E. cuniculi

314
Q

The most informative diagnostic imaging modality for visualization of the tympanic bullae is:
A )computed tomography
B )magnetic resonance
C )standard radiography
D )endoscopy

A

A) Computed tomography

315
Q

Which cartilage is surgically removed when performing a Lateral Ear Canal Resection (LECR)?
A) the cartilage of the acoustic meatus (CAM)
B )the tragus
C )the scapha
D )the helix

A

B) the tragus (?)

316
Q

Which cartilage is surgically removed in order to access the tympanic bulla during the LECR?
A) the tympanic membrane
B )the helix
C )the scutiformis cartilage
D )the cartilage of the acoustic meatus (CAM)

A

D )the cartilage of the acoustic meatus (CAM)

317
Q

When performing a Partial Ear Canal Resection (PECR):
A) the ear canal is completely removed
B )the tragus and the CAM are removed
C )the surgical approach is over the dilatation/empyema of the ear canal, and the tragus is partially removed
D )the tympanic bulla is surgically opened

A

C )the surgical approach is over the dilatation/empyema of the ear canal, and the tragus is partially removed

318
Q

A para-auricular abscess is:
A )an odontogenic abscess close to the ear canal
B )an abscess following rupture of the ear canal and/or of the tympanic bulla
C )an abscess of the Eustachian tube
D )an abscess of the tympanic bulla

A

B )an abscess following rupture of the ear canal and/or of the tympanic bulla

319
Q

Among the following complications, which is not reported after ear surgery?
A) head tilt
B )facial nerve palsy
C )ischemia and partial necrosis of the ear pinna
D )exophthalmos

A

D )exophthalmos

320
Q

The deep gland of the nictitating membrane is composed of:
A )two lobes: white dorsal and pink ventral
B )three lobes
C )a single lobe
D )two lobes: pink dorsal and white ventral

A

A) Two lobes: white dorsal and pink ventral

321
Q

The accessory lacrimal gland is composed of:
A) two lobes
B )three lobes
C )a single lobe
D )four lobes

A

B) three lobes

322
Q

Enucleation of the eye globe is the surgical procedure which involves:
A ) the transconjunctival removal of the eye globe only
B )the transpalpebral removal of the eye globe, nictitating membrane, most of the lids, and the orbital content
C )the transconjunctival removal of the eye globe, associated with removal of the nictitating membrane and the lid margin
D )the transpalpebral removal of the eye globe only

A

C )the transconjunctival removal of the eye globe, associated with removal of the nictitating membrane and the lid margin

323
Q

Exenteration of the eye globe is the surgical procedure which involves:
A )the transpalpebral removal of the eye globe only
B )the transconjunctival removal of the eye globe, associated with removal of the nictitating membrane and the lid margin
C )the transconjunctival removal of the eye globe only
D )the transpalpebral removal of the eye globe, the nictitating membrane, most of the lids, and the orbital content

A

D )the transpalpebral removal of the eye globe, the nictitating membrane, most of the lids, and the orbital content

324
Q

Of spontaneous testicular neoplasia in rabbits, which are most common:
A ) interstitial cell tumors
B ) seminomas
C ) Sertoli cell tumors

A

A) Interstitial cell tumors

325
Q

What has gynecomastia been reported to be associated with in rabbits?
A ) uterine adenocarcinoma
B ) testicular neoplasia
C ) pituitary neoplasia

A

B) testicular neoplasia

326
Q

What is the most common cutaneous neoplasia in rabbits?
A ) collagenous hamartoma
B ) myxosarcoma
C ) trichoblastoma

A

C) Trichoblastoma

327
Q

The most common indication for enucleation/exenteration of the eye globe in pet rabbits is:
A )severe trauma
B )panophthalmitis following an odontogenic retrobulbar abscess
C )uveitis following E. cuniculi
D )glaucoma

A

B) panophthalmitis following an odontogenic retrobulbar abscess

328
Q

What are of the following is NOT a part of the palatal osteum in GP, chinchillas, and degu?

A - tongue

B - palatalglossal arches

C - hard palate

A

C - hard palate
Palatal ostium = tongue, palatalglossal arches, soft palate

329
Q

Major cross match is:
A - : 2 drops of blood from donor to 1 drop serum recipient

B- 2 drops of plasma recipient to 1 drop blood donor

C - 2 drops of blood from the recipient to 1 drop plasma from donor

A

B) 2 drops of plasma from recipient with 1 drop of blood from donor - eval for agglutination (at room temp)

330
Q

If it must be done, which product is the preferred anti-septic for cleaning a wound?

A - povidone iodine 1%

B- chlorhexidine 0.05%

C - povidone iodine 0.05%

A

B - chlorhexidine 0.05% (longer residual activity)

331
Q

Which of the following is the best way to gauge if your rabbit is at an appropriate depth of anesthesia?

A- loss of palpebral

B- loss of forelimb toe pinch

C- loss of hindlimb toe pinch

A

C - loss of hindlimb toe pinch

332
Q

Which of the following is false regarding lactate?

A - higher lactate is associated with better prognosis in rabbits

B- D-lactate is measured in lactomers

C - Normal lactate of a ferret is 0.3-1.5 mmol/L

A

B) is false; L-lactate is measured

333
Q

Syrian hamster RBC lifespan is:

A - 10 days

B - 110 days

C- 57 days

A

C - 57 days (mouse is also about the same)

334
Q

Gerbil RBC lifespan is:
A - 10 days
B - 110 days
C - 57 days

A

A - 10 days

335
Q

Ferret is day 43 of gestation and is stable, you want to induce labor, what must be given first?

A - oxytocin

B- prostaglandin

C- glucose

A

B - prostaglandin (THEN oxytocin if still not in labor; prost. required to make oxytocin effective)

336
Q

Albino guinea pigs in labs are actually:
A ) albino
B ) Himalayan with homozygous recessive genes suppressing black and chocolate colors
C ) both

A

B ) Himalayan with homozygous recessive genes suppressing black and chocolate colors
(no true albinos in guinea pigs)

337
Q

If you have a crazy owner claiming their guinea pig had hair when born, but as they grew up it lost the hair. You have:
A ) a crazy owner
B ) a Baldwin guinea pig
C ) both?

A

B) a Baldwin guinea pig

338
Q

Which of these species are considered to be corticoid-resistant ?
A ) rabbits
B ) hamsters
C ) guinea pigs

A

C) guinea pigs (ferrets also)

339
Q

Which is correct according to FRR?
A ) the guinea pigs have two lungs. The right lung has 4 lobes (cranial, middle, caudal, accessory). The left has 3 lobes ( cranial, middle, and caudal).
B ) the guinea pigs have two lungs. The left lung has 4 lobes (cranial, middle, caudal, accessory). The right has 3 lobes ( cranial, middle, and caudal
C ) the guinea pigs have two lungs. The right lung and the left lung both have 4 lobes (cranial, middle, caudal, accessory).

A

A ) the guinea pigs have two lungs. The right lung has 4 lobes (cranial, middle, caudal, accessory). The left has 3 lobes ( cranial, middle, and caudal).

340
Q

What is the correct guinea pig dental formula?
A ) 2(1/1, 0/0, 2/3, 2/1)
B ) 2(1/1, 0/0, 3/3, 1/1)
C ) 2(1/1, 0/0, 1/1, 3/3)

A

C ) 2(1/1, 0/0, 1/1, 3/3)

341
Q

Which species of rodent have only glandular epithelium in the stomach?
A ) hamster
B ) rat
C ) guinea pig

A

C) guinea pig

342
Q

The guinea pig cecum accounts for how much of the GI content?
A ) 45%
B ) 65%
C ) 85%

A

B) 65%

343
Q

The guinea pig liver has:
A ) 4 lobes: right, medial, left, quadrate
B ) 5 lobes: right, medial, left, caudate, quadrate
C ) 6 lobes: right, medial, left lateral, left medial, caudate, quadrate

A

C ) 6 lobes: right, medial, left lateral, left medial, caudate, quadrate

344
Q

The guinea pig and rabbit GI tract are primarily:
A ) gram-positive, anaerobic
B ) gram-negative, anaerobic
C ) gram-negative, aerobic

A

A ) gram-positive, anaerobic

345
Q

What is the intromittent sac in guinea pigs?
A ) the pouch caudoventral to the urethral opening
B ) the pouch caudodorsal to the urethral opening
C ) the pouch lateral to the penis that forms the space between the penis and the prepuce

A

A ) the pouch caudoventral to the urethral opening

346
Q

What gram-negative bacteria causes purulent bronchopneumonia, consolidated lung lobe(s) and fibrinosuppurative pleuritis in guinea pigs?
A ) Streptococcus pneumonia
B ) Bordetella bronchispetica
C ) Streptococcus equi subspecies zooepidemicus

A

B) Bordetella bronchiseptica

347
Q

What bacteria causes bronchopneumonia, pericarditis and fibrinopurulent pleuritis in guinea pigs?
A ) Streptococcus pneumonia
B ) Bordetella bronchispetica
C ) Streptococcus equi subspecies zooepidemicus

A

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

348
Q

Which bacteria are the most commonly isolated bacteria in guinea pig pyometra?
A ) Bordetella and Streptococcus
B ) E. Coli and Corynebacterium
C ) Bordetella and Staphylococcus

A

A ) Bordetella and Streptococcus

349
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a :

A) Gram negative lacking a cell wall
B) Gram positive lacking a cell wall
C) Gram positive with a cell wall

A

A) Gram negative lacking a cell wall

350
Q

Mice are susceptible to Sendai virus infection. What classical lesion can be seen ?

A. Bronchiolectasis
B. Necrotizing bronchiolitis
C. Fibrinopurulent fibrosis

A

B. Necrotizing bronchiolitis
(C is Corynebacterium kutsheri)

351
Q

In a group of mice, adults are suddenly in acute mild resp distress and neonates are dying. What is the most likely dx and how do you test ?

A. Mycoplasma pulmonis - serology
B. Sendai virus - serology or PCR
C. Pneumonia virus of mice - serology

A

B. Sendai virus - serology or PCR

352
Q

What is a cause of guinea pig dystocia?
A ) ossification of the pubic symphysis
B ) large pup size
C ) both

A

B) Large pup size

353
Q

In a study evaluating whether prolonged storage at different temperatures affected CBC parameters, which was the only parameter that was stable after 72 hours at 21C?:
A) Hematocrit
B) Mean corpuscular volume
C) WBC

A

C) WBC

354
Q

In guinea pigs, which statement is false?
A ) mammary gland neoplasms are more common in males
B ) male mammary gland neoplasms are most often adenomas or fibroadenoma
C ) Mammary gland neoplasms can produce serous or bloody discharge.

A

B ) male mammary gland neoplasms are most often adenomas or fibroadenoma

355
Q

Which placental species seen in ECM has the most teeth?
A ) rabbits
B ) ferrets
C ) pigs

A

C) pigs

356
Q

What is the first artery to come off of the aorta in the ferret?

A - right subclavian

B- left subclavian

C- brachiocephalic

A

C - brachiocephalic (then left subclavian)

357
Q

Excessive supplementation of ascorbic acid in guinea pigs has been associated with:
A ) scurvy
B ) dental disease
C ) spontaneous arthritis

A

C) Spontaneous arthritis

358
Q

Fibrous osteodystrophy in guinea pigs is caused by:
A ) primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism
B ) hypovitaminosis C
C ) high dietary calcium

A

A) primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism

359
Q

What % of satin guinea pigs has fibrous osteodystrophy?

A

30% <12 mo old

360
Q

Application of EMLA and Lidocaine cream were compared for placement of ear catheters in rabbits. Which statement is true:
A) Application of EMLA cream 60 minutes prior to catheterization significantly improved the odds of successful catheter placement (10x versus placebo)
B) Application of lidocaine gel 10 minutes significantly improved the odds of successful catheter placement (7x versus placebo)
C) Neither treatment was effective

A

A) Application of EMLA cream 60 minutes prior to catheterization significantly improved the odds of successful catheter placement (10x versus placebo)
(lidocaine gel improved the chances 3x, but not statistically significant)

361
Q

What chemotherapeutic can cause hemorrhagic cystitis?

A - doxorubicin

B - cyclophosphamide

C- vincristine

A

B - cyclophosphamide

362
Q

Which of the following is a cause of urinary incontinence in ferrets?

A - Lyssavirus

B- Morbillavirus

C- Arenavirus

A

A - Lyssavirus (Rabies)
65% had urinary incontinence and bladder atony

363
Q

What is Whipple’s triad?
A ) a gang in LA
B ) a ridiculous old term used to say if it looks like a duck, quacks like a duck, and floats like a duck it is most likely a duct (but in actual terms: if symptoms of hypoglycemia, if documented hypoglycemia, and if gets better when treated for hypoglycemia, then I most likely has Insulinoma)
C ) an intersection downtown

A

B

364
Q

What antibiotic would be an inappropriate choice for prostatitis?

A- TMS

B - marboflox

C- amoxiclav

A

C - amoxiclav (doesn’t penetrate tissue)

365
Q

A female chinchilla is having vaginal discharge. You swab it and look under the microscope. You see lots of neutrophils. She is:
A ) having a pathological condition such a pyometra
B ) in proestrus
C ) both are possible causes

A

C) both are possible

366
Q

Which setting of the Tono-Vera Vet rebound tonometer was found to be most accurate and precise in pigs?:
A) Horse
B) Dog
C) Rabbit

A

B) Dog

367
Q

You found a random urine sample in your lab. Curious, you peeked at microscopically and do see calcium carbonate crystals, which species did the urine not come from?
A ) Rabbit
B ) guinea pig
C ) chinchilla

A

C) chinchilla

368
Q

Which species are NOT predominantly lymphocytic (in adults)?

A. Hystricomorphs
B. Myomorphs
C. Ferrets

A

C. Ferrets

369
Q

In ECM, which parameter is a more reliable indicator of inflammation ?

A. WBC count
B. Presence of toxic changes or bands
C. Differential counts

A

B. Presence of toxic changes or bands

370
Q

In which species RBC concentration is higher in males compared to females ?

A. Rabbit
B. Guinea pig
C. Hamster

A

C. Hamster

371
Q

Which vitamin excess can cause coagulation protein disorders in ECM ?

A) Vitamin E
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin B6

A

A) Vitamin E

372
Q

A rabbit hospitalized for LLT shows severe thrombocytopenia, increased PT PTT, and elevated d-dimers. What is the most likely dx?

A) Compensated or non-overt disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
B) Overt or decompensated DIC
C) Artefacts

A

B) Overt or decompensated DIC

373
Q

When intravenous vascular access in guinea pigs and other small rodents cannot be performed, an alternative and equivalent route of drug/fluid administration during surgery is the:
A ) intracardiac route
B ) intraosseous (femur or tibia) route
C ) intraperitoneal route
D ) subcutaneous route

A

B) IO route

374
Q

Liver synthesizes all factors except :

A) Factor VII
B) Von Willebrand factor
C) Factor X

A

B) Von Willebrand factor
Produced by endothelial cells and megakaryocytes

375
Q

The Colonic Separation Mechanism in guinea pigs and chinchillas:
A ) is different than in rabbits
B ) is not present
C ) is similar as in rabbits
D ) does not produce cecotrophes

A

A) is different than in rabbits (and likely D according to FRR)

376
Q

Which statement is NOT correct in regard of gastrointestinal anatomy and nutrition of degus?
A ) unlike rabbits, the colon lacks haustra
B ) degus do not require Vit C supplementation
C ) degus do not produce cecotrophes and are not coprophagic
D ) degus have a large and functional cecum

A

C ) degus do not produce cecotrophes and are not coprophagic

377
Q

Which statement is NOT correct in regard of gastrointestinal anatomy and nutrition of rats?

A ) they are omnivores
B ) they are coprophagic
C ) the digestive tract is simpler than herbivores
D )they produce cecotrophes

A

D )they produce cecotrophes

378
Q

The stomach of hamsters:
A ) has multiple chambers
B ) is glandular, similar to many monogastrics
C ) is divided into a non-glandular forestomach and a glandular stomach
D ) allows regurgitation and vomiting

A

C) is divided into a non-glandular forestomach and a glandular stomach

379
Q

In which guinea pig breed has osteodystrophy associated with severe dental disease been reported?
A ) Abyssinian
B ) Peruvian
C ) satin
D )American

A

C) Satin

380
Q

Which is the most common dental disease affecting the incisor teeth of guinea pigs?
A ) fracture
B ) elongation of mandibular clinical crowns
C ) elongation of maxillary clinical crowns
D )malocclusion

A

B) Elongation of mandibular clinical crowns

381
Q

Which is the most common dental disease affecting the cheek teeth of guinea pigs?
A ) macrodontia
B ) fracture of the clinical crowns
C ) elongation of the reserve crowns and deformity of the cortical bone
D ) elongation of the clinical crowns and malocclusion

A

D ) elongation of the clinical crowns and malocclusion

382
Q

A common pattern of coronal elongation of cheek teeth in guinea pigs is:
A ) uneven elongation, forming a “step mouth”
B ) bilateral elongation of clinical crowns of mandibular premolars, forming a “bridge” over the tongue
C ) lingual spikes on mandibular clinical crowns
D ) palatal spikes on maxillary clinical crowns

A

B ) bilateral elongation of clinical crowns of mandibular premolars, forming a “bridge” over the tongue

383
Q

Which of the following is not a complication of dental disease in guinea pigs?
A ) periapical infection and odontogenic abscess
B ) subluxation of the temporomandibular joint
C ) otitis media
D ) stretching of the masticatory muscles

A

C) Otitis media

384
Q

What enzyme in the eye of the degu contributes to the formation of cataracts?
A ) aldosterone reductase
B ) sorbitol dehydrogenase
C ) aldehyde reductase

A

A ) aldosterone reductase

385
Q

How does aldosterone reductase in degu contribute to cataracts?
A ) converts glucose into sucrose, thereby increasing osmotic pressure in the lens
B ) converts glucose into sorbitol, thereby increasing osmotic pressure in the lens
C ) converts sorbitol into sucrose, thereby increasing osmotic pressure in the lens

A

B ) converts glucose into sorbitol, thereby increasing osmotic pressure in the lens

386
Q

About natremia in rabbits, which statement is true :

A) Na >129 mEq/L increases mortality rate
B) Pseudohyponatremia is common - usually secondary to hyperglycemia
C) Pseudohyponatremia is common - usually secondary to hypoglycaemia

A

B) Pseudohyponatremia is common - usually secondary to hyperglycemia

387
Q

What do most prairie dogs develop regardless of time spent under isoflurane anesthesia?
A ) respiratory acidosis and azotemia
B ) metabolic acidosis and azotemia
C ) respiratory alkidosis and azotemia

A

A) Respiratory acidosis and azotemia

388
Q

What liver neoplasia has been associated with a hepadnavirus in some sciuridae species?
A ) biliary cystadenoma
B ) hepatocholangiocarcinoma
C ) hepatocellular adenoma

A

B) hepatocholangiocarcinoma

389
Q

Which species lack a gallbladder?
A ) mouse
B ) rat
C ) prairie dog

A

B) rat

390
Q

What is the Whitten effect?
A ) Where pheromones stimulate the Jacobson’s organ
B ) where estrus is suppressed in a large group of female mice
C ) where recently bred mice introduced to a novel male may have impaired implantation

A

B ) where estrus is suppressed in a large group of female mice
C is Bruce effect (think male - intro of male into female interferes w/egg implantation)

391
Q

How many days postpartum in mice seems to be the crucial period in regards to the dam eating the pups (i e. How long not to disturb after birth to reduce infanticide)?
A ) 1 day
B ) 2 days
C ) 5 days

A

B) 2 days

392
Q

What bacteria in rats cause sepsis in mice?
A ) Mycoplasma spp
B ) Streptococcus pneumonia
C ) Streptobacillus moniliformis

A

C ) Streptobacillus moniliformis

393
Q

In mice, what is the false statement:
A ) diagnosing the pin worm Aspicularis tetraptera requires a fecal test because the adult deposits the egg in the large intestines
B ) diagnosing the pin worm Syphacia obvelata is through a tape prep of the fur around the rectum because the adult deposits the egg on the fur around the anus.
C ) infection of pin worms in mice are rarely subclinical

A

C ) infection of pin worms in mice are rarely subclinical

394
Q

Helicobacter spp is associated with what disease in mice?
A ) liver neoplasia
B ) rectal prolapse
C ) moist dermatitis

A

B ) rectal prolapse

395
Q

Mice that have obstruction of their urethra due to infection of the preputial glands (with staphylococcus aureus) or infection of the bulbourethral glands (with pasteurella pneumotropica) most often present with:
A ) self trauma to penis
B ) acute renal failure
C ) cystitis

A

A ) self trauma to penis

396
Q

The mouse kidney parvovirus is suspected to cause inclusion body nephritis. What individuals develop significant clinical disease?
A ) recently bred male mice
B ) recently bred female mice
C ) severely immunocompromised mice

A

C ) severely immunocompromised mice

397
Q

Nutritional steatitis (yellow fat disease) was associated with feeding what in ferrets:
A) Raw egg
B) Yellow corn
C) Marine fish

A

C) Marine fish
(Raw egg - maybe assoc w/thiamine (as does feeding fish)); Yellow corn - struvite urolithiasis)

398
Q

What is the most common cause of death in ferrets with estrogen induced bone marrow suppression?
A) Pneumonia
B) Pyometra
C) Hemorrhage

A

C) Hemorrhage

399
Q

What is not considered a factor that increases risk of pregnancy toxemia in ferrets?:
A) increasing parity/age
B) large litter size
C) water deprivation

A

A) increasing parity/age (opposite)

400
Q

In a study of oral pathology in rescued ferrets 32% had dental fractures (always the canines). What % of the ferrets with dental fractures had exposure of the pulp cavity?:
A) 30%
B) 60%
C)90%

A

B) 60%