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NPTE > Student PEAT 1 > Flashcards

Student PEAT 1 Flashcards

1
Q

meralgia paresthetica

A
  • entrapment or injury to lateral femoral cutaneous nerve - sensory nerve to lateral thigh
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2
Q

incentive spirometry is used for

A
  • visual feedback to encourage performance of sustained maximal inspiration
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3
Q

pacing is for

A
  • learning to work within exercise tolerance
  • i.e. walking slowing or walking w/ breaks and allowing greater total walking distance with SOB
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4
Q

diaphragmatic breathing

A
  • decrease work of breathing and improve diaphragmatic movement
  • does not improve exercise tolerance
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5
Q

segmental breathing is for

A
  • for chest hypomobility to augment localized lung expansion
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6
Q

anterior interosseous nerve entrapment

A
  • pt unable to make “O” shape with thumb and pointer finger
  • AIN supplies flexor pollicis longus and radial half of flexor digitorum profundus - entrapped
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7
Q

entrapment of posterior interosseous nerve results in

A

functional wrist drop (radial nerve)

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8
Q

most common presentation for enlargement of prostate is

A

difficulty initiating urine stream

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9
Q

horizontal nystagmus is a symptom of

A

cerebellar problem - i.e. lesion of anterior inferior cerebellar artery

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10
Q

apraxia

A
  • disorder of the brain and nervous system in which a person is unable to perform tasks or movements when asked
  • even though the request or command is understood and they are willing to perform the task
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11
Q

massed practice

A
  • sequence of practice and rest times w/ shorter rest time than practice time
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12
Q

distributed practice

A
  • intervals w/ practice time equal to or less than rest time
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13
Q

random practice

A
  • sequence where various tasks are ordered randomly across trials
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13
Q

blocked practice

A
  • practice sequence organized around one task performed repeatedly w/o interruption of other tasks
  • not time dependent
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13
Q

if a patient has an adverse reaction (wheals) to a modality (ice pack), you should

A

discontinue cryotherapy

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13
Q

classic presentation of venous ulcer

A
  • medial leg
  • irregular shape
  • hyperpigmented periwound skin
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14
Q

monitor _ for warfarin/coumadin and monitor _ for heparin

A
  • international normalied ratio (INR) for warfarin/coumadin
  • partial thromboplastin time (PTT) for heparin
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14
Q

weakness of _ results in scapular winging

A
  • serratus anterior - innvervated by long thoracic n
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14
Q

athetoid cerebral palsy

A
  • characterized by involuntary movements that are slow and writhing
  • less likely to have contracturse compared to other forms of CP
  • in PT, emphasize facilitating cocontraction and encourage control in voluntary movement
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14
Q

junctional rhythm

A
  • originates in AV node instead of SA node that normally causes P wave
  • missing P wave - R, S, T waves come from ventricles after stimulation from AV junction
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14
Q

colles fracture

A
  • distal radius fx w/ dorsal comminution, angulation, displacement, radial shortening, associated w/ ulnar styloid fx
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15
Q

increased _ levels are linked to improved wound healing in patients w/ pressure injuries

A
  • increased protein intake levels
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15
Q

gait pattern in children w/ juvenile RA

A
  • decreased cadence
  • decreased PF at toe off and termainl stance
  • decrease hip extension at terminal stance and toe off
  • increase ant pelvic tilt
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15
Q

squeezing therapy putty between sides of fingers isolates what muscles

A
  • lumbricals and interossei - innvervated by ulnar nerve, affected by entrapment of tunnel of Guyon
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15
Q

myasthenia gravis

A
  • chronic autoimmune disease that causes weakness in skeletal muscles - breakdown in communication between nerves and muscles
  • s/s: weakness in arm and leg muscles, double vision, difficulties w/ speech and chewing, ptosis,
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15
Q

bell palsy

A
  • sudden unexplained episode of facial muscle weakness or paralysis
  • begins suddenly and worsens over 48 hours
  • d/t damage to facial nerve (CN 7)
  • muscle weakness that causes 1/2 of face to droop
  • usually resolves on its own within 6 months
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16
Q

naming scoliosis

A
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17
Q

RA can use _ for involved joints

A
  • splints: good for acute RA to prevent excessive movement, reduce mechanical stresses
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18
Q

test for anterior tibiofibular ligament

A
  • compression of distal shafts of tibia and fibula - tests for syndesmosis injury, including anterior tibiofibular ligament
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19
Q

oswestry disability questionnaire scoring

A
  • lower score is better
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20
Q

are single devices appropriate for restricted weight bearing gait

A
  • no
  • instead you need 2 crutches or a walker, but 2 crutches are least restrictive
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21
Q

innervation for muscle controlling hip abduction

A

L4-S1

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22
Q

goals of PT for plantar fasciitis

A
  • midfoot stability, functional foot and ankle ROM, normal foot and ankle strength (5/5), minimal pain
  • negative prognostic factors: obesity, limitations in ROM
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23
Q

gross motor developmental milestones

A
  • 18 months - 3 years: kicking a stationary ball, fast walking, walking w/ assistance on stiars
  • 2-3 years: catching a large ball, riding a tricycle, running short distances
  • 4 years: kicking a rolling ball, catching a small ball, hopping on one foot
  • 5-6 years: dribbling, riding a bike, skipping
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24
Q

children who have spinal muscular atrophy and who do not develop sitting ability are unlikely to _ and will require _

A
  • unlikely to walk and will require power mobility
  • may become independent in power wheelchair by 1-2 YO
  • SMA: disorder affecting CNS, PNS, and voluntary muscle movement
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25
Q

research shows superior long-term effects for _ practice d/t higher cognitive processes requires for patients w/ CVA

A
  • random practice - varied task practice w/ variable time intervals
  • random practice provides higher level of contextual interference that requires individual to retrieve practice from memory stores
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26
Q

massed practice is preferred for individuals w/ _

A
  • fatigue issues
  • learning occurs with this practice but depth of cognitive processes is not as high

random practice is best

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27
Q

blocked practice allows for motor learning but is not best for _

A
  • not best for long-term retention d/t lack of variability
  • variability is a hallmark of typical daily movement
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28
Q

force required for segmental separation in lumbar traction

A
  • 30-50% pt body weight
29
Q

graded exercise test should be discontinued if

A
  • DBP reaches 120 mmHG
30
Q

pressure gradient assessment for bandages

A
  • squeezing distal to proximal over short-stretch bandages to assess pressure gradient to determine where next bandage should be applied
  • done after each layer of bandage to ensure proper pressure gradient established to direct lymphatic flow from distal to proximal
31
Q

iontophoresis density

A
  • amplitude/conductive surface area
32
Q

dehydration in infants s/s

A
  • vomiting, diarrhea
  • increased respiratory rate
  • sunken fontanelle
  • cold hands and feet
  • inability to cry
33
Q

osteochondritis dissecans

A
  • necrotic bone lesion w/ no known cause
  • knee, talus, and elbow can be inolved
34
Q

myositis ossificans

A
  • complication of quadriceps contusion
  • caused by heterotropic bone formation of femur
  • during quad contraction, muscle belly rubs across bone and causes sharp pain
35
Q

a patient w/ cupulolithiasis or canalithiasis in a posterior canal will exhibit _ nystagmus w/ torsion _ the affected

A
  • upbeating nystagmus toward the affected side
36
Q

a patient w/ superior canal cupulolithiasis or canalithiasis will have _ nystagmus w/ torsion _ the affected side

A
  • downbeating nystagmus w/ torsion toward the affected side
37
Q

ALS progression

A
  • patients w/ initial onset of bulbar and respiratory weakness tend to have more rapid progression to death than patients whose weakness begins in distal extremities
38
Q

emphysema

A
  • abnormal and permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to terminal nonrespiratory bronchioles accompanied by destructive changes of alveolar walls
38
Q

with irregular heart rate greater than 100 bpm, _ is the most accurate method of measuring heart rate

A
  • auscultation
39
Q

lymphedema exercises should be performe _ to _

A
  • proximal to distal
  • cervical, should circumduction, elbow flexion/ext, then wrist circumduction
40
Q

room designed for airborne infection isolation

A
  • negative air pressure w/ direction of airflow into room from adjacent space outside room
41
Q

arm exercise typically results in _ % _ maximal oxygen uptake than leg exercise

A
  • UE exercise 30-40% lower maximal oxygen uptake than LE exercise
42
Q

ECG reports significant Q waves, suggesting what condition?

A
  • myocardial infarction - pathological Q wave
43
Q

carpal bone commonly injured w/ FOOSH?

A
  • distal radius fracture w/ scaphoid fracture
44
Q

w/ scoliosis, there is a compression of the ribs on the side of the _ and shortening of

A
  • on the side of the concavity and shortening of intercostals
45
Q

glute med innervation

A

superior gluteal nerve (L5-S1)

46
Q

a kid who W sits most likely has

A
  • femoral anteversion - results in excessive hip IR and loss of passive ER
47
Q

hypertonic piriformis also likely has

A

SIJ dysfunction
- also glute max weakness

48
Q

fetal alcohol syndrome

A
  • maxillary hypoplasia, elongated mid face, short upturned nose, poor growth, short attention span
  • fine motor dysfunction, visuomotor deficits, balance problems, weak grasp
  • would benefit from balance activities
49
Q

if the amplitude for TENS is appropriate and teh pt doesn’t feel it, what should you do

A
  • turn it off and check connections
50
Q
A
51
Q

lacking shoulder ER can be due to

A
  • weakness of ER muscles - infraspinatus, teres minor
  • tightness in anterior band of inferior glenohumeral ligament - restrains ER at 90 ABD
52
Q

_ nerves from _ plexus allow for micturition

A
  • parasympathetic nerves from pelvic plexus fire to contract bladder to being emptying
53
Q

resisting ability to keep eyes tightly shut tests CN _

A
  • facial nerve (CN 7)
54
Q

glossopharyngeal breathing is appropriate for patients with _

A
  • high cervical spinal cord injury - increases pulmonary function when there is severe weakness of inspiratory muscles
55
Q

myocardial infarction more likely to occur ?

A
  • in the morning, during exertion, or when someone is working with arms overhead
  • s/s: radiating UE pain, SOB, diaphoresis
56
Q

leukopenia vs leukocytosis

A
  • leukopenia: lower than normal WBC, greater risk for infection
  • leukocytosis: abnormally high WBC, in response to acute infection
57
Q

liver dysfunction symptoms

A
  • jaundice, dark urine, clay-colored stool
  • easy bruising
  • R shoulder pain
58
Q

septic arthritis symptoms

A
  • rapid onset over hours or days
  • monoarthritis of a joint
  • swollen, red, tender, warm, limited ROM d/t pain
59
Q

hetertopic ossification symptoms

A
  • alkaline phosphatase levels increase
  • edema, heat, erythema
60
Q

actinomycosis

A
  • s/s chest pain, dypnea, fatigue, fever
  • fluid filled pus around mouth d/t bacteria
61
Q

anterior compartment syndrome

A
  • d/t blunt trauma
  • presents w/ sensory deficits - numbness, tingling, coolness of extremity
62
Q

thrombophlebitis

A
  • leg pain, swelling, increased temperature, bluish discoloration
63
Q

in scoliosis screening, forward bend eval conducted to determine presence of?

A
  • vertebral rotation
  • (lateral spinal deviation better assessed w/ plumbline)
64
Q

pressure garments and burns

A
  • pressure garments worn 23 hours/day reduce formation or thickness of hypertrophic scars
65
Q

tendinitis s/s

A
  • TTP
  • painful arc
  • full end-range ROM
  • not empty end feel
66
Q

bursitis s/s

A
  • TTP
  • painful arc w/ PROM
  • protective muscle spasms
  • empty end-feel
67
Q

lateral medullary syndrome

A
  • loss of pain and temp on opposite side of body
68
Q

clasp knife phenomenon d/t

A
  • damage to descending motor pathways from cortex or brainstem

not basal ganglia

69
Q
A
70
Q

cogwheel resistance

A
  • d/t lesion of basal ganglia
  • also tremor and rigidity w/ injury to basal ganglia
70
Q

burns and what they have

A
  • superficial burn: mild to severe erythema w/o blisters, red, some edema, no blisters
  • superficial partial-thickness burn: wet, shiny, weeping, mottled red color, intact blisters
  • deep parthial thickness: mixed red or waxy white color, wet broken blistres, marked edema
  • full-thcikness: fat exposed, white color, maybe have some charring
71
Q

fibroma and chondroma

A
  • benign tumors of connective tissue
72
Q

fibrosarcoma and chondrosarcoma

A
  • malignant tumors of connective tissues
73
Q

papilloma and adenoma

A
  • bening tumors of epithelium/skin
74
Q

adenocarcinoma and basal cell carcinoma

A
  • malingnant tumors of epithelium/skin
75
Q

infraspinatus tightness limits

A
  • limits IR

tight post capsule also limits shoulder IR

76
Q

sensory nerve conduction tests measures

A
  • distal component of a peripheral nerve
  • would not detect abnormalities in lesion proximal to DRG - no EMG changes if only sensory roots injured
77
Q

is hypotension a side effect of anticoagulants

A
  • no

should be most concerned about bleeding/bruising

78
Q

aerobic exercise for weight loss

A
  • up to 50-75% intensity
  • 5-7 days/week
  • 45-60 minutes/session
79
Q

herpes zoster (shingles) s/s

A
  • pain and paresthesias followed by unilateral rash along affected dermatome
80
Q

complete decongestive therapy (CDT)

A
  • skin care
  • manual lymph drainage
  • compression therapy
  • decongestive exercise therapy
81
Q

floor-reaction AFO

A

encourages knee extension

82
Q

pt equilibrium

A
  • dynamic reaction fo upright posture and smooth transitional movements
  • assessed by testing ability to respond to change in body position or surface support to maintain body alignment
  • ex: marching in place changes COG and palcement demand on body to maintain upright posture

NPTE (32 decks)

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