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NPTE > exam 3 missed questions > Flashcards

exam 3 missed questions Flashcards

1
Q

reciprocating gait orthoses (RGOs)

A
  • assist with hip flexion and hip extension during gait - necessary for L1-L3 spina bifida d/t insufficient strength
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2
Q

on:off time for e-stim for muscle re-ed initially

(I love you!)

A
  • 1:5 used to minimize muscle fatigue
  • as patient gets stronger, can use 1:3 or 1:4
  • on time should be less than off time to prevent muscle fatigue
  • 1:1 might be more appropriate for relieving muscle spasm
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3
Q

if you have a patient with HIV in a pool and the pt has a paper cut, you should

A
  • use appropriate medical asepsis
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4
Q

anterior compartment syndrome - can’t DF foot and has mild sensory disturabance btw first and second toes. what nerve?

A
  • deep peroneal - often affected w/t anterior compartment syndrome
  • deep peroneal innervates tib ant, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, extensor digitorum brevis, peroneus tertius
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5
Q

medial plantar nerve

A
  • larger of two branches of tibial nerve
  • to cutaneous branches of medial 3 and a half digits, motor branches to abd hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, flexor hallucis brevical, lumbrical 1
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6
Q

tibial nerve

A
  • innervates tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, soleus, gastrocnemius, plantaris, popliteus msucles
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7
Q

lateral plantar nerve

A
  • smaller of 2 branches of tibial nerve
  • cutaneous branches to lateral 1 and a half toes
  • motor branches to muscles of sole of foot not supplied by medial plantar nerve - abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi, opponens digiti minimi, dorsal interossei, quadratus plantae, adductor hallucis, lumbricals II, III, IV, and plantar interossei
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8
Q

markedly high platelet counts common with

A
  • malignancy
  • not emphysema, metabolic acidosis, or renal failure
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9
Q

emphysema

A
  • abnormal permanent enlargment of air spaces distal to terminal bronchioles
  • increase in red blood cells to carry O2 and abnormal carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide levels
  • increase in total lung capacity, functional recidiual capacity, and residual volume
  • vital capacity decreased
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10
Q

metabolic acidosis

(Keep it up, cutie!)

A
  • accumulation of acids or deficit of bases in blood
  • d/t renal failure, starvation, diabetic or alcoholic ketoacidosis
  • blood values show decr pH d/t decrease HCO3- or increased H+ ions
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11
Q

renal failure

A
  • abrupt or rapid decline in renal filtration and function
  • 3 categories: prerenal, intrinsic, post renal
  • d/t hypovolemia, CHF, dehydration, sepsis, autoimmune disease
  • blood values show hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, elevated BUN, creatinine, magnesium, uric acid
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12
Q

coordination assessment on pt w/ cerebellar lesion - what findings are associated

A
  • dysmetria: inability to control range of movement and force of muscular activity, overshooting/undershooting
  • ataxia: inability to perform coordinated movement in gait, patterns of movement, posture
  • nystagmus: abnormal eye movement
  • also dysdiadochokinesia, tremor, scanning speech
  • NOT hypertonia: cerebellar dysfunction associated with hypotonia
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13
Q

sputum

A
  • asthma: mucoid
  • lung abscess: necrosis of tissue, infection, purulent (yellow-green)
  • pulmonary edema: frothy
  • tuberculosis: airborne, blood tinged sputum
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14
Q

bicep muscle and tricep muscle is innervated by

A
  • bicep: C5-C6
  • tricep: C7-C8
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15
Q

how do you assess superficial reflexes

A
  • w/ a blunt object
  • ex plantar reflex w/ babinski sign
  • NOT feathery object - for light touch sensation
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16
Q

higher than normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) consistent w/ what diagnosis

A
  • polymyalgia rheumatic: systemic inflammatory condition in older adults, pn in pelvic and shoulder girdles
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17
Q

gout

(Don’t doubt yourself!)

A
  • acute pain d/t deposition of urate crystals in joint -> hyperuricemia (too much uric acid in blood)
  • usually first MTP joint
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18
Q

pseudogout

A
  • calcium crystals in articular and periarticular structures
  • most common in knee
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19
Q

transparent film dressing on a wound over anterior surface is thigh border should be how far from wound?

A
  • 3 cm: just over an inch
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20
Q

nerve conduction velocity

A
  • diagnose carpal tunnel, peripheral neuropathy, guillan-barre
  • can also use phalen’s test and tinnels for carpal tunnel
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21
Q

wrist radial deviation normal

A

0-20 degrees
- fulcrum over capitate, stationary arm over dorsal midline of arm, moving arm over third metacarpal

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22
Q

wrist ulnar deviation normal

A

0-30 degrees

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23
Q

wrist extension normal

A

0-70

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24
Q

talar tilt assesses what ligament

A
  • calcaneofibular ligament - torn represented by excessive inversion
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25
Q

anterior talotibial ligament

A

resists abduction of talus in PF and eversion

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26
Q

deltoid ligament

A
  • provides medial ligamentous support by resisting eversion of talus
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27
Q

posterior talotibial ligament

A
  • resists ankle DF and lateral translation and external rotation of talus
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28
Q

if a patient fails to make progress in PT, you should

A
  • alert referring physician
  • esp if you’ve tried a variety of treatment techniques and none have helped
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29
Q

dysphonia

A

disorder of vocalization characterized by abnormal production of sounds from larynx
- hoarseness from mild roughness to inability to produce sound

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30
Q

dysarthria

A
  • defects in articulation, enunciation, or rhythm of speech
  • usually caused by malformation of oral structures, poor fitting dentures, impairment of musculature
  • characterized by slurring, slow speech, indistinct speech, breaks in normal speech rhythm
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31
Q

dysphasia

A
  • inability to use and understand written and spoken words as a result of damage to cortical centers of speech in brain
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32
Q

first MTP is affected in _ % of cases of gouty arthritis

A

90%

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33
Q

room air is _ % O2, so O2 concentration is increased _ % for every 1 lpm increase

A
  • RA is 21%, so [O2] is increased 4% for every 1lpm added
  • 1 lpm -> 25% O2 delivered
  • 2 lpm -> 29%
  • 3 lpm -> 33%
  • 4 lpm -> 37%
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34
Q

modified plantigrade position

A
  • LE WB in supported standing, leaning w/ UE support on table or WB surface
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35
Q

4 YO w/ CP - PT uses sustained position through LE casting in order to

A
  • decrease hypertonicity - casting improves ROM and decreases hypertonicity through integration of pressure points and diminishing influence of spasticity
  • casting: decreases hypertonicity, improve rOM, improve function
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36
Q

aspiration (arthrocentesis)

A
  • using sterile needle to remove fluid from joint
  • for bursa/cysts - remove excess fluid to relieve inflammation and prevent further accumulation of fluid
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37
Q

anemia

A
  • decreased RBCs n blood - pallor, cyanosis, cool skin, vertigo, weakness, HA, malaise
  • reduced in circulating RBCs or reduction in hemoglobin
  • most common disorder of blood
  • categories: excessive blood loss (hemorrhage), excess blood cell destruction (hemolysis), deficient RBC production (hematopoiesis)
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38
Q

cor pulmonale

A
  • right sided heart failure d/t disease of lungs
  • s/s: elevated central venous pressure, distension of neck veins, SOB
  • ascites, peripheral edema of feet and ankles, fatigue
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39
Q

diaphoresis

A

profuse perspiration
- associated with shock or other emergent medical conditions

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40
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • autosomal disorder of collagen synthesis that affects bone metabolism
  • delayed developmental milestones s/t ongoing fractures -> immobilization, hypermobility of joints, poorly developed muscles
  • do show weakness but no difference in tone
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41
Q

electrical burns

A
  • spread over larger area, contain entrance wound, several poorly defined exit wounds
  • appear dry
  • can cause cardiac arrhythmias if passes through heart
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42
Q

radiation burn

A
  • excessive exposure to ionizing radiation
  • more uniform, noted multiple scattered burn sites
  • no cardiac arrhythmias
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43
Q

low blood glucose

below 70 mg/dl

A
  • headache - less glucose to brain
  • NOT polyuria, or excessive thirst - more associated with hyperglycemia
  • hyperventilation associated with DKA
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44
Q

ECG shows decrease in cardiac output - why?

A
  • cardiac output: amount of blood that leaves heart each minute, CO = HR x SV
  • afterload - force LV must generate during systolic phase, related to resistance in aorta and peripheral arteries
  • as afterload increases, SV (and thus CO) decrease
  • NOT HR - increase would cause CO to increase
  • NOT preload - increase would increase CO
  • NOT stroke volume - increase would increase CO
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45
Q

HDL and LDL norms

A

HDL: 40-60 mg/dL
LDL: 100-129 mg/dL

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46
Q

diabetes diagnosing

A
  • oral glucose toelrance test - blood glucose > 200 mg/dL (normal < 140)
  • A1c: 6.5% or greater (normal is less than 5.7%)
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47
Q

lachman test degrees of knee flexion

A
  • 20 - 30
  • 80-90 is more anterior drawer
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48
Q

compression garments for ambulatory patient w/ LE edema

A
  • 30-40 mmHg for edema in ambulatory patients
  • 16-18 mmHg for DVR prevention
  • 20-30 mmHg for scar tissue formation control
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49
Q

dorsal scapular nerve injury affects

A
  • levator scapulae and rhomboids
  • NOT supraspinatus and infraspinatus - innervated by suprascapular nerve
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50
Q

mechanical lumbar traction in supine w/ flexed position is appropriate to treat

A
  • spinal stenosis - position maximizes opening of intervertebral herniation
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51
Q

functional activity to increases wrist passive ROM d/t shortened wrist flexors

A
  • modified plantigrade: LE WB in supported standing while leaning UE support on table
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52
Q

pt able to make fist but unable to flexor distal phalanx of ring finger d/t rupture of what tendon

A
  • flexor digitorum profundus: originates on ant and med surfaces of proximal oirtion of ulna, interosseous membrane, deep antebrachial fascia; 4 tendons to anterior surface of abses of distal pahalnges
  • NOT flexor digitorum superficialis: flexes PIP 2-5, MCP, and wrist
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53
Q

blood test for DMD

A

creatine phosphokinase

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54
Q

torticollis

A
  • lateral flexion of head toward affected side and rotation toward unaffected side d/t contracture of sternocleidomastoid
  • stretch opposite
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55
Q

mechanical traction forces

A
  • 25% for decrease muscle spasm or soft tissue stretch
  • 50% for mechanical separation
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56
Q

a pt has a referral w/ pt name and physician signature. pt only knows they had a knee surgery. you try to call but no answer - what should you do?

A
  • wait to receive orders -> need all relevant info for contraindications, precautions
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57
Q

dehydration results in what results for blood labs

A
  • increased BUN: indicative of dehydration, renal failure, heart failure (normal is 10-20 mg/dL)
  • NOT hematocrit or hemoglobin - increased levels in dehydration, diarrhea, vomiting, excess sweating, burns, diuretics
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58
Q

shoulder ROM and pain

A
  • 80-90 degrees ER greatest amount of pressure on anterior shoulder - inflammation, irritation, structural damage -> pain
  • 60-70/70-80 degrees IR pressures posterior shoulder d/t posterior glenohumeral instability or suprahumeral impingement (70 degrees IR normal)
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59
Q

to test supinator and minimize action of biceps, therapist should place elbow in what position

A
  • terminal flexion
  • supinator innervated by radial nerve C5, C6, C7
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60
Q

medial border of foot along first metatarsal is higher than lateral border of foot along fifth metatarsal -> what should this be documented as

A
  • forefoot varus: inverted position of forefoot in relation to rearfoot - pts with low arches in WB
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61
Q

for CHF, PT concerned about pt exercise tolerance. what would be most responsible for limited exercise tolerance

A
  • insufficient stroke volume during ventricular systole
  • limited delivery of oxygenated blood to active tissues limits ability to exercise
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62
Q

congestive heart failure can be due to

A
  • diminished pumping ability of ventricles d/t muscle weakening (systolic functioning) - weak heart pumps smaller volume of blood for each contraction of ventricles (SV) and reduces cardiac output
  • OR stiffening of heart muscle that impairs ventricles’ capacity to relax and fill (diastolic functioning)
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63
Q

sensory exam for neurological lesion order

A
  • superficial first: temperature, pain, crude touch, pressure
  • deep sensations: vibration, kinesthesia
  • then combined cortical sensations: 2 point discrimination
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64
Q

if you have end stage renal disease, you probably also have

A
  • diabetes - high blood glucose overworks kidneys
  • ESRD (chronic renal failure): progressive decline in kidney’s ability to filter fluids, metabolites, and electrolytes from body
65
Q

antihypertensives

A

beta blockers

66
Q

legg-calve-perthes disease

A
  • degeneration of femoral head d/t disturbance in blood supply (avascular necrosis)
  • in 5-7 YO
  • boys > girls
67
Q

apophysitis

A
  • inflammation of apophysis - secondary ossification center that functions as attachment site for musculotendinous unit
  • susceptible to injury from repetitive stress or acute injury
  • usually in pre-adolescents because exercise training increases strength of muscle and tendon more rapidly than bone
68
Q

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A
  • separation between ball of hip and femur at growth plate
  • in pre-adolescents who are obese or who have had recent growth spurt
69
Q

what type of exercises are indicated for spondylolisthesis

A
  • flexion exercises
70
Q

functional splint

A
  • support, protect, stabilize a joint during specific activities (holding a writing or eating utensil)
  • improves efficiency and functional performance of task
71
Q

dynamic splint

A
  • includes spring or elastic component to exert force on a joint
  • can facilitate passive or assisted movement of a joint or to resist movement in direction opposite line of pull
  • not typically indicated during acute exacerbations
72
Q

resting splint

A
  • to maintain a joint in an appropriate position during acute exacerbation of symptoms
  • joint can rest while limiting risk of contracture development
73
Q

anterior drawer test

A
  • supine with knee flexed to 90 degrees and hip to 45
  • 2 PT hands on proximal tibia, thumbs on tibial plateau
74
Q

apley’s compression test

A
  • in prone with knee at 90 degrees flexion
  • stabilize femur and grasp heel w/ other hand - ER and IR of tibia while applying compressive force
  • (+) is pain or clicking - indicative of mensical lesion
75
Q

craig’s test

A
  • pt prone w knee flexed to 90
  • palpate greater trochanter and ER/IR hip until greater trochanter is parallel with table
  • degree of femoral anteversion corresponds to angle formed by lower leg with perpendicular axis of table
  • normal adult anteversion is 8-15 degrees
76
Q

thompson test

A
  • prone with legs extended and feet hanging over edge of table
  • PT squeeze belly of gastroc/soleus
  • (+) is absence of ankle PF - may be indicative of ruptured achilles tendon
77
Q

lesion to posterior portion of SC leads to inability to

A
  • determine joint position
78
Q

sensory info is transmitted to brain through

A
  • spinothalamic tract: ant and lat SC, nondiscriminative sensations (temp, pain, touch)
  • OR dorsal column-medial lemniscus tract: posterior portion of SC, discriminative sensations (discriminative touch, stereognosis, kinesthesia)
79
Q

per ADA, a ramp must have a minimum of _ foot of horizontal run for each inch of rise

A

1 foot per 1 inch
(so if run of ramp is 48 feet, must be 48 inches)

80
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • women>men
  • stiffness in hands and visible swelling, diminishes with activity
  • effusion, limited ROM, morning stiffness, pain with movement, low grade fever
81
Q

activity _ s/s of OA

A

exacerbates

82
Q

EMG normal muscle at rest

A
  • electrical silence
  • NOT spontaneous potentials: in acutely denervated muscles
  • NOT polyphasic potentials: from denervated motor units
  • NOT occasional motor unit potentials: neurapraxia, occur during minimal effort muscle contractions 2-3 weeks after injury
83
Q

lisfranc injury

A
  • at midfoot, may include fracture or dislocations often d/t traumatic disruptions of tarsometarsal joints
  • ligament strains and tears, as well as fractures and dislocations of bone of midfoot - cuboid, navicular, cuneiforms and articulations w/ 5 metatarsal bones
  • does not involve calcaneus
84
Q

receptor for stereognosis, vibration, 2 point discrimination

A
  • mechanoreceptors
85
Q

deep sensory receptors

A
  • in muscles, tendons, joins
  • golgi tendon organs, pacinian corpuscles, muscle spindles, ruffini endings
86
Q

baby milstones

A
  • 6-7 months: sitting w/ one hand support for extended time, objects to midline, holding bottle w/ 2 hands, roll to prone
  • 8-9: manipulate toys in sitting, raise supine to sit, pull to stand, transfer with controlled release
  • 10-11: stand briefly, supine to sitting or quadruped, pull to stand through half kneel, pincer grasp
  • 12-15: stand through quadruped, mult sitting positions, walk without support, creep up stairs, throw ball in sitting
87
Q

pt has a hard time holding a cup but not a pencil. what nerve is affected

A
  • ulnar
  • NOT median: involved in both
88
Q

ape hand deformity

A
  • caused by median nerve palsy - unable to move thumb away from rest of hand
89
Q

bell curve

A
90
Q

viscosupplementation

A
  • hyaluron injected into joint - restores normal viscosity of synovial fluid and helps to restore lubricating properties of synovial fluid within joint
91
Q

central cord syndrome

A
  • usually d/t cervical hyperextension
  • damages spinothalamic tract, corticospinal tract, dorsal columns
  • UE > LE affected
  • motore > sensory loss
92
Q

a patient w/ a patellar -tendon bearing prosthesis has redness. what area is greatesting concen?

A
  • distal anterior tibia - not a pressure tolerant area, no adipose tissue to distribute forces
  • patellar tendon, fibular shaft, and gastroc are all pressure tolerant
93
Q

functional independence measure (FIM)

A
  • 7 point scale of 18 areas for self-care, bowel and bladder, transfers, communication, locomotion
  • functional status index: ADLs
  • physical self-maintenance scale (PSMS): self-care
  • katz index of ADLs: nominal scale of 6 areas for ADLs
94
Q

a physical therapist determines a patient’s cadence is 120 steps per minute. how many seconds does it take for patient to complete 120 strides?

A
  • 120
  • cadence: half strides
95
Q

visceral referral patterns

A
96
Q

syndesmotic ankle sprain

A
  • high ankle sprain
  • d/t forceful external rotation of foot
97
Q

diabetes insipidus

A

body makes too much urine

98
Q

patellofemoral pain syndrome

A
  • pain in region of patella d/t abnormal contact/tracking between patella and trochanteric groove
  • pain increases w/ increasing patellofemoral joint reaction forces
  • for closed-chain activity, patellofemoral joint reaction forces are relatively low from 0-30 degrees
  • for open chain activities, reaction forces lowest at 90 degrees flexion and increase closer to extension
99
Q

autonomic dysreflexia

A
  • triggers NS and elevates blood pressure
  • position pt in sitting
100
Q

phenobarbital

A
  • serves to prevent seizures
  • side effects: sedation, vitamin deficiencies, nystagmus, ataxia
101
Q

a prosthesis requires slight ankle _ to allow for subsequent knee flexion during early stance

A
  • dorsiflexion required for knee flexion
  • too much PF forces full knee extension in early stance
  • softening heel wedge increases extension
  • moving foot anteriorly increases extension
102
Q

how do you know when to schedule maintenance of US unit

A
  • frequency of use - more use needs more calibration
103
Q

hoover test

A
  • gross test for malingering
  • PT hand under each calcaneus - pt performs straight leg raise on uninvolved extremity while PT assesses motor output of uninvolved side
104
Q

pts on levodopa experience

A
  • lightheadedness and orthostatic hypotension -> makes balance activities difficult
105
Q

femoral fracture site at greatest risk for delayed union

A
  • femoral neck - can disrupt blood supply and lead to osteonecrosis
106
Q

cause for periosteal pain from US

A
  • beam nonuniformity ratio (BNR): ratio between spatial peak in intensity and spatial average intensity
  • high BNR produces less uniform beam - pt at greater risk for undesirable effects
107
Q

early knee flexion from midstance to pre-swing w/ trantib amputation. why?

A
  • the socket is aligned in excessive flexion
  • or excessive posterior displacement of foot, excessive dorsiflexion
108
Q

16/20 RPE is what % MHR

A
  • 85%
  • 11-12 = 60%
  • 13-14 = 70%
  • 15/20 = 85%
109
Q

normal toe-out

A
  • 7 degrees at free speed walking
  • 3 degrees at fast walking
110
Q

ACL HS graft

A
  • semimembranosus (L5-S1) is not used as an ACL graft
  • semitendinosis and gracilis are commonly used together for ACL graft: gracilis is hip adduction, L2-L4
  • semitendinosus medial, biceps femoris lateral
111
Q

symptoms of meniere’s

A
  • MD: overaccumulation of endolymph d/t lack of absorption, excess backs up into system, compromises perilymphatic space
  • vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus
  • NOT head tilting - usually w/ unilateral vestibular hypofunction
112
Q

ASIA SCI scale

A
113
Q

reading CT

A
  • greater density = less penetration and whiter images appear
  • desc density: metal, bone, soft tissue, water, fat, air
  • CSF - black, radioluscent
  • soft tissue - shades of gray, depend on relative density
  • vertebrae - white, very dense bone
114
Q

substance stimulated by decrease in arterial pressure and acts as a vasoconstrictor

A
  • angiotensin - blood polypeptide, causes vasoconstriction, increases BP, releases aldosterone from adrenal cortex; stimulated by decrease in arterial pressure
115
Q

where to auscultate aortic valve

A
  • second right intercostal space at right sternal border
  • “aortic area”
116
Q

where to auscultate pulmonary valve

A
  • second left intercostal space at left sternal border
  • “pulmonary area”
117
Q

where to auscultate tricuspid valve

A
  • fourth left intercostal space along lower left sternal border
118
Q

where to auscultate mitral valve

A
  • fifth left intercostal space at midclavicular line denotes mitral area or apex of heart
119
Q

to estimate energy expended (calories) of an activity, what do you need to know

A
  • body weight (kg)
  • metabolic equivalent value (MET) of the activity
  • duration of the activity
120
Q

cluster sampling

A
  • successive random sampling of a series of units in population
  • used when a researcher is unable to know all elements in population in advance
  • large subgroups (clusters) are randomly selected first, then small units selected from clusters
  • each sample is subject to sampling error
121
Q

simple random sample

A
  • every element of population has an equal chance of being selected for the sample
122
Q

systematic sample

A
  • sample elements are chose from lists of population members using specified intervals (like every 4th element)
123
Q

stratified random sample

A
  • elements of population are chosen at random from homogenous groups based on some characteristic
  • organizing elements into homogenous groups before selection decreases sampling error
124
Q

nitroglycerin function

A
  1. dilation of veins to decrease venous return (preload)
  2. dilation of arteries to decrease afterload
  3. releaxation of coronary artery smooth muscle to increase coronary blood supply
    - all 3 actions decrease myocardial oxygen demand
125
Q

how do beta-blockers decrease myocardial oxygen demand

A
  • inhibit binding of epinephrine and norepinephrine to beta receptors
  • results in decreased HR, contractility of heart, cardiac output, blood pressure
126
Q

how do anticoagluants increase myocardial oxygen supply

A
  • inhibit platelet aggregation and thrombus formation
  • used in acute treatment of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism
127
Q

lesion to long thoracic nerve presents with

A
  • difficulty elevating arm overhead d/t weakness in serratus anterior muscle (C5-C7)
128
Q

deltoid innervated by

A
  • axillary nerve (C5-C6) - also innervates teres minor
129
Q

damage to musculocutaneous nerve causes

A
  • C5-C6
  • decreased sensation on lateral forearm
130
Q

what is a (+) graded exercise test

A
  • graded exercise testing used to measure response of heart to graded increase in O2 demand
  • exercise occurs using systematic protocol that can assess variables such as arrhythmias, functional capacity, significance of coronary artery disease
  • (+) is ST segment changes: represents initiation of ventricular repolarization and is sensitive indicator of ischemia to ventricles
  • (+) is greater than or equal to 1 mm of horizontal or downsloping ST segment depression
131
Q

why wear a knee immobilizer to prevent hip dislocation after posterolateral THA

A
  • knee immobilizer limits hip flexion by maintaining knee in extended position
132
Q

a patient misses 3 sessions in a row and does not return calls. what is the appropriate action to take

A
  • discharge pt from PT
  • mult missed appoints without response to phone call warrants d/c from PT
133
Q

typical UMN damage and spasticity pattern for UE

A
  • scapula retraction and downward rotation
  • shoulder adduction and internal rotation
  • elbow flexion: biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis
  • forearm pronation: pronator teres, pronator quadratus
  • wrist flexion and adduction: flexor carpi radialis
  • finger flexion: flexor digituorum profundus
  • thumb adduction
134
Q

for independence with dressing and bed mobility for a pt with C7 complete tetraplegia, preserving tightness of which muscle groups would most benefit functional potential

A
  • finger flexors and low back
  • tight long finger flexors: can use tenodesis grasp
  • tight low back: movement of head and UEs while in long sitting
  • avoid tightness in wrist flexors and hamstrings
135
Q

apgar scores

A
  • determine is child requires resuscitation at birth
  • range 0-10
  • 7-10 indicates good health - no resuscitation required
  • 4-6 indicates may need suctioning or oxygen
  • 0-3 indicates medical emergency and necessary resuscitation
136
Q

periventricular leukomalacia

A
  • ischemic disturbance around ventricles, causes white matter damage
  • most common ischemic pathology resulting in cerebral palsy
  • any type of disturbance resultingi nbrain pathology can be predictive of CP - infection, hemorrhages, brain malformations, pervientricular leukomalacia
137
Q

creatine phosphokinase is biomarker for

A
  • cardiac
  • in blood follow myocardial infarction
  • and muscular dystrophy (?)
138
Q

manual vibration uses what hand placement

A
  • with entire palmar surface of hand
  • percussion - cupped hand
  • assess tactile fremitus - ulnar border of hand (vibration of spoken words through chest wall)
  • mediate percussion to evaluate changes in lung density - distal phalanx of middle fniger
139
Q

brown-sequard’s

A
  • muscle paralysis on ipsilateral side - also no vibration and position sense (corticospinal tract and dorsal columns)
  • loss of pain, temperature, and sensitivity on contralateral side (lateral spinothalamic tract)
  • stab or bullet wound
140
Q

posterior cord syndrome

A
  • rare incomplete lesion d/t compression of posterior spinal artery
  • loss of stereognosis, proprioception, two-point discrimination below lesion
  • motor function intact
141
Q

central cord syndrome

A
  • incomplete lesion resulting from c/s hyperextension
  • damage to spinothalamic tract, corticospinal tract, dorsal columns
  • UE&raquo_space; LE
  • motor&raquo_space; sensory
142
Q

anterior cord syndrome

A
  • incomplete lesion d/t compression of anterior part of spinal cord and anterior spinal artery
  • bilateral loss of motor function, pain, and temp below level of lesion (corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts)
143
Q

modifiable risk factor for osteopenia -> osteoporosis

A
  • modifiable factors: inactive lifestyle, smoking, excessive caffeine intake, alcohol consumption, estrogen or testosterone deficiency, insufficient dietary intake of calcium and vit D, long term use of corticosteroids, low body weight
144
Q

biphosphonates

A
  • medications commonly used to treat patients with osteopenia and osteoporosis
  • maximize formation of bone and reduce rate of bone resorption
  • alendronate (fosamax), ibandronate (boniva)
145
Q

IT band syndrome

A
  • pain about 2 cm above joint line over lateral femoral condyle
  • d/t activities requiring frequent knee flexion - running, cycling
  • excessive contact btw lateral femoral condyle and IT band when knee is flexed 30 degrees
146
Q

fibular head tenderness

A
  • bicep femoris insertion
147
Q

normal platelet counts

A
  • 165,000-415,000/microliter
  • thrombocytopenia: low platelet counts
148
Q

injury to musculocutaneous n would cause difficulty w

A
  • drinking from a gallon of milk
  • musculocutaneous nerve innervates brachialis, biceps brachii, coracobrachialis muscles -> injury would weaken elbow flexion
  • NOT holding out arm to the side: would require deltoid (axillary n) and supraspinatus (suprascapular n)
149
Q

arthrometer

A
  • non-invasive instrument to meausre anterior translation of tibia on stabilized femur in 30 degrees of knee flexion
  • measure amount of translation in mm at given force
  • objective and accurate method of determining degree of ACL instability
150
Q

iontophoresis on anterior knee w/ low current density

A
  • current amplitude of 4 mA, electrode area of 12 cm^2 -> 4mA/12cm^2 = .33 mA/cm^2
  • current density = amplitude (mA)/area (cm^2)
151
Q

common deformities observed in RA patients

A
  • boutonniere deformity
  • swan neck deformity
  • ulnar drift
152
Q

boutonniere deformity

A
  • extension of MCP and DIP
  • flexion of PIP
  • common in RA
153
Q

mallet finger

A
  • distal phalanx finger resting in flexed position
  • d/t rupture or avulsion of extensor tendon
154
Q

swan neck deformity

A
  • flexion at DIP and hyperextension at PIP
  • d/t contraction of intrinsic muscular or tearing of volar plate
  • common in RA
155
Q

ulnar drift

A
  • ulnar deviation of digits d/t weakening of capsuloligamentous structures of MCP joints and accompanying effect on extensor communis tendons
156
Q

Roos test

A
  • for TOS
  • pt sitting or standing with arms in 90 degrees ABD, ER, and elbow flexion
  • open and close hands for 3 minutes - (+) inability to maintain test position, weakness of arms, sensory loss, ischemic pain
  • fatigue common, no assessment of radial pulse during this test, no assessment of hand color
157
Q

radial nerve injury

A
  • weakness of triceps, unable to extend elbow
  • can use platform attachment for bilat axillary crutches
158
Q

pt w/ CVA and R hemiparesis. what WC adaptation is appropriate for stand pivot transfers

A
  • pull-to wheel lock allows for closer access to surfaces in transfers
  • brake extensions on R allow pt to reach with uninvolved UE to lock WC prior to transfer
  • NOT anti-tippers: more for trunk control issues
  • NOT removable arm rests: more for squat pivot or slide board transfer
159
Q

why use platform attachment for walker

A
  • flexion contracture

NPTE (32 decks)

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