step 3 31 Flashcards

1
Q

preventative care for SCD kids

A

1) transcranial doppler US for stroke prevention. If reduced velocity found, patients sould undergo chronic transfusion therapy.
2) routine vaccines + pneumovax, early meningococcal
3) penicillin for ppx against encapsulated bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

measles presentation

A
  • prodrome of fever, cough, coryza, conjuctivitis then dark-red maculopapular rash that progress cephalocaudally
  • spares palms/soles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

measles treatment

A

supportive

vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

complications of monochorionic diamnotic twin gestations

A

increased risk for twin-twin transfusion syndrome (arteries and veins on placenta anastomose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

complications of monochorionic monoamniotic gestations

A

cord entanglement (since the grow in the same sac, cords can become entangled)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

risk of multiple gestations

A

increased risk of preterm delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

complications of OSA

A

HTN, CAD, arrhythmias, heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

indications for CT scan after minor head trauma

A
Age over 65
Coagulopathy
Drug or alcohol intoxication
High risk injury mechanism
High risk symptoms (amnesia, vomiting, seizure, HA, AMS, neuro deficits)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ARDS pathophys

A

lung injury leads to inflammation leads to increased pulmonary vascular permeability leads to fluid leakage into alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ARDS clinical features

A

Patient with infection, trauma, massive transfusion, acute pancreatitis with acute onset respiratory distress and pulmonary edema not explained by HF
- also hypoxemia and bilateral lung opacities on imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ARDS ventilator management

A

Low TV (6-8 mL/kg) + high PEEP (10-20) + high FiO2 (maintain FiO2 less than 60% to avoid oxygen toxicity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how to wean someone off ventilator

A
  • Once oxygenating on low levels of PEEP, then decrease FiO2 to less than 40% before spontaneous breathing trial and extubation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

other treatments for bipolar disorder

A

alternatives to lithium = lamotrigine, valproate

antipsychotics = quetiapine, lurasidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HIT workup

A

Platelet factor 4 (HIT) antibody testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

unique features of postpartum depression

A
  • inability to enjoy the infant

- persistently depressed mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment of patient’s in respiratory failure who are DNR/DNI

A

opiates (MORPHINE). Opiates treat the sensation of dyspnea and air hunger that people feel at the end of life. Even though they cause respiratory depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

acalculous cholecystitis clinical features

A

critically ill/ICU patient with unexplained fever + leukocytosis + jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

acalculous cholecystitis on imaging

A

gallbladder wall thickening without choleliths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

acalculous cholecystitis management

A

percutaneous cholecystostomy (drainage)

20
Q

nonreactive fetal NST suggests

A

fetal acidemia

21
Q

other clinical relevance of anti-CCP antibodies

A
  • associated with a more aggressive course (increased risk of rapidly progressive RA with joint erosions)
  • also true for RF
22
Q

neonatal polycythemia management

A

Monitor blood glucose + bilirubin (at risk for hypoglycemia and hyperbilirubinemia)
IV fluids
Glucose
Partial exchange transfusion

23
Q

complications of sickle cell trait

A
  • hematuria/papillary necrosis, hyposthenuria
  • splenic infarction (at high altitudes, low oxygen tension can precipitate sickling), VTE, priapism
  • exertional rhabdo
  • overall risk is low
24
Q

treatment of hydatiform mole

A

suction curettage

25
complications of hydatidiform mole
amenorrhea, hyperthyroidism, enlarged uterus
26
complications of intrauterine fetal demise
increased risk for DIC (placenta releases thromboplastin (tissue factor) into the maternal circulation, which triggers maternal coagulation pathway.
27
athlete's heart vs HOCM
LVH (with increased QRS voltage and inverted T waves) can be seen in both, but presyncope/chest pain/palpitations requires workup for HOCM with echo
28
other features of otitis externa
- discharge + pruritus + possible hearing loss + debris in canal
29
most common pathogens in otitis externa + management
pseudomonas (thus explaining why quinolones often used) staph aureus - IF ear canal is inflamed, may receive combined topical glucorticoid
30
Management of depressed phase of bipolar illness
lamotrigine, second generation antipsychotis (quetiapine, lurasidone)
31
complications of NPPV
- people with underlying lung disease (COPD) can develop pulmonary barotrauma , including pneumos, pneumoperitoneum, pneumomediastinum, and subcutaneous emphysema
32
subcutaneous emphysema presentation
sudden, painless soft tissue swelling in the upper chest, neck, and-or face - crepitus on exam - self-limiting, not a big deal
33
initial assessment of BPH
DRE UA PSA
34
postterm delivery
later than 42 weeks
35
early deceleration suggests
fetal head compression
36
common cause of variable decels
umbilical cord compression
37
late decels common cause
fetal distress, fetal hypoxia
38
threatened miscarriage
closed cervix + fetal heart tones
39
inevitable miscarriage
dilated cervix + painful contractions
40
missed miscarriage
nonviable intrauterine pregnancy
41
incomplete miscarriage
nonviable pregnancy with some tissue still in uterus
42
complete miscarriage
empty uterine cavity following spontaneous abortion
43
most common fetal causes of IUGR
Chromosomal abnormalities CMV infection Placental abnormalities
44
most common maternal causes of IUGR
HTN Cigarettes SLE
45
fetal malpresentation management
- follow (usually self-limiting) | - ECV at 37 weeks
46
neonatal sepsis management
ampicillin + cefotaxime
47
complicated UTI's
Man Diabetic Underlying urologic abnormalities (kidney stones, strictures, stents)