Sport Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

what are the three personality theories?

A

–trait theory
–social learning theory
–interactionist theory

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2
Q

define personality.

A

–the sum total of an individuals characteristics which. makes them unique
–stable, enduring + unique to each individual

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3
Q

what is a trait?

A

–a characteristic of personality which is inherited at birth
–stable, enduring + consistent in all situations

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4
Q

trait theory

A

–personality is innate/inherited
–behaviour = function of personality / B = F (p)

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5
Q

what are the four personality types + who identified these?

A

–Eysenck
–introvert= tend to be shy + reserved, preferring isolation
–extrovert= affiliate well with others, outgoing + sociable
–stable= display predictable emotions in appropriate situations + don’t experience intense stress
–neurotic= display extreme + unpredictable emotions in the form of mood swings + high degrees of stress

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6
Q

what are the drawbacks to the trait theory?

A

–see traits as more fixed + long lasting than they really are
–haven’t been useful in consistently predicting behaviour - unreliable
–fail to take into account the effect of a situation on an individuals behaviour/attitudes
–ignores that fact that people adapt to specific environmental situations
–influence of environment + other people on shaping personality is ignored

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7
Q

social learning theory

A

–all behaviour/personality is learned
–learning occurs via environmental experiences + through the influence of other people (significant others)
– behaviour = Function of Environment / B = F (e)
–behaviour is learned when its reinforced

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8
Q

interactionist theory

A

– combines the trait and state theory
–personality is modified and behaviour is formed when genetically inherited traits are triggered by environmental circumstances
– behaviour = Function of Personality X Environment / B = F (PxE)

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9
Q

what is Hollanders Concentric Ring Theory?

A

–he proposed that personality has three levels

–role-related behaviour= surface of personality
–typical response= usual response in most situations
–psychological core= the ‘real’ you

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10
Q

psychological core

A

–the ‘real’ you
–beliefs and values that remain fairly permanent

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11
Q

typical response

A

–usual response in most situations
–usually indicates your psychological core

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12
Q

role-related behaviour

A

–surface of personality
–in certain situations we may behave differently

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13
Q

How can knowledge of the interactionist perspective improve performance?

A

–coach could predict any potential unacceptable or aggressive behaviour before it happens + remove the played from the situation
–coach could identify situations that cause inappropriate actions or a dropping of performance + create similar situations in training so the played can learn to cope
–coach could use it to change the players behaviour by encouraging them to adapt to specific circumstances

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14
Q

what is an attitude?

A

–a mode of behaviour that is thought to be a typical response of an individual
–linked to personality
–can be positive or negative
–directed towards an object, person, place, thing or event

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15
Q

how are attitudes formed?

A

–from experiences
–socialisation= when someone associates with others + picks up their opinions and values
–we learn from friends, parents, role models
–through repeated or reinforced behaviour
–could stem from culture, social class, stereotyping

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16
Q

explain the Triadic Model of Attitudes.

A

–cognitive component= what you think
–affective component= your feelings or emotions
–behavioural component= what you do- actions of the performer

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17
Q

What is the Cognitive Dissonance Theory?

A

–if a person holds 2 opposing ideas, emotional conflict or dissonance arises
–if someone has a negative attitude towards exercise, a coach can apply pressure by changing one of the attitude components to create an uneasy feeling

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18
Q

What is the Persuasive Communication Theory?

A

–the use of persuasion to change an individuals attitude
–must consider:
>persuader= needs to be perceived as significant + of high status
>message= needs to be presented in a way that makes the recipient want to change an attitude
>recipient= they must really wish to change their attitude
>situation= timing persuasion + having support for encouragement

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19
Q

what are the strategies to improve an attitude?

A

–rewards successful elements of performance
–use positive role models
–give positive reinforcement for correct behaviour
–give negative reinforcement for unacceptable behaviour
–ensure training is enjoyable to maintain motivation

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20
Q

Define arousal

A

the state of general preparedness of the body for action, involving physiological and psychological factors

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21
Q

What are the physiological signs of arousal?

A

–increased HR
–increased breathing rate
–nausea
–increase muscle tension
–sweating
–need to urinate
–dry mouth
–increased blood pressure
–increased adrenaline
–dazed look in eyes

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22
Q

What are the psychological signs of arousal?

A

–increased focus
–increased concentration
–heightened awareness of. cues
–narrowing of attention
–decreased reaction time
–anxiety
–tension
–negative self-talk
–difficulties sleeping
–fear + anger

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23
Q

Drive Theory of Arousal

A

–as arousal increased so does performance
– Performance = a function of Drive X Habit / P = f (D x H)
–expert is more likely to see improved performance as arousal increases, but a novice is likely to make more errors

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24
Q

Improved performance due to increased drive is dependent on…?

A

–the stage of learning/ experiences of a player

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25
Q

Explain the Inverted U Theory.

A

– as arousal increases, so does performance but only up to an optimal point
–any further increase can cause performance to deteriorate

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26
Q

what is the optimal level of arousal dependent on in the Inverted U Theory?

A

– experience
–personality
–task

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27
Q

Explain the Zone of Optimal Functioning (Hanin)

A

–people respond differently to arousal
–each athlete has their own preferred level of arousal
–an athlete is either ‘in the zone’ or not

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28
Q

what are the features of being ‘in the zone’ ?

A

–performer is confident and calm
– they feel in control of their actions
–they are fully focussed
–performance is smooth and effortless
–peak flow experience occurs

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29
Q

what are the four types of anxiety?

A

–trait
–state
–cognitive
–somatic

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30
Q

what is anxiety?

A

–a state of nervousness or worry

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31
Q

trait anxiety

A

–a personality trait
–when a player feels nervous in most sporting situations
–genetic
–stable

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32
Q

state anxiety

A

–a response to a particular sporting situation
–a temporary rush of anxiety
–caused by a threatening circumstance

e.g: penalty

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33
Q

cognitive anxiety

A

–psychological
–irrational thinking or worries about performance
–don’t believe in ability to perform + can lead to loss of concentration
=negative impact on performance

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34
Q

somatic anxiety

A

–physiological= response of the body
e.g: increased HR, sweating, muscular tension
–increase in somatic anxiety can improve performance up to a certain point, then it decreases after that

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35
Q

what are the methods to measure anxiety?

A

–self-report questionnaires
–observations
–physiological testing

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36
Q

what are the benefits of self-report questionnaires?

A

–quick
–easy
–cheap
–efficient- large groups can be assessed quickly

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37
Q

what are the drawbacks of self-report questionnaires?

A

–players might not answer truthfully
–dependent on the mood of individual
–time pressure could cause some answers to be rushed = incorrect responses

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38
Q

what are the benefits of observations?

A

–true to life = valid

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39
Q

what are the drawbacks of observations?

A

–subjective
–time consuming
–performers can change behaviour if they know they’re being watched

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40
Q

what are the benefits of physiological measures?

A

–results are factual and true to life = valid
–can be measured in training + competition
–advances in tech can measure the HR which relays back to the coach immediately

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41
Q

what are the drawbacks of physiological measures?

A

–training is required to use the devices
–cost may deter amateur performers
–wearing a device can restrict movement
–if performer knows they are being measured, they may experience more stress = false readings

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42
Q

validity

A

–whether the data collected actually measures what it sets out to measure

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43
Q

reliability

A

–the degree to which data collection is consistent + stable over time

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44
Q

aggression

A

–forceful behaviour in sport
–intent to harm
–outside of the rules
–reactive
–out of control
–deliberate + hostile

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45
Q

assertion

A

–channelled aggression
–controlled
–well-motivated
–generally within the rules of the game
–goal-directed
–not intended to harm others

e.g: to drive forcefully through a group of players to score in basketball

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46
Q

what is the instinct theory of aggression?

A

–a trait perspective
–claims that all performers are born with an aggressive instinct that will surface if provoked
e.g: a player may react to a bad foul by retaliating aggressively

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47
Q

what are the evaluations against the instinct aggression theory?

A

–not all aggression is reactive + spontaneous
–some aggression is learned or pre-intended

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48
Q

what is the social learning theory of aggression?

A

–a learned response
–can be copied from others, particularly if behaviour is reinforced
–learned from significant others

e.g: you see an experienced player foul an opponent off the ball without the ref noticing, this distracts the player and they don’t score. You then copy this in a later game

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49
Q

what is an evaluation against the social learning theory of aggression?

A

–aggression can be instinctive + reactive rather than being learned

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50
Q

frustration-aggression hypothesis

A

–aggression occurs when goals are blocked + the performer becomes frustrated —> aggression
–the aggressive act will then reduce the aggressive drive = catharsis
–but if player is unable to release the aggressive drive, then self-punishment will occur = more frustration + increased aggressive drive

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51
Q

catharsis

A

–letting off steam
–sport is used as a release for channelling aggression
–experienced once the frustrated player has had a chance to release their aggression

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52
Q

what is an evaluation of the frustration-aggression hypothesis?

A

–not all frustration leads to aggression + not all aggression is the result of frustration

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53
Q

what are the reasons for resulting to aggression?

A

–losing
–poor play by you
–poor play by a team mate
–disagreement with the ref
–a hostile crowd
–pressure to succeed
–a high pressure game
–being fouled

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54
Q

aggressive-cue hypothesis

A

–increased frustration will lead to an increased arousal level + a drive towards aggressive responses
–aggressive responses will only occur if learned ‘cues’ are present to act as a stimulus

examples of cues: away pitch at your rivals, an opponent you have previously clashed with

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55
Q

how can a coach prevent aggression?

A

–substitute an aggressive behaviour
–reinforce non-aggressive behaviour
–point out non-aggressive role models
–set out non-aggressive goals
–don’t reinforce aggressive acts in training
–talk to players to calm them down

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56
Q

how can a player prevent aggression?

A

–walk away from the situation
–use mental rehearsal or relaxation to lower arousal
–channel aggression into assertion

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57
Q

how can officials prevent aggression?

A

–punish aggression with fines
–talk to players to calm them down
–apply the rules fairly + consistently
–apply sanctions immediately

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58
Q

achievement motivation

A

–the tendency to approach or avoid competitive situations
–looks at how much desire a player has
= desire to succeed- fear of failure

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59
Q

what is the level of achievement motivation dependent on?

A

–personality
–situation

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60
Q

NAF

A

= need to avoid failure
–more drawn to easy tasks that can be completed successfully completed

–seek secure + safe options rather than risky ones
–demonstrate avoidance behaviour
–lack confidence
–will avoid 50/50 challenges
–give up easily - won’t give it a 2nd try
–don’t like feedback or evaluation - impacts their self-esteem

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61
Q

NACH

A

= need to achieve
–will try hard in most situations to be successful
–more drawn to more difficult tasks as they will gain a lot of satisfaction if successful

–approach situations with enthusiasm
–take risks
–seek pride + satisfaction
–welcome feedback + evaluation
–confident
–task persistent
–attribute success internally

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62
Q

what are strategies for developing NACH performers?

A

–attribute success internally= tell the player they are the cause of the success
–improving confidence
–reinforcement= offer praise + rewards to those who achieve
–goal setting= achievable + new challenges should be set
–allowing success= set tasks that can be accomplished in early development

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63
Q

achievement goal theory

A

–motivation + task persistence depend on the type of goals set by the performer + how they measure success
–if an outcome goal is set + they succeed, then pride + satisfaction are maintained
–if they fail, then confidence will decrease
–if outcome goals are set too hard they could be discouraged

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64
Q

what are the 4 types of others that can be present when playing sport, according to Zajonc?

A

–audience = the people who are watching (spectators or Tv audience)
–co-actors = those who are doing the same thing at the same time but might not be in competition
–competition = those who are in direct competition
–social reinforcers = people who have a direct influence on the performance + their presence is a part of the event (coach)

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65
Q

what ‘others’ are passive in Zajonc’s theory?

A

–audience
–co-actors

66
Q

how do passive others present at a competition affect performers?

A

–they increase the arousal of the performer
–could increase/decrease level of performance

67
Q

if others are present, what does the impact on performance depend on?

A

–type of task
–level of experience
–stage of learning

68
Q

how is a beginner likely to respond to others being present when they are performing?

A

–increased anxiety + over-arousal
–causing poor execution of skills
= social inhibition

69
Q

how is an expert likely to respond to others being present when they are performing?

A

–increased motivation + encouraged by support
–can cope with the demands of the crowd
–responses will be correct even under pressure (due to skills being well-learnt, habitual + automatic)
–performance is more likely to be enhanced
= social facilitation

70
Q

what is the effect of others being present on complex skills?

A

–negative effect
–these skills require a lot of thought, information processing + decision making
= increased arousal = decreased level of performance

71
Q

evaluation apprehension

A

–perceived fear of being watched
–the perception of players when someone significant is watching is that they are being judged
–can be positive or negative depending on the perfomer

72
Q

how can social inhibition be prevented?

A

–getting the players familiar with playing in front of a crowd
–gradually introducing evaluation/feedback
–improving focus + concentration by selective attention

73
Q

what are the features of a group dynamic?

A

–a collective identity = easily recognised, pride + feel affiliation with one another
–interaction= the way players work together to complete a task, members should have defined roles
–communication= verbal + non-verbal
–a shared goal or purpose= achieving success keeps players working for each other

74
Q

What are the 4 parts to Tuckman’s theory of group formation?

A

1–forming = where the group gets to know each other
2–storming = potential conflict as individuals compete to establish their position, status or role
3–norming = once any conflict has been resolved, the team settles down + begins to cooperate, developing cohesion
4– performing = all players are now interactive + working together to achieve their goals, members support each other + understand their roles in a team

75
Q

what does the length of time group formation takes depend on?

A

–size of the group
–difficult of the task
–experience of the players

76
Q

cohesion

A

–involves every team member is working hard at the same time = co-action
–each player may have different roles + this must be integrated with the roles of other members = interaction

77
Q

what are the two types of cohesion?

A

–task
–social

78
Q

task cohesion

A

–looks at the end of the team pulling together, fulfilling their individual role to achieve the goal as a group
–can over-ride the problems of social cohesion

79
Q

social cohesion

A

–the interaction between team members + how they work with each other
–may socialise away from sport

80
Q

what may be a negative effect of social cohesion?

A

–may create sub-groups + therefore friction

81
Q

what may be positive effects of social cohesion?

A

–helps interaction
–improved communication
–improved team spirit

82
Q

what are the 3 concepts involved in Steiner’s model of group performance?

A

–actual productivity
–potential productivity
–faulty processes

83
Q

actual productivity

A

–the team performance during a game or event + refers to the extent of successful interaction

84
Q

potential productivity

A

–the maximum capability of the group when cohesiveness is strongest

85
Q

faulty processes

A

–factors that can go wrong in team performance

86
Q

what is the equation linking actual productivity, potential productivity + faulty processes?

A

actual productivity = potential productivity - losses due to faulty processes

87
Q

what are the 2 types of faulty processes?

A

–coordination losses = the Ringelmann effect
–motivational losses = social loafing

88
Q

co-ordination losses/ the Ringelmann effect

A

–any breakdown in teamwork + synchronisation of the group

89
Q

motivational losses/ social loafing

A

–relate to an individual who suffers a decrease in motivation during performance + so withdraws effort + ‘coasts’

90
Q

what are the causes of social loafing?

A

–feeling that others aren’t trying
–low self-confidence
–feeling that performances are never watched or valued
–negative experiences
–loss of motivation if task is perceived too difficult

91
Q

what are the causes of the Ringelmann effect?

A

–injuries
–lack of incentive
–vague individual roles
–low sum of players overall ability
–personality- low trait confidence
–inadequate leadership

92
Q

what are the ways of improving productivity?

A

–structured practice to ensure all players know tactics + strategies
–give individuals special roles/responsibilities
–effective leader
–team bonding exercises
–avoid social cliques
–develop confidence
–develop support within the team
–maintain stability
–maintain motivation with varied practice

93
Q

how can you avoid social loafing?

A

–recognise + rewards the efforts of players
–give specific roles/ responsibilities
–use goal setting
–use video analysis
–avoid situations where social loafing may occur
–allow success in the early stages
–develop fitness

94
Q

Attribution Theory

A

–the reasons given for winning or losing
–can be given by coaches, managers + players

95
Q

locus of causality

A

–the amount of control the player had over the result
= internal - within control
= external - out of control

96
Q

locus of stability

A

–reasons for winning/losing can be changeable
=unstable - likely to change over a period of time
= stable - unlikely to change over a short time period

97
Q

what does internal + stable attribution refer to?

A

–ability

98
Q

what does external + stable attribution refer to?

A

–task difficulty

99
Q

what does internal + unstable attribution refer to?

A

–effort

100
Q

what does external + unstable attribution refer to?

A

–luck

101
Q

what does Vealey’s model of Sport Confidence look at?

A

– the influence of trait confidence, state confidence, the situation + competitive orientation

102
Q

trait confidence

A

–a belief in the ability to do well in a range of sports

103
Q

state confidence

A

–a belief in the ability to master a specific sporting moment

104
Q

competitive orientation

A

–the degree to which a performer is drawn to challenging situations

105
Q

objective sporting situation

A

–the performer takes into account the situation in which the task is being undertaken

106
Q

what is the effect on trait + state confidence if the skill has been performed before?

A

–high trait confidence
–high state confidence

107
Q

what can impact a performers trait/state confidence?

A

–crowd size
–score at the time

= can create pressure on players

108
Q

how does a positive result/outcome impact confidence?

A

–evaluation my lead to improved confidence + developing a competitive orientation
–player is prepared to compete + try hard in most sporting situations = approach behaviour

109
Q

how does a negative result/outcome impact confidence?

A

–evaluation may lead to decreased confidence + reduced competitive orientation
–player may reduce effort levels = NAF

110
Q

what does Bandura’s self-efficacy model look at?

A

–the concept of self-confidence in any one situation
–confidence can vary with the situation + from moment to moment

111
Q

self-efficacy

A

–the belief in your ability to master a specific sporting situation
–impacts the confidence of individual players + players in the team

112
Q

what are the four factors affecting self-efficacy?

A

–performance accomplishments = self-efficacy is influenced by what you have done in the past or past experiences
–vicarious experience = watching others do the task + being successful
–verbal persuasion = the power of reinforcement + encouragement
–emotional arousal = a perception of the effects of anxiety on sport

113
Q

how can confidence be improved?

A

–use relaxation or stress management techniques to control arousal
–give an accurate demonstration
–point out past successful experiences
–give support + encouragement
–allow success during training by setting tasks within the capabilities of the performer
–set attainable goals
–attribute any success achieved to the athlete
–coach or player may use mental practice to help the performer go over the routine or sequence in the mind

114
Q

define ‘leader’

A

–someone who influences you towards your goals
–they play a role in maintaining effort + motivation by inspiring the team + setting targets

115
Q

what are the two types of leaders?

A

– EMERGENT = already belongs to the group
– PRESCRIBED = selected from outside the group

116
Q

what are the benefits of an emergent leader?

A

–already familiar with team members
–understand the team dynamics
–trusted + valued member so listened to + respected

117
Q

what are the drawbacks of an emergent leader?

A

–maybe too familiar with the team + not taken seriously
–hard to make difficult decisions when teammates are friends

118
Q

what are the benefits of a prescribed leader?

A

–brings new ideas to the team
–has a bit of distance from the team

119
Q

what are the drawbacks of a prescribed leader?

A

–doesn’t understand team dynamics
–make decisions based on knowledge, not what might be best for the team

120
Q

what are the three styles of leadership?

A

–task-orientated/autocratic
–social/person orientated/democratic
–laissez-faire

121
Q

describe the autocratic style of leadership.

A

–make all the decisions
–motivated to get results + reach targets + completing the task as quickly + effectively as possible
–will not delegate responsibility
–required in dangerous situations
–if the coach isn’t present, the group may fail to work well
–best suited when quick decisions are needed for large groups

122
Q

describe the democratic style of leadership.

A

–adopt a more sympathetic approach + seek opinions from the group before making decisions
–will delegate responsibility
–believe in consultation + interested in developing meaningful relationships
–group will usually continue to work when the coach isn’t present

123
Q

describe the laissez-faire style of leadership.

A

–leader will stand aside + allow the group to make its own decisions
–does very little
–used effectively when the group has lots of experience, but if they are not experienced, it could cause a breakdown in cohesion

124
Q

What is Chelladurai’s multi-dimensional model of leadership?

A

–he identified 3 influences that interact to produce effective leadership:
-> SITUATIONAL CHARACTERISTICS
->LEADER CHARACTERISTICS
-> GROUP MEMBER CHARACTERISTICS

–he identified 3 types of behaviour:
-> REQUIRED
-> ACTUAL
-> PREFERRED

125
Q

situational characteristics

A

–the type of task, numbers in the team, time constraints + personality

126
Q

leader characteristics

A

– experience + personality

127
Q

group member characteristics

A

–age, gender + experience

128
Q

required behaviour

A

–what the situation demands

129
Q

actual behaviour

A

–what the leader decided to do

130
Q

preferred behaviour

A

–what the group would prefer

131
Q

what does Fiedler’s Contingency model focus on?

A

–the situation
–whether its good, bad or moderate

132
Q

what style of leadership is best suited for most/least favourable situations?

A

–autocratic/task-orientated

133
Q

what style of leadership is best suited for moderately favourable situations?

A

–democratic/ person-orientated

134
Q

what does the favourability of a situation depend on?

A

–the task
–the leader-group relationship
–leaders authority

135
Q

what are the features of a most favourable situation?

A

–strong leader
–group harmony
–clear task
–respect for leader
–high ability
–high motivation
–support
–task-orientated

136
Q

what are the features of a least favourable situation?

A

–weak leader
–group hostility
–unclear task
–little respect for leader
–low ability
–low motivation
–some support
–task-orientated

137
Q

what are the features of a moderately favourable situation?

A

–some harmony
–some motivation
–some clarity
–need for consultation

138
Q

what is eustress?

A

–the positive feeling of stress

139
Q

stressor

A

–the cause of the stress

140
Q

name some examples of stressors.

A

–injury
–playing an important match
–playing against good opponents
–playing to get an important reward
–fear of failure caused by pressure of being watched by significant others

141
Q

Cognitive stress

A

–psychological
–negative thoughts + feelings
–loss of concentration

142
Q

attentional narrowing

A

–when the ability to take in information from the environment is reduce due to increased arousal + anxiety levels

143
Q

Somatic stress

A

–physiological
–increased HR + sweating
–muscular tension

144
Q

what are the cognitive stress management techniques?

A

–thought stopping
–positive self-talk
–imagery
–visualisation
–mental rehearsal
–attentional control + cue utilisation

145
Q

explain thought stopping in terms of stress management.

A

–a learned action to stop negative thoughts + redirect attention back to the task

146
Q

explain positive self-talk

A

–replacing negative thoughts with positive thoughts

147
Q

imagery

A

–recreating a successful image of an action from a past performance
–gives the performer the feel of the action + the positive emotions felt from it
–can be used as a mental escape by imagining a calm place

148
Q

visualisation

A

–uses a mental image of the skill perhaps performing the skill successfully in training which can then be re-lived in competition

149
Q

internal imagery/visualisation

A

–looking at the emotions + feelings involved
e.g: kinaesthesis + satisfaction

150
Q

external imagery/visualisation

A

–when the player visualises them performing the action as if they were on Tv

151
Q

mental rehearsal

A

–going over the movements in the mind before an action takes place

152
Q

attentional control + cue utilisation

A

– performers focus on incorrect stimuli + lose concentration, so these techniques counteract this

153
Q

cue utilisation

A

–as arousal levels increase, this influences the ability to taken on board cues
–low arousal = process plenty of cues
–high arousal = only limited info can be processed, causing attentional wastage
–moderate arousal = can pick up the relevant info + performance will be most successful

154
Q

What did Niddefer say about attention styles?

A

–to avoid attentional wastage, performers choose an attention styles that suits the situation
–if the correct style is chosen at the right time, stress should be lowered + performance should be enhanced

155
Q

what are the 4 attention styles?

A

–BROAD = when a number of cues are identified
–NARROW = focussing on one or two cues only
–EXTERNAL = info drawn from the environment
–INTERNAL = info used from within the performer

156
Q

psychological skills training

A

– the player trains + practices using cognitive stress management techniques, with the aid of a sports psychologist

157
Q

what are the somatic stress management technique?

A

–biofeedback
–progressive muscular relaxation
–centring

158
Q

biofeedback

A

–use of a measuring device to recognise physical changes that happen under stress
–eventually the performer can detect the symptoms without the device + can use the techniques to calm down

159
Q

progressive muscular relaxation

A

– muscles are tensed + then relaxed from the periphery of the body to the core
–correct use depends on ability to hold tension in a muscle for an extended period of time, otherwise incorrect use could cause injury

160
Q

centring

A

–a form of breathing control
–performer learns to relax the shoulders + chest whilst concentrating on slow controlled breaths
–this diverts attention away form the stressful situation + once mastered, it can be used quickly + efficiently