Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMS captain > SOGs Bottom to top > Flashcards

SOGs Bottom to top Flashcards

1
Q

<p>What are the rehab flag colors?</p>

A

<p>no color</p>

<p>white</p>

<p>green</p>

<p>yellow</p>

<p>red</p>

<p>black</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

<p>What is considered Hard work for the Rehab chart?</p>

A

<p>Search and rescue live fire</p>

<p>Hose line advancement live fire</p>

<p>extinguishment</p>

<p>vertical ventilation</p>

<p>overhaul</p>

<p>Level A entries</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

<p>What is considered moderate work for the rehab chart?</p>

A

<p>physical training</p>

<p>Vehicle extrication</p>

<p>Vehicle fire</p>

<p>Ladder raise and climb</p>

<p>Search and rescue non fire</p>

<p>Hose line advancement non fire</p>

<p>exposure control</p>

<p>salvage</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

<p>who gets notified of any health concern or illness befroe or during scheduled training</p>

A

<p>Training instructor</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

<p>TICs should be used with caution in combustible gas enviornments why?</p>

A

<p>not intrinsically safe</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

<p>the TIC works by how?</p>

A

<p>seeing heat energy from objects</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

<p>who ensures atmospheric monitioing is established when incident command has not been established?</p>

A

<p>Company officer.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

<p>extreme caution should be used with ther tac stick for the possibilites of ?</p>

A

<p>open neutrals</p>

<p>automatic or back fed generators</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

<p>one the mayday FF is at a wall the should search for what to lead them outside?</p>

A

<p>doors</p>

<p>windows</p>

<p>hallways</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

<p>when the mayday FF is attempting to self extract and cannot find a door, window, or other egress point what can they use?</p>

A

<p>Exterior wall</p>

<p></p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

<p>there is only one thing the ISO should consider requesting for a mayday?</p>

A

<p>Request an assistant ISO</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

<p>who is the preferred person to manage a Mayday?</p>

A

<p>ISO</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

<p>The HSO supports who for investigations regarding accidents or injires to personnel?</p>

A

<p>DC</p>

<p>BC<br></br>risk mgt</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

<p>What has to be in place before a RTF-PEM team is deployed?</p>

A

<p>Unified command has to be in place</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

<p>The HSO will help in processing what information for an incident?</p>

A

<p>"3" IONS</p>

<p>Information</p>

<p>documentation</p>

<p>Notification</p>

<p>analysis</p>

<p>processing and mtigation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

<p>The HSO will respond to what investigate what incidents?</p>

A

<p>Injuries to Employee or reservist that rquires trasnport or are fatally injured.</p>

<p>Vehicle accidents that involve fatalities or injuries that require ALS and are non ambulatory.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

<p>What offensice measrues can SPLOPS take with gas emergencies?</p>

A

<p>Grounding</p>

<p>Plugging</p>

<p>Cutting</p>

<p>Clampling</p>

<p>Squeezing</p>

<p>Flairing off</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

<p>What ventialtion type and what percent must it be for clearing out a structure with gas?</p>

A

<p>Natural ventilation</p>

<p>2%</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

<p>What are the typical storage tank capacities for NG and LPG?</p>

A

<p>BBQ- 20lb</p>

<p>Forklift- 33lb</p>

<p>Commerical -100-420lbs</p>

<p>Residential 500lb</p>

<p>HQ 30K</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

<p>who is eqipped with the draeger xam 2500 gas monitor/</p>

A

<p>Engine</p>

<p>aerial</p>

<p>BC</p>

<p>SPLOPS</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

<p>Hazard mitigation during an MCI includes what examples?</p>

A

<p>fire supression</p>

<p>structural stabilization</p>

<p>vehicle stabilization</p>

<p>fuel leak containment</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

<p>if a FF is treated and transported from REHAB what froms are used and sent where?</p>

A

<p>REHAB tracking worksheet becomes part of the medical record and fowarded to the reconds custodian.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

<p>How many degrees are added to WBGT index is wearing</p>

<p>Full PPE and SCBA?</p>

<p>Full PPE without SCBA?</p>

A

<p>5 degrees</p>

<p>3 degrees</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

<p>Sweating is also known as?</p>

A

<p>evaporative cooling</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

<p>daily fluid intake should no exceed how much?</p>

A

<p>12 quarts</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

<p>Where shall H2S be monitored ?</p>

A

<p>areas of decomposition:</p>

<p>Sewers</p>

<p>Septic tanks</p>

<p>Horse barns</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

<p>what greatly influences the atomosphere surrounding the hot zone?</p>

A

<p>wind direction</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

<p>All atomspheric monitioring readings are entered where?</p>

A

<p>in the appropriate fire reporting system</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

<p>The 5 gas monitor will be used when ?</p>

A

<p>Incidents where combustion processes have taken place<br></br><br></br>In areas with close proximity to any fire- wildland, structure, vehicle, training, or dumpster</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

<p>Documentation for LPG/NG response on the technician is?</p>

A

<p>Name<br></br>Phone number<br></br>ID or employee number</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

<p>For exterior LPG/NG leaks on above ground containers of 1000lb or greater they should be cooled with what?</p>

A

<p>Ground monitor flowing minimum 500gpm</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

<p>For exterior LPG/NG leaks on above ground containers - they should be cooled with what?</p>

A

<p>2 1/2” line at 200gpm</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

<p>What is the minimum size hose line and nozzle for confirmed LPG/NG leak?</p>

A

<p>1 3/4” with a fog nozzle</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

<p>On a confirmed LPG/NG leak where does the “Hot zone” start</p>

A

<p>Where the 4 gas monitor has LEL readings above 0</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

<p>Natural gas lines are what sizes?</p>

A

<p>Commercial 1-4”<br></br><br></br>Residential 1/2-3/4”</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

<p>Common Natural gas lines that are 24” are found where in PBC?</p>

A

<p>Along the turnpike<br></br><br></br>Port of palm beach to West county energy center owned by FPL</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

<p>What gas type and pipe size does not contain mercaptan?</p>

A

<p>Natural gas in sizes 18” or greater</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

<p>Propane has an LEL of?</p>

A

<p>2.1-9.5%</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

<p>Natural gas has an LEL of?</p>

A

<p>5.3-14%</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

<p>What pages in the ERG are used for LPG and Natural gas leaks?</p>

A

<p>20-25 and orange guide sections 115-116.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

<p>Documentation of blood draw will include what?</p>

A

<p>Name and badge number of Officer<br></br>Kit sealed Y/ N<br></br>PM name<br></br>Site<br></br>Number of tubes drawn <br></br>Date and time <br></br>Who sample was turned over to</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

<p>If a patient is too combative for a blood draw and at the discretion of the PM?</p>

A

<p>Blood draw will not be performed and EMS captain notified.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

<p>Who’s responsible for restraining an patient for a blood draw?</p>

A

<p>LE</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

<p>Blood Draws are performed when ?</p>

A

<p>Request of LE</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

<p>ASHER/MCI incidents with fire are what mode of operation?</p>

A

<p>Defensive</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

<p>the Definition of the CCP in an ASHER/MCI?</p>

A

<p>Casualty Collection Point- in the warm zone where patients are triaged and treated.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

<p>What categories do ASHER/ MCI patients get categorized to using TECC? (MCI level)</p>

A

<p>Immediate and Delayed</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

<p>What is the Definition of a “Strong Hold” with and ASHER/MCI ?</p>

A

<p>Defensible area within the warm zone that has no windows and all doorways are covered by LE <br></br><br></br>Also serves a CCP</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

<p>What is the FAP definition for ASHER/ MCI?</p>

A

<p>Final Approach position- is the outside area where the RTF-PEM team enters the warm zone</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

<p>The FUP in a ASHER/MCI is defined as?</p>

A

<p>Forming Up Position where FR and LE meet to form a team</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

<p>The Fire rescue RTF-PEM TEAM leader reports what to the LE RTF-PEM ?</p>

A

<p>Total number of victims<br></br>Non ambulatory patients<br></br>When ready to move</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

<p>The fire rescue RTF- PEM TEAM leader reports what to the Fire rescue RTF-PEM group supervisor</p>

A

<p>PAR levels<br></br>- going in and out of the warm zone<br></br>- going in and out of structures in the warm zone <br></br>-Changing floors or levels with in the warm zone</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

<p>Where is the fire rescue RTF-PEM group supervisor located?</p>

A

<p>Next to the Tactical LE officer in the “Cold Zone”</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

<p>The Fire rescue RTF-PEM supervisor is established by who and works on which TAC channels</p>

A

<p>IC and 7a or 8/a and 14a or 15a.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

<p>1st Arriving EMS captain on a ASHER/MCI “SHOULD”?</p>

A

<p>BE the incident safety officer<br></br>Ensure the following items are brought to the FUP - Forming up Position<br></br>- Available RTF- PEM kits<br></br>- Available SKEDS<br></br>-Available TQ’s<br></br>-Available Mega movers<br></br>-Available Trauma rapid response kits</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

<p>The IC should request how many TAC channelsfor an ASHER/ MCI</p>

A

<p>3 TAC channels:<br></br>1. RTF-PEM<br></br>2. Medical<br></br>3. Staging</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

<p>What level MCI and why should be set for ASHER/MCI ?</p>

A

<p>Level 2 due to unknown amount of victims</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

<p>1st arriving unit responsibilities on a ASHER/MCI?</p>

A

<p>Establish command<br></br>Set LEVEL 2 staging<br></br>Set up command at Staging<br></br>Establish a unified command with LE.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

<p>Who gets notified of an ASHER/MCI incident?</p>

A

<p>FOO <br></br><br></br>PIO</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

<p>Response code levels to an ASHER/MCI by Fire Rescue are?</p>

A

<p>Code 3 with lights and sirens until unit crosses the LE perimeter./</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

<p>Unified command will use which management system?</p>

A

<p>NIMS- National incident Management system</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

<p>RTF-PEM teams are committed by the IC only when ?</p>

A

<p>Threat to life<br></br><br></br>Benefits outweigh risks</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

<p>The IC shall be advised immediately during an ASHER/ MCI when ?</p>

A

<p>Fire rescue personnel are requested to or are found in the “HOT or Exclusion “ zones</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

<p>Definition of “Cold Zone” for an ASHER/ MCI?</p>

A

<p>Area of no risk<br></br>Cold “O” no “O”<br></br>All support operations<br></br>Unified command<br></br>Final approach position <br></br>Staging</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

<p>Definition of “Warm Zone” for ASHER/ MCI?</p>

A

<p>Area with “LITTLE” risk <br></br>RTF-PEM teams operate<br></br>CCP operates here</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

<p>Definition of HOT zone with ASHER/MCI?</p>

A

<p>HIgh risk area<br></br>No FF operations allowed</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

<p>Definition of the “exclusion zone”?</p>

A

<p>Risks outweigh the benefits<br></br>No FF operations allowed</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

<p>What are the 4 zones for ASHER/MCI?</p>

A

<p>Exclusion<br></br>Hot<br></br>Warm<br></br>Cold</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

<p>Where does the RTF-PEM team operate?</p>

A

<p>Warm zone only.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

<p>Who makes up the RTF-PEM Team?</p>

A

<p>3 Fire rescue<br></br>4 LE</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

<p>What does RTF-PEM stand for?</p>

A

<p>Rescue task Force- Protective element medical</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

<p>The THREAT acronym for an ASHER/ MCI stands for what ?</p>

A

<p>Threat Supression<br></br>Hemorrhage Control<br></br>Rapid extrication <br></br>Assessment <br></br>Transport</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

<p>What is the main role in an ASHER/MCI for Fire Rescue?</p>

A

<p>Fire and medical decisions</p>

74
Q

<p>Who has the ultimate responsibility for an ASHER/MCI (Active shooter hostile event response)?</p>

A

<p>Law Enforcement</p>

75
Q

<p>What does ASHER/ MCI stand for?</p>

A

<p>Active Shooter Hostile Event Response- Mass casualty incident</p>

76
Q

<p>What is the primary goal with an active shooter event?</p>

A

<p>Ensure joint command and communications from FR and LE to minimize the risk and maximize safety for all response personnel.</p>

77
Q

<p>What other documentation is needed post resuscitation termination of efforts?</p>

A

<p>EKG strip to PCR<br></br>ETCO2 to PCR for advanced airway placement</p>

78
Q

<p>When can a body be covered with a sheet?</p>

A

<p>When no suspicion of a crime scene</p>

79
Q

<p>For termination of resuscitation efforts who does the scene get turned over to?</p>

A

<p>Law enforcement <br></br>Or CARES team.</p>

80
Q

<p>How can a DNRO be revoked?</p>

A

<p>By writing<br></br>Physical destruction<br></br>Failure to produce<br></br>Orally expressing a contrary intent</p>

81
Q

<p>Who can revoke a DNRO?</p>

A

<p>Patient<br></br>Surrogate<br></br>Proxy<br></br>Court order<br></br>Power of attorney</p>

82
Q

<p>What are acceptable forms of ID for DNRO</p>

A

<p>Drivers license <br></br>Other photo identification <br></br>Witness in the presence of the patient</p>

83
Q

<p>The DNRO identification device must be signed by who if the patient cannot provide consent?</p>

A

<p>Surrogate <br></br>Proxy<br></br>court order<br></br>Power of attorney</p>

84
Q

<p>A valid DNRO shall be:</p>

A

<p>Signed by the competent patient or patients representative <br></br>Signed by the licensed Florida physician <br></br>Be on original canary yellow or copied on similar colored paper.</p>

85
Q

<p>The following SHALL NEVER be performed on patients with a DNRO?</p>

A

<p>Artificial respiration<br></br> BVM<br></br> ET tube<br></br> Supraglottic A/W<br></br>Chest compressions<br></br>Defibrillation</p>

86
Q

<p>A DNRO applies to who?</p>

A

<p>Cardiac or respiratory arrest <br></br>Succumbing to a disease process of a terminal illness</p>

87
Q

<p>Refusal breakdown chart?</p>

A

<p>Refusals:<br></br>Adults<br></br>Minors<br></br>Pregnancy<br></br>Diabetics<br></br><br></br>Treatment refusal:<br></br>Death or disability <br></br>AAOx4 w/ no life or potential life threatening condition to impair judgment <br></br>Have Capacity<br></br><br></br>Transport refusal:<br></br>Death or disability <br></br>AAOx4 w/ no life or potential life threatening condition to impair judgment<br></br>Have capacity<br></br>Patent assessment<br></br>Physical exam<br></br>2 sets of V/S<br></br>Meet all previous criteria for refusal</p>

88
Q

<p>What shall be documented for refusals of Transport?</p>

A

<p>Death Disablity, AAOx4, Clinically sober, impaired judgement, capacity, assessment, exam, 2 set v/s.<br></br><br></br>Not being transported may result in death or disability<br></br>AAOx4- clinically sober, with no life or potential life threatening conditions to impair judgment <br></br>Capacity<br></br><br></br>Patient assessment<br></br>Physical exam<br></br>2 sets of V/S</p>

89
Q

<p>What shall be documented in the pcr for refusals of treatment?</p>

A

<p>Refusal can result in death or disability <br></br>They were AAOx4- clinically sober w/ no life or potential life threatening conditions <br></br>Have the capacity to refuse</p>

90
Q

<p>If a parent or guardian refuses a physical exam what must be documented?</p>

A

<p>Visual exam<br></br>Mental status<br></br>General appearance<br></br>Work of breathing <br></br>Circulation to skin</p>

91
Q

<p>What are the oral hypoglycemic medications?</p>

A

<p>Glipizide<br></br>Glyburide<br></br>Glimperide</p>

92
Q

<p>Diabetics can refuse transport if ALL the following are met?</p>

A

<p>Baseline, Levels, Food, Adult, oral <br></br><br></br>Regained baseline mental status <br></br>Blood sugar has returned to normal levels<br></br>Immediate access to food<br></br>A competent adult is present and willing to assume care<br></br>Meets criteria to for a general refusal. <br></br>Not taking oral hypoglycemic medications</p>

93
Q

<p>Pregnant minors can refuse transport only for?</p>

A

<p>Only if the condition if the condition is related to the pregnancy. If not, then no refusal. Ie. Broken leg.</p>

94
Q

<p>If a parent is consenting by phone to not have minor treated or transported and no one can sign the refusal form what happens?</p>

A

<p>Minor to be transported to the appropriate emergency department</p>

95
Q

<p>Minors refusal criteria?</p>

A

<p>Parent or legal guardian<br></br><18 yrs old if Married<br></br> emancipation <br></br> military<br></br>Parent or guardian by phone w/ person on scene willing to sign</p>

96
Q

<p>Adult who can refuse treatment or transport criteria?</p>

A

<p>>18 yrs old<br></br>AAOx4<br></br>Clinically sober<br></br>Hypoxia< 94 on room air<br></br>COPD < 90<br></br>Syncope<br></br>Head injury w/ LOC<br></br>>100.5<br></br>Sever pain<br></br>Hypotension<br></br>Stroke</p>

97
Q

<p>What patients my be examined, treated, or transported without their consent?</p>

A

<p>Suspected medical conditions that are likely to be incapacitated from intoxication or other medical conditionsl</p>

98
Q

<p>In order to sign a refusal for transport Fire rescue personnel SHALL?</p>

A

<p>Exhaust all reasonable efforts have been exhausted <br></br><br></br>Inform the patient that if at any time they change mind or condition deteriorates/ changes they should call 911</p>

99
Q

<p>With refusals, who may help convince a patient?</p>

A

<p>Family members <br></br>Friends<br></br>Physician<br></br>EMS captain<br></br>Medical director</p>

100
Q

<p>An “After Action Review” is required for what level MCI?</p>

A

<p>Level 3 or higher</p>

101
Q

<p>The MCI transport log has what information on it?</p>

A

<p>Patient METTAG ID<br></br>Destination hospital <br></br>Transport unit number</p>

102
Q

<p>During an MCI command needs to be updated with what information?</p>

A

<p>Number of patients<br></br>Patient categories<br></br>Additional resources needed.</p>

103
Q

<p>Additional backboards can be requested from who?</p>

A

<p>Support 81<br></br>Rescues in staging<br></br>Inventory specialist</p>

104
Q

<p>Safety officer responsibility for an MCI are to do 3 things:</p>

A

<p>1. Request LE<br></br>2. Provide physical security <br></br>3. Exclusion zone</p>

105
Q

<p>When declaring an MCI what 2 things must be included?</p>

A

<p>LEVEL and TYPE</p>

106
Q

<p>The first arriving unit responsibilities to an MCI are what ?</p>

A

<p>Establish Command<br></br>360<br></br>Establish exclusion zone<br></br>Declare LEVEL and TYPE MCI<br></br>Initial triage<br></br>Assign incoming units based on LIPE<br></br>Additional resources<br></br> Staging officer</p>

107
Q

<p>Who maintains the list of resources that may be beneficial in an MCI?</p>

A

<p>FOO</p>

108
Q

<p>Command structure assignments for an MCI may include what?</p>

A

<p>Treatment<br></br>Transport<br></br>Triage<br></br>Staging<br></br>Rehab<br></br>Hazard mitigation</p>

109
Q

<p>METTAG number, basic information and tx information are required for what level MCI?</p>

A

<p>3 or above</p>

110
Q

<p>Name, DOB, phone number and brief narrative are required for which levels of an MCI?</p>

A

<p>Levels 1 and 2</p>

111
Q

<p>MCI types are classified as:</p>

A

<p>CBRNE<br></br>Shootings<br></br>MVC’s<br></br>Plane crashes<br></br>Collapse</p>

112
Q

<p>MCI levels are what numbers?</p>

A

<p>1- 1-10<br></br>2-11-20<br></br>3.21-100<br></br>4.101-1000<br></br>5.greater than 1000.</p>

113
Q

<p>Definition of an MCI?</p>

A

<p>One that exceeds the capabilities of the first arriving units?</p>

114
Q

<p>Summary of a patient is when the following are met?</p>

A

<p>Any medical complaint, injury or distress<br></br>Suggestive acute injury or illness<br></br>Lack of capacity <br></br>MVC with more than :<br></br> Minor Damage<br></br> no restraints<br></br> air bags<br></br> Steering wheeL<br></br> occupant injuries<br></br> appearance and behavior not normal<br></br>Fall that cannot get up on their own<br></br>Public assists with acute ambulatory issues</p>

115
Q

<p>Public assists are patients when?</p>

A

<p>Inability to ambulate is chronic</p>

116
Q

<p>The definition of “Capacity “ is?</p>

A

<p>The ability to understand the benefits, risks, and alternatives to a proposed tx or intervention.</p>

117
Q

<p>People on the ground are patients when?</p>

A

<p>Unable to get up without assistance <br></br><br></br>Gets up but does not have capacity</p>

118
Q

<p>Motor vehicle accident criteria for a patient?</p>

A

<p>Greater than minor damage<br></br><br></br>No restraint used<br></br><br></br>Air bag deployed <br></br><br></br>Steering wheel damage<br></br><br></br>Other occupants have injuries <br></br><br></br>Appearance and behavior not normal</p>

119
Q

<p>A patient exists when ?</p>

A

<p>medical complaint, <br></br><br></br>obvious injury, <br></br><br></br>appears in distress<br></br><br></br>Suggestive of acute illness or injury<br></br> Such as: HX, MOI, appearance<br></br><br></br>Lack of capacity</p>

120
Q

<p>The unit rehab tracking worksheet becomes part of what?</p>

A

<p>Permanent medical record.</p>

121
Q

<p>Where do companies leaving rehab report to?</p>

A

<p>Staging</p>

122
Q

<p>The rehab tracking worksheet has what recorded on them ?</p>

A

<p>Pulse<br></br>BP<br></br>Temp<br></br>Respirations<br></br>SP02<br></br>SPCO<br></br>SPMET</p>

123
Q

<p>Where should the SCBA refill are be located?</p>

A

<p>Near the “Drop Zone” in the WARM zone</p>

124
Q

<p>The incident safety officer will have the 1st EMS captain on all \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_provide what to whom?</p>

A

<p>Working fires and Hazmat incidents their rainbow sensor to the Rehab unit.</p>

125
Q

<p>An assistant safety officer may be assigned by the IC for rehab under what incidents?</p>

A

<p>Physical labor of > 2 hours<br></br>Excessive rotation of companies <br></br>Incidents that require defined hourly work periods <br></br>Hire rise fires not controlled by a single company <br></br>Wildland fires<br></br>Hazmat incidents<br></br>Confined space incidents</p>

126
Q

<p>Companies should be placed in rehab when ?</p>

A

<p>Worked for 45min<br></br>Used 2 air bottles consecutively <br></br>Rehab chart</p>

127
Q

<p>If there is no logistics branch who does the rehab unit report to?</p>

A

<p>IC</p>

128
Q

<p>The rehab unit works under which command branch?</p>

A

<p>Logistics</p>

129
Q

<p>Rehab 24 hours post fire incident refer to as?</p>

A

<p>Carbon monoxide and cyanide exposures</p>

130
Q

<p>Rehab 6 hours post fire incident is in reference to ?</p>

A

<p>Cardiac arrest and WILL be treated for cyanide exposure</p>

131
Q

<p>What are the time frames for rehab?</p>

A

<p>20 min X 2 for a total of 40 minutes. After 40 minutes BLS/ALS tx, and transport or referral to OHC</p>

132
Q

<p>What are the medical NO-GO criteria?</p>

A

<p>SBP< 100<br></br>Pulse >100 with ANY of the following:<br></br> Temp > 101<br></br> SBP> 180<br></br> DBP>100<br></br>SPCO>0<br></br>ALS S/S.</p>

133
Q

<p>What percent is active cooling better than passive cooling?</p>

A

<p>50-60% more</p>

134
Q

<p>What is the most important V/S to stabilize?</p>

A

<p>CORE temperature</p>

135
Q

<p>What is the priority order for REHAB?</p>

A

<p>RHEBA<br></br><br></br>1. Rest<br></br>2. Hydration<br></br>3. Energy nutrition<br></br>4. BLS and ALS<br></br>5. Accommodation for weather.</p>

136
Q

<p>What are the 5 components of REHAB?</p>

A

<p>1. Rest<br></br><br></br>2.Energy nutrition <br></br>3. Hydration<br></br>4. Accommodation for weather<br></br>5. BLS and ALS monitoring</p>

137
Q

<p>How many of hours of work may be sustained if \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and hours\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>Rest <br></br>Hydration<br></br>Energy nutrition<br></br><br></br>At least 4 hours</p>

138
Q

<p>The heat stress index Is made up from ?</p>

A

<p>1. Air Temperature <br></br>2. Air Speed<br></br>3. Humidity<br></br>4. Radiation - direct sun light</p>

139
Q

<p>PBCFR used which Rehab standard for Heat stress index?</p>

A

<p>WBGT- Wet bulb globe temperature</p>

140
Q

<p>TIC limitations:</p>

A

<p>Cannot see into a windowless building- need temperature differences<br></br>Cannot see under water<br></br>Cannot see through windows or glass<br></br>Cannot see through highly reflective materials - stainless, steel, mirrors, windows</p>

141
Q

<p>TICs are used for:</p>

A

<p>Search and rescue<br></br><br></br>Fire Attack<br></br><br></br>Overhaul<br></br><br></br>HAZMAT<br></br><br></br>Vehicle accidents</p>

142
Q

<p>Who are responsible for checking the TIC?</p>

A

<p>All company officers and chief officers in custody of the TIC.</p>

143
Q

<p>TIC’s are assigned to which apparatus?</p>

A

<p>Every Engine, rescue, EMS captain , and BC.</p>

144
Q

<p>TIC operations for the most prominent feature of a FF is ?</p>

A

<p>SCBA bottle</p>

145
Q

<p>TIC operations with victim or FF in structure fire will appear ?</p>

A

<p>Dark</p>

146
Q

<p>TIC operations in normal temperatures - a victim or FF will appear what color?</p>

A

<p>White</p>

147
Q

<p>TIC operations: our eyes work by seeing contrast by objects that are illuminated by either. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ or. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>Sun or another from of light</p>

148
Q

<p>The IC or ISO shall determine if it is safe for what to happen when atmospheric monitoring?</p>

A

<p>1. FF remove their respiratory protection<br></br>2.Occupants to enter the structure<br></br>3.Fire investigators to enter any structure</p>

149
Q

<p>What are Half mask cartridge respirators w/ organic vapors particularly used for?</p>

A

<p>Wildland fires<br></br><br></br>D/O operating at the pump panel<br></br><br></br>ISO<br></br><br></br>Post fire activities</p>

150
Q

<p>Half mask cartridge respirators with organic vapor filters can be used when 2 conditions apply?</p>

A

<p>OV only and 02 is normal</p>

151
Q

<p>The ISO with regards to atomospheric monitoring SHALL ensure:</p>

A

<p>Levels are safe before allowing personnel to remove SCBA during overhaul <br></br><br></br>Benefits outweigh risks with OV<br></br>Respiratory protection is used accordingly</p>

152
Q

<p>H2s has an almond like Oder detectable at what levels?</p>

A

<p>1-5ppm and 60-70% of the population</p>

153
Q

<p>What are normal atmospheric conditions</p>

A

<p>O2- 21%<br></br>LEL -0%<br></br>CO- 0 PPM<br></br>H2S- 0 PPM</p>

154
Q

<p>What gas and how much is required for both drager monitors to operate correctly?</p>

A

<p>02 and 10% above</p>

155
Q

<p>What are the common gasses between the drager atmospheric monitors</p>

A

<p>O2<br></br>Flammability <br></br>CO</p>

156
Q

<p>Active atmospheric monitoring is used when ?</p>

A

<p>Firefighter is actively monitoring an atmosphere to detect the presence of a leak<br></br>Investigating residential or commercial alarm activations to determine hazards</p>

157
Q

<p>When an atmospheric monitor alarms who SHALL be informed?</p>

A

<p>IC</p>

158
Q

<p>The Drager X am 5000 monitors which substances?</p>

A

<p>O2<br></br>Flammability <br></br>CO<br></br>H2S<br></br>OV</p>

159
Q

<p>The difference between the drager X am 2500 and 5000 is ?</p>

A

<p>The 500o does OV monitoring for Ethylene oxide</p>

160
Q

<p>Who is equipped with the drager X-am 5000 5 gas monitor</p>

A

<p>EMS captains</p>

161
Q

<p>Atmospheric monitors are carried on which vehicles</p>

A

<p>Engines<br></br>Aerials<br></br>Rescues<br></br>BC<br></br>EMS captain <br></br>Special ops</p>

162
Q

<p>During which incidents is the TAC stick particularly useful?</p>

A

<p>Night operations and post storm area searches.</p>

<p>Fires</p>

<p>Powerlines down</p>

163
Q

<p>When using the TAC stick the user should start on which sensitivity?</p>

A

<p>HIGH and move to lower ones later.</p>

164
Q

<p>The 3 sensitivities for the TAC are?</p>

A

<p>HIGH<br></br>LOW <br></br>FRONT</p>

165
Q

<p>The TAC stick does not?</p>

A

<p>Read DC current<br></br>Or pick up shielded AC voltage</p>

166
Q

<p>The TAC stick has 4 indicators?</p>

A

<p>Detects AC current only<br></br><br></br>Provides warning in audible beeps and flashes<br></br><br></br>Warning signals increase in strength as amplitude increases<br></br><br></br>Warning signal s make it possible to locate the signal quickly</p>

167
Q

<p>The ONLY useful purpose for a TAC stick is:</p>

A

<p>To identify energy sources that were not previously aware of</p>

168
Q

<p>The TAC stick shall only be used to?</p>

A

<p>Identify an energized source so an exclusionary zone can be created</p>

169
Q

<p>During a “MAYDAY” the ISO should request what?</p>

A

<p>An additional safety officer</p>

170
Q

<p>When a “MAYDAY” is called what happens to the Tac channels?</p>

A

<p>The MAYDAY remains on the original channel and other operations will switch .</p>

171
Q

<p>The term “MAYDAY” should be used when ?</p>

A

<p>Lost<br></br>Trapped<br></br>Disoriented <br></br>Seriously injured <br></br>Air emergency<br></br>‘In need of immediate help</p>

172
Q

<p>“Mayday” definition is?</p>

A

<p>Lost<br></br>Trapped<br></br>Disoriented <br></br>Seriously injured<br></br>Experiencing an Air emergency <br></br>In need of immediate help</p>

173
Q

<p>The following incidents REQUIRE an assistant safety officer?</p>

A

<p>Hazardous material<br></br>Dive team operations<br></br>Open water incidents<br></br>Rehab when assigned</p>

174
Q

<p>How are safety officers general y assigned?</p>

A

<p>To a geographical or functional area.</p>

175
Q

<p>Who do assistant safety officers report to?</p>

A

<p>Directly to the Incident safety officer</p>

176
Q

<p>Once assigned to Safety officer what are the duties?</p>

A

<p>Don appropriate vest and PPE<br></br>Ensure no entry into the hot zone as a single person<br></br>Ensure all control zones are established or adjust as necessary<br></br>Ensure exclusion zones are recognized<br></br>Rehab<br></br>Atmospheric monitoring<br></br>Remain on scene until relieved by the IC or designee<br></br>Document actions as to the incident reporting guide<br></br>any accidents injuries or unsafe acts or safety concerns should follow the CQI<br></br>Communicate with EMERGENCY TRAFFIC the exclusion zone</p>

177
Q

<p>A safety office shall be appointed on the following incidents?</p>

A

<p>HWH-hazardous, Wildland, high hazard<br></br><br></br>Incident becomes so large, complex, or dangerous that reasoned safety is potentially threatened.<br></br>Hazardous or potentially hazardous environments: <br></br> Structure fires<br></br> Special operations incidents<br></br> Large multi casualty incidents<br></br>Wild land fires with 4 or more units or during extreme weather.<br></br>Any high Hazard Training:<br></br> Live burn evolutions<br></br> Smoke drills<br></br> Dive rescue<br></br> Extrication<br></br> Elevated victim rescue<br></br> above or Below grade operations<br></br> confined space rescue</p>

178
Q

<p>Only those person who have completed and approved Incident safety officer course \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ be used as a safety officer.</p>

A

<p>SHOULD</p>

179
Q

<p>A safety office should have a working knowledge of what?</p>

A

<p>Safety concerns for fire rescue in typical incidents<br></br>Fire behavior<br></br>Building construction <br></br>EMS</p>

180
Q

<p>All safety officers will have the authority to ?</p>

A

<p>Identify and correct safety and heath hazards <br></br><br></br>To alter,suspend, or terminate un -safe acts that involve an imminent hazard to personnel <br></br>Inform the IC of the 2 items above</p>

181
Q

<p>Who’s responsibility is it to assign a safety officer?</p>

A

<p>IC</p>

EMS captain (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions