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EMS captain > 2021 EMS Protocols REVERSE > Flashcards

2021 EMS Protocols REVERSE Flashcards

1
Q

Who is allowed to deviate from the protocols?

A

Ems captains and Trauma hawk Personnel

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2
Q

In mutual aid circumstances whose protocols should be followed?

A

The transporting agency.

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3
Q

Oxygen is to be administered only when?

A

maintain sp02 of 95% all patients
90% for COPD and asthma.

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4
Q

ET tubes shall be confirmed how? 3 methods.

A

visualization
esophageal intubation detector (if available)
continuous EtCo2

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5
Q

Ventilatory rates are the following?

A

Adults- Pulse 1 q6
No pulse 1 q10
ICP 30-35mmhg
Pediatrics Pulse 1 q3
No Pulse 1 q6
ICP- 30-35mmHg

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6
Q

EtCO2 monitoring will be performed on which pts?

A

Respiratory distress
AMS
Sedated / pain medication
seizure pts
ketamine pts

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7
Q

which pt’s are required to have a 12 and 15 lead performed?

A

chest, Arm, neck, back, jaw, shoulder, epigastric pn or discomfort
palpitations
syncope, lightheadness, general weakness, fatigue
SOB, CHF, or hypotension
unexplained diaphoresis or nausea.

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8
Q

12 lead cables will remain on the pt until when?

A

turned over the ED staff when transporting.

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9
Q

12 leads will be repeated how often?

A

q 10min

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10
Q

Which pt’s shall have a BGL checked?

A

Diabetics
AMS
seizure
stroke
syncope,
lightheadedness,
dizziness
poisoning
cardiac arrest

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11
Q

A complete set of v/s consists of what and done how often?

A

Pulse,- Rate rhythm quality
Respirations-Rate and Quality
Temp
Pulse ox
BP- cap refill
ETC02
BGL

Priority 3 - at least 2 sets
Priority 2- q 5min.

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12
Q

Adult hypotension is defined as?

A

systolic BP> 90.

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13
Q

When should manual BP’s be taken?

A

Initially and to confirm any abnormal or significant change in an automatic BP.

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14
Q

Pt’s that have not reached puberty shall be classified as how?

A

pediatric pts.

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15
Q

When using the Hand Tevy method, what is used for the PRIMARY reference point?

A

age

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16
Q

What type of pts’ meeting trauma alert criteria transported by AIR to St. mary’s?

A

Pregnant (visibly pregnant or by hx of gestation >20wks)

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17
Q

All intubated interfacility transfers must be ______ and ______ by the sending facility.

A

paralyzed and sedated.

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18
Q

If the sending facility physician refuses to administer paralytics for a trauma transfer then what?

A

Crew must contact the EMS Captain and follow the advanced A/W protocol, and accompany pt to the receiving facility.

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19
Q

What type of alerts go by air if ground transport is greater than what time?

A

40mminutes:
Decompression Sickness
STROKE
STEMI

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20
Q

Stroke pt with transport times greater than 20 min go where?

A

depends- if all other criteria are met;
1. transport time to comprehensive is > 20 min
2. onset time < 2hr
3. no tpa exclusions
4. no severe headache
Primary center, if not all met, comprehensive center.

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21
Q

Pediatric pts are age what?

A

less than 18.

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22
Q

Where do decompression CO, H2S and CN poisonings go?

A

Hyberbaric chamber @ st mary’s hospital.

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23
Q

Where are psychiatric pts transported?

A

stable- closest facility
unstable- closest ED for stabilization.

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24
Q

What are the criteria for someone to request a “Free Standing” ED?

A

Stable Patients
informed if admitted they will be transferred.
sign “Emergency Transport Disclaimer”

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25
Q

What are the Air Transport time criteria?

A

STEMI / Stroke >40min
Trauma > 25min
Extrication >15min
Response time >10min

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26
Q

When can air transport NOT be used?

A

Pt weighing > 500lbs or 227kg
Pt that cannot lay supine
combative and cannot be physically restrained
Hazmat contaminated pts

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27
Q

What does MICCR stand for?

A

Minimally Interrupted cardio-cerebral resusitation

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28
Q

Cardiac arrest pt’s with the use of a “Lucas” device will be placed on what?

A

Scoop stretcher and elevated 15 degrees.

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29
Q

All IVP medications for an arrest are followed by what?

A

10ml saline Flush

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30
Q

Termination efforts can be done when?

A

EMS captain OS
persistent asystole for 15 min
Etco2< 10mmHg
No hypothermia
1 defibrillation @ 360j.
500ml NS
All ALS interventions have been completed and reversible causes
addressed.
Social support group is in place for family if needed.

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31
Q

What is considered a “SECONDARY” arrest?

A

CHF, drowning, FBAO, OD, Hanging, lightning strike- DC current., Trauma, CN, 3rd Trimester pregnancy

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32
Q

When does a ResQpod get placed?

A

all cardiac arrest patients that are greater than 1yr old.

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33
Q

What are the contraindications for the “ResQpod”

A

Pt less than 1 yr old
Pt’s with a pulse
Cardiac arrest due to trauma
during passive oxygenation

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34
Q

If a rhythm converts back after electrical therapy was used what setting should be used ?

A

the setting that was successful in converting the rhythm.

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35
Q

Medications should be delivered when in cardiac arrest ?

A

ASAP after rhythm check and circulated for 2 min

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36
Q

What is the dose of MGSO4 in Torsades?

A

adults- 2g in 50 ml 60gtts wide open
pedi- 40mg/kg in 50ml 60gtts wide open

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37
Q

primary and secondary arrest pt’s go to which facilites?

A

primary- STEMI facility
secondary- Closest faclility

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38
Q

Spinal motion restriction for what criteria?

A

focal neurologic deficit
pain to the neck or back
distracting injury
AMS w/ an MOI
intoxication w/ MOI

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39
Q

Sager splints are used on what type fx?

A

Closed Mid shaft femur only

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40
Q

What are the oral hypoglycemic medications

A

Glipizide, Glyburide, Glimepiride

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41
Q

indications for Hyperkalemia for CaCl2?

A

Peaked T waves
Sine wave
Wide complex QRS
RRWCT
severe bradycardia
high degree blocks

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42
Q

it is more important to maintain what levels for COPD and asthma patients?

A

SPo2 at 90%

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43
Q

Auto PEEP is what?

A

When Air goes in before a patient is allowed to exhale.

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44
Q

Differences in Croup and Epiglottitis?

A

Chonic vs Acute
sick for a few days vs Sudden onset
low grade fever vs high grade fever
not toxic looking vs drooling and tripod

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45
Q

Ketamine for seizures is what and what contraindications?

A

Adults :100mg- pregnancy
penetrating eye
non traumatic chest pain
Pedi >3yrs: 1mg/kg

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46
Q

Sepsis alert criteria?

A

Adult not pregnant
suspected or documented infection
Hypotension
AMS
Tachypnea - RR>22 or ETco2 < 25mmHg

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47
Q

Which patients receive fluids despite having rales?

A

Septic pneumonia patients

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48
Q

What is the tine frame for not considering a stroke not an Alert

A

Witnessed greater than 24 hours

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49
Q

What are the precautions with Ketamine in seizure patients?

A

Respiratory distress- need for an advanced airway
HTN
Schiziophrenia

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50
Q

What is the criteria for unstable Afib/ flutter

A

Hypotension only

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51
Q

Bradycardia is defined as?

A

< 50 BPM

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52
Q

Unstable bradycardia is defined as?

A

Adult: >50 BPM w. hypotension
Pedi: >50 w/ AMS and age hypotension

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53
Q

For both adult and peds with pacing, what can be given if normotensive and no IV?

A

Versed- 5mg IN/IM only
0.2mg/kg IN/IM only

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54
Q

Pacing for a peds starts at what?

A

80 BPM

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55
Q

What is the initial treatment for bradycardia in peds?

A

Oxygenation / Ventilation
Neonate: 1 q 3 for 30 sec
Infant: 1 q 3 for 1 min

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56
Q

Which extremity is to be avoided with vascular access in chest pain?

A

Right hand and wrist.

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57
Q

STEMI alert criteria?

A

2mm elevation smiley face concave in any leads
2mm elevation frown face convex on V2 and V3
1mm elevation frown face convex in any leads

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58
Q

What are STEMI disqualifiers?

A

LBBB
LVH
Early Repolarization
Pacemaker with QRS > .12

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59
Q

When does NTG get withheld in CHF patients?

A

febrile patients or nursing home with pneumonia

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60
Q

Stable SVT treatment is?

A

Adults 12mg Adenosine
Pedi- 0.2mg Adenosine

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61
Q

Unstable SVT treatment is ?

A

AMS-
Adult 100, 200, 300, 360J
Pedi: 0.5J/kg and 2J/kg

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62
Q

Vtach is defined as?

A

No p waves
QRS > .12
Concordance in all leads
Neg QRS V6
Neg in 2, 2, AVF and positive in AVL, and AVR

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63
Q

Vtach stable treatment?

A

Adult : Amiodarone 150mg in 50 15gtts
Pedi: 5mg/kg in 50 15 gtts

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64
Q

Unstable Vtach

A

Adult : Cardio version 100, 200, 300. 360J
Pedi : 0.5J/kg and 2j/kg

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65
Q

What makes a Vtach patient unstable?

A

Contraindications to Amiodarone:
Sinus bradycardia
2/3 degree blocks
cardiogenic shock
hypotension
QTC >500

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66
Q

RRWCT is defined as?

A

> 0.20 or 5 boxes

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67
Q

Treatment for RRWCT is?

A

Stable :Adult 1g cacl2
100mg bicarb
Pedi: 20mg/kg cacl2
1meq/kg bicarb

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68
Q

What makes RRWCT unstable ?

A

hypotension

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69
Q

Torsades de point stable treatment?

A

2g mgso4 in 50 60gtts
Pedi : 40mg in 50 60gtts

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70
Q

Torsades de point unstable is defined as and treated how?

A

Hypotension:
defib 200, 300, 360
defib 2J/kg and 4J/kg

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71
Q

AEIOU TIPS ?

A

Alcohol, Epilepsy, Insulin, OD, underdose
Trauma, infection, pyschosis, stroke

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72
Q

Compressions for an LVAD device are ?

A

Not using the LUCAS
The Right of the sternum.

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73
Q

LVAD patients go to which facility

A

JFK

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74
Q

Treatment for an LVAD ?

A

locate emergency bag
take all equipment to ER
verify device is working by lack of pulse or measurable BP.
LIsten for continuous humming.
Hypotensive Fluids 1L
Compressions if unresponsive and unable to restart device or not working.

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75
Q

which cardiac arrest patients MUST be transported

A

Witnesed

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76
Q

What are the determination of death criteria

A
  1. Lividity
  2. Rigor mortis
  3. tissue decomposition
  4. Valid DNRO
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77
Q

What if the death criteria are not there what can be used?

A

Known down time of >30min
Apneic
Without mechanism for Hypothermia
Asystolic
Fixed and dilated pupils

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78
Q

Electrocution and LIghtning strikes are what type of arrests

A

Primary b/c of A/C current
Secondary due to DC current

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79
Q

When can an arrest be called?

A

EMS captain on scene
persisent asystole for >15min
ALS interventions
Etco2< 10
H and T’s or reversible causes treated
1 defib
500 ml NS
Normothermic
support group

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80
Q

What are four protocols where on 500ml NS are used?

A

Decompression sickness
Calling an arrest.
2nd > 15% or 3rd > 5% degree burns

Hyperkalemia

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81
Q

What is the o2 setting for initial arrest

A

8L/min for 6 min on oxygen port

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82
Q

What are the amiodarone contraindications

A

Qtc >500
Blocks
Bradycardia
Hypotension
cardiogenic shock

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83
Q

What type of arrest is a third trimester female considered?

A

Secondary - and displace the uterus to the left

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84
Q

All drug overdoses are treated as what type of arrest with the exception of?

A

All OD’s except for Cocaine

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85
Q

What are the indications for Esmolol and doses?

A

Immediately after Double sequential
40 mg IV/IO initially over 1 min
Then:
60mg on 15gtts over 10min 1,25gtts/sec

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86
Q

What type of arrests are to be transported to a trauma center?

A

Electrouctions and lighning strikes

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87
Q

Adult Cocaine OD get treated with what?

A

Versed

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88
Q

Pedi cocaine OD get treated with what?

A

Versed

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89
Q

What are the criteria to administer narcan?

A

RR below 10
Etco2 >45
02 sat < 92%
if not meeting above Supplemental 02 or BVM 2 min

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90
Q

Mad as a hatter
Red as a beet
Dry as bone refer to S/S of ?

A

TCA OD

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91
Q

What must TCA ODs be treated with immediately ?

A

Sodium Bicarb

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92
Q

What are the special populations for Ketamine and the dose?

A

Age 65 and older
<50kg
Head trauma
Already took sedatives
200mg

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93
Q

What is the sequence for Combative pts and Ketamina

A

400mg IM
BVM or supplemental 02 for Laryngospasms
0.5mg Atropine for Salivations x3
Ice packs, 1L cold saline and 100meq Sodium Bicarb

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94
Q

How long does Lidocaine dwell in an IO for an adult?

A

1min

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95
Q

Pedi Ketamine for pain is indicated for what age and pain scale?

A

< 3 yrs and 7 or greater pain

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96
Q

Lidocaine in an IO for pedi dwell?

A

2 min

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97
Q

What is the time frame for decompression sickness?

A

48 hours

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98
Q

How much NS admin for Decompression sickness?

A

500ml

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99
Q

When treating Heat stroke?

A

Cool First, transport second

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100
Q

Heat stroke is classified as ?

A

Temp > 103 or AMS

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101
Q

CO poisoning is at what level?

A

35ppm

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102
Q

Who carries a rainbow sensor ?

A

EMS captains and SPLOPS

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103
Q

If SPCO is above what %?

A

>20%

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104
Q

The cyano kit uses how much? at what rate?

A

5g diluted in 200ml and at 5 gtts/sec

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105
Q

What does the MARCH acronym mean?

A

Massive hemorrage
Airway control
Respiratory
Circulation
Head injury / Hypothermia

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106
Q

FAST ultrsound is done for

A

Blunt or penetrating trauma the ABD or thorax
Undifferentiated hypotension in trauma

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107
Q

FAST ultrasounds can be performed to identify?

A

Intrabdominal hemorrage
Intrathoracic hemorrage
pericardial hemorrage
PEA motion

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108
Q

For Trauma patients not to be resuscitated what criteria is needed?

A

Apneic
Fixed dialted pupils
asystole
NEED ALL 3
or injuries incompatible with life

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109
Q

PEA is defined as?

A

an organized rhythm > 20 BPM

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110
Q

When does bilateral decompression get performed?

A

Arrest due to penetrating chest trauma

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111
Q

Ultrasunds in traumatic arrests are done when?

A

observation of cardiac motion in PEA

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112
Q

Finger Thoracostomy is done when ?

A

known or suspected injury to the chest and or abd

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113
Q

Contraindications for Finger Thoracostomy?

A

Unwitnessed arrest with blunt trauma
Devestating head trauma
loss of Cardiac output > 10 min

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114
Q

Jump start triage initial is ?

A

Breathing NO- open A/W - breathing - IMMEDIATE
Breathing NO- open A/W - NO PULSE - DECEASED
Breathing NO-open A/W- Pulse - 5 breaths-no- DECEASED
Breathing NO- open A/W- Pulse- 5 breaths- Yes- IMMEDIATE
Breathing YES- <15 or >45- IMMEDIATE

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115
Q

The “ P” in Jump start triage means what ?

A

posturing

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116
Q

what is Trauma alert criteria for peds with BP?

A

< 50

117
Q

Flail chest sis defined?

A

2 or more adjacent ribs are fractured

118
Q

Criteria for chest decompression

A

Absent or diminshed LS
BP< 90
Respiratory distress or difficulty with BVM

119
Q

What is the primary site for chest decompression?

A

5th intercostal space mid axillary

120
Q

What is the secondary site for chest decompression

A

2 or 3 rd intercostal space mid clavicular

121
Q

Intercrainial pressure and herniation signs are?

A

GCS decline of 2 or more points
sluggish or non reactive pupil
Paralysis or weakness on 1 side of the body
Cushings Triad

122
Q

Adult BP maintain BP for Head injuries is what?

A

SBP 110-120

123
Q

Head injuries ETCO2 is?

A

30-35mmhg

124
Q

How many attempts to realign for anatomical position

A

2

125
Q

What are the contraindications for Ceftriaxone or rocephin?

A

Allergy to cephalosporins
Neonates birth to 30 days

126
Q

Pregnant 3rd trimester trauma alerts get transported how?

A

Left side, 4-6 inches of padding to Right side
Maintain BP for peripheral pulses

127
Q

Gravida and Para definitions

A

Gravida- previous pregnancies
Para- Number of Live births

128
Q

1st and 2nd trimester complications include?

A

Ectopic
Spontaneous
bleeding
hypotensive

129
Q

3rd Trimester complications include

A

Placenta previa-painless vaginal bleeding bright red
Abrupto PLacenta-severe pain sudden onset
Uterine rupture- - intense abd pain and Vaginal bledding

130
Q

Preeclampsia is defined as?

A

SBP >160 DSP > 110 with :
AMS
Headache
Visual disturbances
PE

131
Q

Eclampsia is defined as ?

A

S/S of pre + seizures or coma

132
Q

When can you insert a gloved hand into the vagina for a birth?

A

Breech birth
Prolapsed cord

133
Q

Time for Breech birth actions

A

if not delivered in 3 minutes

134
Q
A
135
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to assign a safety officer?

A

IC

136
Q

All safety officers will have the authority to ?

A

Identify and correct safety and heath hazards

To alter,suspend, or terminate un -safe acts that involve an imminent hazard to personnel
Inform the IC of the 2 items above

137
Q

A safety office should have a working knowledge of what?

A

Safety concerns for fire rescue in typical incidents
Fire behavior
Building construction
EMS

138
Q

Only those person who have completed and approved Incident safety officer course ________ be used as a safety officer.

A

SHOULD

139
Q

How much can a pregnant female lose with regards to blood volume?

A

30-35%

140
Q

During pregnancy what is the possibe BP drop?

A

5-15mmhg.

141
Q

What type of communication is to be used with a second paramedic to ensure proper drug dose?

A

closed loop communication

142
Q

what are the sites for IO insertion for an adult and pediatric?

A

proximal humorous

Proximal Tibia

distal tibia

PEDI: All of the above and Distal Femur.

143
Q

what is the preferred access fo r pediatrics in cardiac arrest?

A

IO

144
Q

for the hx taking in an assessment what pneumoic is used?

A

OPPPQRSTA

145
Q

Ems captains and Trauma hawk Personnel

A

Who is allowed to deviate from the protocols?

146
Q

The transporting agency.

A

In mutual aid circumstances whose protocols should be followed?

147
Q

maintain sp02 of 95% all patients
90% for COPD and asthma.

A

Oxygen is to be administered only when?

148
Q

visualization
esophageal intubation detector (if available)
continuous EtCo2

A

ET tubes shall be confirmed how? 3 methods.

149
Q

Adults- Pulse 1 q6
No pulse 1 q10
ICP 30-35mmhg
Pediatrics Pulse 1 q3
No Pulse 1 q6
ICP- 30-35mmHg

A

Ventilatory rates are the following?

150
Q

Respiratory distress
AMS
Sedated / pain medication
seizure pts
ketamine pts

A

EtCO2 monitoring will be performed on which pts?

151
Q

chest, Arm, neck, back, jaw, shoulder, epigastric pn or discomfort
palpitations
syncope, lightheadness, general weakness, fatigue
SOB, CHF, or hypotension
unexplained diaphoresis or nausea.

A

which pt’s are required to have a 12 and 15 lead performed?

152
Q

turned over the ED staff when transporting.

A

12 lead cables will remain on the pt until when?

153
Q

q 10min

A

12 leads will be repeated how often?

154
Q

Diabetics
AMS
seizure
stroke
syncope,
lightheadedness,
dizziness
poisoning
cardiac arrest

A

Which pt’s shall have a BGL checked?

155
Q

Pulse,- Rate rhythm quality
Respirations-Rate and Quality
Temp
Pulse ox
BP- cap refill
ETC02
BGL

Priority 3 - at least 2 sets
Priority 2- q 5min.

A

A complete set of v/s consists of what and done how often?

156
Q

systolic BP> 90.

A

Adult hypotension is defined as?

157
Q

Initially and to confirm any abnormal or significant change in an automatic BP.

A

When should manual BP’s be taken?

158
Q

pediatric pts.

A

Pt’s that have not reached puberty shall be classified as how?

159
Q

age

A

When using the Hand Tevy method, what is used for the PRIMARY reference point?

160
Q

Pregnant (visibly pregnant or by hx of gestation >20wks)

A

What type of pts’ meeting trauma alert criteria transported by AIR to St. mary’s?

161
Q

paralyzed and sedated.

A

All intubated interfacility transfers must be ______ and ______ by the sending facility.

162
Q

Crew must contact the EMS Captain and follow the advanced A/W protocol, and accompany pt to the receiving facility.

A

If the sending facility physician refuses to administer paralytics for a trauma transfer then what?

163
Q

40mminutes:
Decompression Sickness
STROKE
STEMI

A

What type of alerts go by air if ground transport is greater than what time?

164
Q

depends- if all other criteria are met;
1. transport time to comprehensive is > 20 min
2. onset time < 2hr
3. no tpa exclusions
4. no severe headache
Primary center, if not all met, comprehensive center.

A

Stroke pt with transport times greater than 20 min go where?

165
Q

less than 18.

A

Pediatric pts are age what?

166
Q

Hyberbaric chamber @ st mary’s hospital.

A

Where do decompression CO, H2S and CN poisonings go?

167
Q

stable- closest facility
unstable- closest ED for stabilization.

A

Where are psychiatric pts transported?

168
Q

Stable Patients
informed if admitted they will be transferred.
sign “Emergency Transport Disclaimer”

A

What are the criteria for someone to request a “Free Standing” ED?

169
Q

STEMI / Stroke >40min
Trauma > 25min
Extrication >15min
Response time >10min

A

What are the Air Transport time criteria?

170
Q

Pt weighing > 500lbs or 227kg
Pt that cannot lay supine
combative and cannot be physically restrained
Hazmat contaminated pts

A

When can air transport NOT be used?

171
Q

Minimally Interrupted cardio-cerebral resusitation

A

What does MICCR stand for?

172
Q

Scoop stretcher and elevated 15 degrees.

A

Cardiac arrest pt’s with the use of a “Lucas” device will be placed on what?

173
Q

10ml saline Flush

A

All IVP medications for an arrest are followed by what?

174
Q

EMS captain OS
persistent asystole for 15 min
Etco2< 10mmHg
No hypothermia
1 defibrillation @ 360j.
500ml NS
All ALS interventions have been completed and reversible causes
addressed.
Social support group is in place for family if needed.

A

Termination efforts can be done when?

175
Q

CHF, drowning, FBAO, OD, Hanging, lightning strike- DC current., Trauma, CN, 3rd Trimester pregnancy

A

What is considered a “SECONDARY” arrest?

176
Q

all cardiac arrest patients that are greater than 1yr old.

A

When does a ResQpod get placed?

177
Q

Pt less than 1 yr old
Pt’s with a pulse
Cardiac arrest due to trauma
during passive oxygenation

A

What are the contraindications for the “ResQpod”

178
Q

the setting that was successful in converting the rhythm.

A

If a rhythm converts back after electrical therapy was used what setting should be used ?

179
Q

ASAP after rhythm check and circulated for 2 min

A

Medications should be delivered when in cardiac arrest ?

180
Q

adults- 2g in 50 ml 60gtts wide open
pedi- 40mg/kg in 50ml 60gtts wide open

A

What is the dose of MGSO4 in Torsades?

181
Q

primary- STEMI facility
secondary- Closest faclility

A

primary and secondary arrest pt’s go to which facilites?

182
Q

focal neurologic deficit
pain to the neck or back
distracting injury
AMS w/ an MOI
intoxication w/ MOI

A

Spinal motion restriction for what criteria?

183
Q

Closed Mid shaft femur only

A

Sager splints are used on what type fx?

184
Q

Glipizide, Glyburide, Glimepiride

A

What are the oral hypoglycemic medications

185
Q

Peaked T waves
Sine wave
Wide complex QRS
RRWCT
severe bradycardia
high degree blocks

A

indications for Hyperkalemia for CaCl2?

186
Q

SPo2 at 90%

A

it is more important to maintain what levels for COPD and asthma patients?

187
Q

When Air goes in before a patient is allowed to exhale.

A

Auto PEEP is what?

188
Q

Chonic vs Acute
sick for a few days vs Sudden onset
low grade fever vs high grade fever
not toxic looking vs drooling and tripod

A

Differences in Croup and Epiglottitis?

189
Q

Adults :100mg- pregnancy
penetrating eye
non traumatic chest pain
Pedi >3yrs: 1mg/kg

A

Ketamine for seizures is what and what contraindications?

190
Q

Adult not pregnant
suspected or documented infection
Hypotension
AMS
Tachypnea - RR>22 or ETco2 < 25mmHg

A

Sepsis alert criteria?

191
Q

Septic pneumonia patients

A

Which patients receive fluids despite having rales?

192
Q

Witnessed greater than 24 hours

A

What is the tine frame for not considering a stroke not an Alert

193
Q

Respiratory distress- need for an advanced airway
HTN
Schiziophrenia

A

What are the precautions with Ketamine in seizure patients?

194
Q

Hypotension only

A

What is the criteria for unstable Afib/ flutter

195
Q

< 50 BPM

A

Bradycardia is defined as?

196
Q

Adult: >50 BPM w. hypotension
Pedi: >50 w/ AMS and age hypotension

A

Unstable bradycardia is defined as?

197
Q

Versed- 5mg IN/IM only
0.2mg/kg IN/IM only

A

For both adult and peds with pacing, what can be given if normotensive and no IV?

198
Q

80 BPM

A

Pacing for a peds starts at what?

199
Q

Oxygenation / Ventilation
Neonate: 1 q 3 for 30 sec
Infant: 1 q 3 for 1 min

A

What is the initial treatment for bradycardia in peds?

200
Q

Right hand and wrist.

A

Which extremity is to be avoided with vascular access in chest pain?

201
Q

2mm elevation smiley face concave in any leads
2mm elevation frown face convex on V2 and V3
1mm elevation frown face convex in any leads

A

STEMI alert criteria?

202
Q

LBBB
LVH
Early Repolarization
Pacemaker with QRS > .12

A

What are STEMI disqualifiers?

203
Q

febrile patients or nursing home with pneumonia

A

When does NTG get withheld in CHF patients?

204
Q

Adults 12mg Adenosine
Pedi- 0.2mg Adenosine

A

Stable SVT treatment is?

205
Q

AMS-
Adult 100, 200, 300, 360J
Pedi: 0.5J/kg and 2J/kg

A

Unstable SVT treatment is ?

206
Q

No p waves
QRS > .12
Concordance in all leads
Neg QRS V6
Neg in 2, 2, AVF and positive in AVL, and AVR

A

Vtach is defined as?

207
Q

Adult : Amiodarone 150mg in 50 15gtts
Pedi: 5mg/kg in 50 15 gtts

A

Vtach stable treatment?

208
Q

Adult : Cardio version 100, 200, 300. 360J
Pedi : 0.5J/kg and 2j/kg

A

Unstable Vtach

209
Q

Contraindications to Amiodarone:
Sinus bradycardia
2/3 degree blocks
cardiogenic shock
hypotension
QTC >500

A

What makes a Vtach patient unstable?

210
Q

> 0.20 or 5 boxes

A

RRWCT is defined as?

211
Q

Stable :Adult 1g cacl2
100mg bicarb
Pedi: 20mg/kg cacl2
1meq/kg bicarb

A

Treatment for RRWCT is?

212
Q

hypotension

A

What makes RRWCT unstable ?

213
Q

2g mgso4 in 50 60gtts
Pedi : 40mg in 50 60gtts

A

Torsades de point stable treatment?

214
Q

Hypotension:
defib 200, 300, 360
defib 2J/kg and 4J/kg

A

Torsades de point unstable is defined as and treated how?

215
Q

Alcohol, Epilepsy, Insulin, OD, underdose
Trauma, infection, pyschosis, stroke

A

AEIOU TIPS ?

216
Q

Not using the LUCAS
The Right of the sternum.

A

Compressions for an LVAD device are ?

217
Q

JFK

A

LVAD patients go to which facility

218
Q

locate emergency bag
take all equipment to ER
verify device is working by lack of pulse or measurable BP.
LIsten for continuous humming.
Hypotensive Fluids 1L
Compressions if unresponsive and unable to restart device or not working.

A

Treatment for an LVAD ?

219
Q

Witnesed

A

which cardiac arrest patients MUST be transported

220
Q
  1. Lividity
  2. Rigor mortis
  3. tissue decomposition
  4. Valid DNRO
A

What are the determination of death criteria

221
Q

Known down time of >30min
Apneic
Without mechanism for Hypothermia
Asystolic
Fixed and dilated pupils

A

What if the death criteria are not there what can be used?

222
Q

Primary b/c of A/C current
Secondary due to DC current

A

Electrocution and LIghtning strikes are what type of arrests

223
Q

EMS captain on scene
persisent asystole for >15min
ALS interventions
Etco2< 10
H and T’s or reversible causes treated
1 defib
500 ml NS
Normothermic
support group

A

When can an arrest be called?

224
Q

Decompression sickness
Calling an arrest.
2nd > 15% or 3rd > 5% degree burns

Hyperkalemia

A

What are four protocols where on 500ml NS are used?

225
Q

8L/min for 6 min on oxygen port

A

What is the o2 setting for initial arrest

226
Q

Qtc >500
Blocks
Bradycardia
Hypotension
cardiogenic shock

A

What are the amiodarone contraindications

227
Q

Secondary - and displace the uterus to the left

A

What type of arrest is a third trimester female considered?

228
Q

All OD’s except for Cocaine

A

All drug overdoses are treated as what type of arrest with the exception of?

229
Q

Immediately after Double sequential
40 mg IV/IO initially over 1 min
Then:
60mg on 15gtts over 10min 1,25gtts/sec

A

What are the indications for Esmolol and doses?

230
Q

Electrouctions and lighning strikes

A

What type of arrests are to be transported to a trauma center?

231
Q

Versed

A

Adult Cocaine OD get treated with what?

232
Q

Versed

A

Pedi cocaine OD get treated with what?

233
Q

RR below 10
Etco2 >45
02 sat < 92%
if not meeting above Supplemental 02 or BVM 2 min

A

What are the criteria to administer narcan?

234
Q

TCA OD

A

Mad as a hatter
Red as a beet
Dry as bone refer to S/S of ?

235
Q

Sodium Bicarb

A

What must TCA ODs be treated with immediately ?

236
Q

Age 65 and older
<50kg
Head trauma
Already took sedatives
200mg

A

What are the special populations for Ketamine and the dose?

237
Q

400mg IM
BVM or supplemental 02 for Laryngospasms
0.5mg Atropine for Salivations x3
Ice packs, 1L cold saline and 100meq Sodium Bicarb

A

What is the sequence for Combative pts and Ketamina

238
Q

1min

A

How long does Lidocaine dwell in an IO for an adult?

239
Q

< 3 yrs and 7 or greater pain

A

Pedi Ketamine for pain is indicated for what age and pain scale?

240
Q

2 min

A

Lidocaine in an IO for pedi dwell?

241
Q

48 hours

A

What is the time frame for decompression sickness?

242
Q

500ml

A

How much NS admin for Decompression sickness?

243
Q

Cool First, transport second

A

When treating Heat stroke?

244
Q

Temp > 103 or AMS

A

Heat stroke is classified as ?

245
Q

35ppm

A

CO poisoning is at what level?

246
Q

EMS captains and SPLOPS

A

Who carries a rainbow sensor ?

247
Q

>20%

A

If SPCO is above what %?

248
Q

5g diluted in 200ml and at 5 gtts/sec

A

The cyano kit uses how much? at what rate?

249
Q

Massive hemorrage
Airway control
Respiratory
Circulation
Head injury / Hypothermia

A

What does the MARCH acronym mean?

250
Q

Blunt or penetrating trauma the ABD or thorax
Undifferentiated hypotension in trauma

A

FAST ultrsound is done for

251
Q

Intrabdominal hemorrage
Intrathoracic hemorrage
pericardial hemorrage
PEA motion

A

FAST ultrasounds can be performed to identify?

252
Q

Apneic
Fixed dialted pupils
asystole
NEED ALL 3
or injuries incompatible with life

A

For Trauma patients not to be resuscitated what criteria is needed?

253
Q

an organized rhythm > 20 BPM

A

PEA is defined as?

254
Q

Arrest due to penetrating chest trauma

A

When does bilateral decompression get performed?

255
Q

observation of cardiac motion in PEA

A

Ultrasunds in traumatic arrests are done when?

256
Q

known or suspected injury to the chest and or abd

A

Finger Thoracostomy is done when ?

257
Q

Unwitnessed arrest with blunt trauma
Devestating head trauma
loss of Cardiac output > 10 min

A

Contraindications for Finger Thoracostomy?

258
Q

Breathing NO- open A/W - breathing - IMMEDIATE
Breathing NO- open A/W - NO PULSE - DECEASED
Breathing NO-open A/W- Pulse - 5 breaths-no- DECEASED
Breathing NO- open A/W- Pulse- 5 breaths- Yes- IMMEDIATE
Breathing YES- <15 or >45- IMMEDIATE

A

Jump start triage initial is ?

259
Q

posturing

A

The “ P” in Jump start triage means what ?

260
Q

< 50

A

what is Trauma alert criteria for peds with BP?

261
Q

2 or more adjacent ribs are fractured

A

Flail chest sis defined?

262
Q

Absent or diminshed LS
BP< 90
Respiratory distress or difficulty with BVM

A

Criteria for chest decompression

263
Q

5th intercostal space mid axillary

A

What is the primary site for chest decompression?

264
Q

2 or 3 rd intercostal space mid clavicular

A

What is the secondary site for chest decompression

265
Q

GCS decline of 2 or more points
sluggish or non reactive pupil
Paralysis or weakness on 1 side of the body
Cushings Triad

A

Intercrainial pressure and herniation signs are?

266
Q

SBP 110-120

A

Adult BP maintain BP for Head injuries is what?

267
Q

30-35mmhg

A

Head injuries ETCO2 is?

268
Q

2

A

How many attempts to realign for anatomical position

269
Q

Allergy to cephalosporins
Neonates birth to 30 days

A

What are the contraindications for Ceftriaxone or rocephin?

270
Q

Left side, 4-6 inches of padding to Right side
Maintain BP for peripheral pulses

A

Pregnant 3rd trimester trauma alerts get transported how?

271
Q

Gravida- previous pregnancies
Para- Number of Live births

A

Gravida and Para definitions

272
Q

Ectopic
Spontaneous
bleeding
hypotensive

A

1st and 2nd trimester complications include?

273
Q

Placenta previa-painless vaginal bleeding bright red
Abrupto PLacenta-severe pain sudden onset
Uterine rupture- - intense abd pain and Vaginal bledding

A

3rd Trimester complications include

274
Q

SBP >160 DSP > 110 with :
AMS
Headache
Visual disturbances
PE

A

Preeclampsia is defined as?

275
Q

S/S of pre + seizures or coma

A

Eclampsia is defined as ?

276
Q

Breech birth
Prolapsed cord

A

When can you insert a gloved hand into the vagina for a birth?

277
Q

if not delivered in 3 minutes

A

Time for Breech birth actions

278
Q
A
279
Q

IC

A

Who’s responsibility is it to assign a safety officer?

280
Q

Identify and correct safety and heath hazards

To alter,suspend, or terminate un -safe acts that involve an imminent hazard to personnel
Inform the IC of the 2 items above

A

All safety officers will have the authority to ?

281
Q

Safety concerns for fire rescue in typical incidents
Fire behavior
Building construction
EMS

A

A safety office should have a working knowledge of what?

282
Q

SHOULD

A

Only those person who have completed and approved Incident safety officer course ________ be used as a safety officer.

283
Q

30-35%

A

How much can a pregnant female lose with regards to blood volume?

284
Q

5-15mmhg.

A

During pregnancy what is the possibe BP drop?

285
Q

closed loop communication

A

What type of communication is to be used with a second paramedic to ensure proper drug dose?

286
Q

proximal humorous

Proximal Tibia

distal tibia

PEDI: All of the above and Distal Femur.

A

what are the sites for IO insertion for an adult and pediatric?

287
Q

IO

A

what is the preferred access fo r pediatrics in cardiac arrest?

288
Q

OPPPQRSTA

A

for the hx taking in an assessment what pneumoic is used?

EMS captain (25 decks)

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