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EMS captain > Combined Protocol, DSI, IMS, Exposure > Flashcards

Combined Protocol, DSI, IMS, Exposure Flashcards

1
Q

<p>A significant exposure is deveined as :</p>

A

<p>Needle stick or sharps:<br></br>Blood or fluid containing visible blood<br></br>Semen<br></br>Vaginal fluids<br></br>CSF<br></br>Synovial fluid<br></br>Peritoneal fluid<br></br>Pleural fluid<br></br>Pericardial Fluid<br></br>Amniotic fluid <br></br>Mucous membranes<br></br>Abrased or abraded skin<br></br>Airborne contagions</p>

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2
Q

<p>The exposure control officer works under who?</p>

A

<p>Chief of training and safety division</p>

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3
Q

<p>Exposure to an Airborne contagion other than TB should be documented on ?</p>

A

<p>FR exposure form</p>

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4
Q

<p>For percuteanous needle sticks how to care for them?</p>

A

<p>10 min washing with soap and water or 10% iodine or chlorine compounds until soap and water are available</p>

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5
Q

<p>Washing mucous membranes from significant exposure how?</p>

A

<p>Irrigate with normal saline or water for 10-15min</p>

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6
Q

<p>"Right to know" is applicable for the source patient if?</p>

A

<p>Patient was transported to the hospital<br></br><br></br>Blood drawn for routine medical need.</p>

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7
Q

<p>If the hospital or the physician do not comply with state mandates for exposure testing what happens?</p>

A

<p>Contact the EMS captain who will contact the medical director if necessary.</p>

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8
Q

<p>Ryan White act notification is for what time frame?</p>

A

<p>Within 48hrs of notification of patient diagnosis</p>

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9
Q

<p>EMS captains responsibilities for exposure?</p>

A

<p>Make sure that employee is source tested<br></br>Make sure state mandates are followed at the ER<br></br>Notify the Exposure control officer as soon as possible during working hours or if unusual or receives treatment have paged<br></br>Contact facility for F/U instructions<br></br>Contact the OHC to make arrangements for F/U or as soon a possible for testing<br></br>Ensure Exposure form is filled out and turned in by the end of shift <br></br>Forward the exposure to the Exposure control officer</p>

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10
Q

<p>Definition of “Verification” for exposure?</p>

A

<p>Determining whether a reported exposure is and “Actual” or perceived health threat.</p>

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11
Q

<p>When should post exposure testing occur?</p>

A

<p>1-2 hours preferably at the OHC or Hospital</p>

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12
Q

<p>When it is deemed necessary to have follow up testing who contacts the employee and when?</p>

A

<p>EMS captain , Exposure control officer, or OHC within 24 hours</p>

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13
Q

<p>Written documentation of follow up testing for an exposure should follow when ?</p>

A

<p>Within 48hours</p>

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14
Q

<p>Follow up testing from exposure is done at what intervals?</p>

A

<p>Initially, 3mo, 6mo, 1 year</p>

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15
Q

<p>Post exposure treatments are for which diseases?</p>

A

<p>AIDS, HIC, Hep B, Hep C, Menningcoccal meningitis, TB</p>

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16
Q

<p>A post exposure treatment written opinon statement is to be completed by what time frame?</p>

A

<p>Within 15days</p>

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17
Q

<p>A written exposure treatment opinion includes what ?</p>

A

<p>Results of the medical evaluation <br></br><br></br>Verification that the employee has been informed about any medical condition resulting from the exposure.</p>

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18
Q

<p>Time frame for post exposure prophylaxis?</p>

A

<p>Within 1-2 hours</p>

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19
Q

<p>What cases are mandated to be reported to the CDC?</p>

A

<p>Contagious ds<br></br>AIDS<br></br>HBV<br></br>TB</p>

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20
Q

<p>A report of the department’s exposures are sent to who and how often?</p>

A

<p>Wellness coordinator- Annually.</p>

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21
Q

<p>Who ensures confidentiality with exposure reports for the employee?</p>

A

<p>EMS captain <br></br><br></br>Exposure control officer</p>

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22
Q

<p>What are the most likely transmission routes from TB?</p>

A

<p>Persistent cough >2 weeks with one of the following<br></br>-Anorexia<br></br>-weight loss<br></br>-fever<br></br>-hx of drug use<br></br>-night sweats<br></br>-bloody sputum</p>

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23
Q

<p>When treating a possible TB patient what should happen ?</p>

A

<p>N95 on employees<br></br>Oxygen to patient or if not needed N95 for patient <br></br>Air vents open -no recirculating</p>

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24
Q

<p>When are risk management reports due?</p>

A

<p>By the end of shift and forwarded to the appropriate party</p>

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25
Q

<p>When filling out risk management forms supervisors must sign forms using what?</p>

A

<p>Full first and last names AND employee ID</p>

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26
Q

<p>Employees filling forms for PTSD fill out what forms?</p>

A

<p>The same as employee injury</p>

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27
Q

<p>Who gets notified for vehicle accidents?</p>

A

<p>BC</p>

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28
Q

<p>What MUST be obtained on a vehicle accident?</p>

A

<p>A police report AND obtain insurance from other driver</p>

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29
Q

<p>Who gets notified of exposure to communicable ds.?</p>

A

<p>EMS captain and notify Medical services division.</p>

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30
Q

<p>The exposure contorl manual provides information on what areas?</p>

A

<p>Risk</p>

<p>Determination</p>

<p>Prevention</p>

<p>Care and cleaning</p>

<p>bio waste</p>

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31
Q

<p>who designates one or more members as the exposure control officer.</p>

A

<p>the department</p>

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32
Q

<p>exposures to airborne pathogens are doucumented on ?</p>

A

<p>exposure form</p>

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33
Q

<p>documentation for exposures protects who?</p>

A

<p>the employee</p>

<p>department</p>

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34
Q

<p>when does the patient have a right to refuse a blood test that might verify an communicable disease?</p>

A

<p>if blood was not drawn in the field for routine medical need.</p>

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35
Q

<p>the physican notification form is delivered to who and how?</p>

A

<p>Emergency room physician</p>

<p>hand delivered</p>

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36
Q

<p>who is responsible for ordering the HIV on the patient?</p>

A

<p>ER physican</p>

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37
Q

<p>when filling out the exposure form which section should be given special attention?</p>

A

<p>how the exposure occured</p>

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38
Q

<p>how does the Exposure control officer notify employees of a possible exposure from the hosptial?</p>

A

<p>verbally</p>

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39
Q

<p>the ryan white care act is what type of law?</p>

A

<p>florida statue</p>

<p>federal.</p>

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40
Q

<p>What does the ryan white care specify?</p>

A

<p>any licensed facility receving a patient who os subsequently diagnosed as having certain infectious diseases to notify the health care provider.</p>

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41
Q

<p>prophylaxis treatment post exposure is within what time frame?</p>

A

<p>1-2 hours</p>

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42
Q

<p>when does the exposure from need to be completed by?</p>

A

<p>prior to the end of shift</p>

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43
Q

<p>If receiving prophylaxis treatment when canan employee discontinue treatment?</p>

A

<p>when directed by the OHC</p>

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44
Q

<p>All completed documents with an exposure must be forwarded to who?</p>

A

<p>Exposure control officer</p>

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45
Q

<p>All exposure forms must include what?</p>

A

<p>an injury tracking number</p>

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46
Q

<p>The exposure control officer gets notified as soon as possible under what conditions?</p>

A

<p>unusual</p>

<p>emergency situation</p>

<p>receives post exposure treatment</p>

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47
Q

<p>Who contacts the hospital ICC to verify source patient testing?</p>

A

<p>Exposure control officer.</p>

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48
Q

<p>who is in charge to investigate an exposure?</p>

A

<p>Exposure control officer</p>

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49
Q

<p>if a competent patient refuses source testing where is this documented?</p>

A

<p>medical records of the individual sustainingthe significant exposure</p>

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50
Q

<p>how are results of the HIV testing if performed at the hospital given to the employee?</p>

A

<p>person to person</p>

<p>mail to the OHC</p>

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51
Q

<p>medical treatment for a post exposure shall be conducted where?</p>

A

<p>OHC</p>

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52
Q

<p>counseling and or treatment is in according to who?</p>

A

<p>US public health service</p>

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53
Q

<p>what is the primary means of preventing occupationally HIV infections</p>

A

<p>prevention of blood exposures</p>

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54
Q

<p>What guideline is followed by PBCFRs PEP plan?</p>

A

<p>Center for disease control</p>

<p>public health service</p>

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55
Q

<p>contagious diseases that limit an employee to work with patient care or at a station are ?</p>

A

<p>influenza</p>

<p>HBV</p>

<p>exudative lesions</p>

<p></p>

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56
Q

<p>who is consulted onthe limitations on an employee to work from an exposure?</p>

A

<p>employees private physican</p>

<p>OHC</p>

<p>legal counsel</p>

<p>CBA</p>

<p>medical director</p>

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57
Q

<p>how long are employee medical exposure records maintained for?</p>

A

<p>the duration of the employment plus 30 years</p>

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58
Q

<p>the transmission of what cuases TB?</p>

A

<p>mycobacterium</p>

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59
Q

<p>what environmental factors increase the transmission of TB?</p>

A

<p>exposure of person in a small space- like a ambulance</p>

<p>close contact during procedures- ET, deep trachealsuctioning</p>

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60
Q

<p>PBCFRs TB infection program includes?</p>

A

<p>Annual PPD testing</p>

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61
Q

<p>additional PPD testing is done when ?</p>

A

<p>after a documented exposure</p>

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62
Q

<p>persons who miss the annual TB screening can make it up where?</p>

A

<p>OHC</p>

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63
Q

<p>Who is allowed to deviate from the protocols?</p>

A

<p>Ems captains and Trauma hawk Personnel</p>

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64
Q

<p>In mutual aid circumstances whose protocols should be followed?</p>

A

<p>The transporting agency.</p>

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65
Q

<p>Oxygen is to be administered only when?</p>

A

<p>maintain sp02 of 95% all patients<br></br> 90% for COPD and asthma.</p>

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66
Q

<p>ET tubes shall be confirmed how? 3 methods.</p>

A

<p>visualization<br></br>esophageal intubation detector (if available)<br></br>continuous EtCo2</p>

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67
Q

<p>Ventilatory rates are the following?</p>

A

<p>Adults- Pulse 1 q6<br></br> No pulse 1 q10 <br></br> ICP 30-35mmhg <br></br>Pediatrics Pulse 1 q3<br></br> No Pulse 1 q6<br></br> ICP- 30-35mmHg</p>

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68
Q

<p>EtCO2 monitoring will be performed on which pts?</p>

A

<p>Respiratory distress</p>

<p>ventilatory support<br></br>AMS<br></br>Sedated / pain medication<br></br>seizure pts<br></br>ketamine pts</p>

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69
Q

<p>which pt's are required to have a 12 and 15 lead performed?</p>

A

<p>chest, Arm, neck, back, jaw, shoulder, epigastric pn or discomfort<br></br>palpitations<br></br>syncope, lightheadness, general weakness, fatigue<br></br>SOB, CHF, or hypotension<br></br>unexplained diaphoresis or nausea.</p>

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70
Q

<p>12 lead cables will remain on the pt until when?</p>

A

<p>turned over the ED staff when transporting.</p>

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71
Q

<p>12 leads will be repeated how often?</p>

A

<p>q 10min</p>

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72
Q

<p>Which pt's shall have a BGL checked?</p>

A

<p>Diabetics<br></br>AMS<br></br>seizure<br></br>stroke<br></br>syncope, <br></br>lightheadedness, <br></br>dizziness<br></br>poisoning<br></br>cardiac arrest</p>

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73
Q

<p>A complete set of v/s consists of what and done how often?</p>

A

<p>Pulse,- Rate rhythm quality<br></br>Respirations-Rate and Quality<br></br>Temp<br></br>Pulse ox<br></br>BP- cap refill<br></br>ETC02<br></br>BGL<br></br><br></br>Priority 3 - at least 2 sets <br></br>Priority 2- q 5min.</p>

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74
Q

<p>Adult hypotension is defined as?</p>

A

<p>systolic BP> 90.</p>

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75
Q

<p>When should manual BP's be taken?</p>

A

<p>Initially and to confirm any abnormal or significant change in an automatic BP.</p>

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76
Q

<p>Pt's that have not reached puberty shall be classified as how?</p>

A

<p>pediatric pts.</p>

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77
Q

<p>When using the Hand Tevy method, what is used for the PRIMARY reference point?</p>

A

<p>age</p>

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78
Q

<p>What type of pts' meeting trauma alert criteria transported by AIR to St. mary's?</p>

A

<p>Pregnant (visibly pregnant or by hx of gestation >20wks)</p>

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79
Q

<p>All intubated interfacility transfers must be \_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_ by the sending facility.</p>

A

<p>paralyzed and sedated.</p>

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80
Q

<p>If the sending facility physician refuses to administer paralytics for a trauma transfer then what?</p>

A

<p>Crew must contact the EMS Captain and follow the advanced A/W protocol, and accompany pt to the receiving facility.</p>

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81
Q

<p>What type of alerts go by air if ground transport is greater than what time?</p>

A

<p>40mminutes:<br></br>Decompression Sickness<br></br>STROKE <br></br>STEMI</p>

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82
Q

<p>Stroke pt with transport times greater than 20 min go where?</p>

A

<p>depends- if all other criteria are met;<br></br>1. transport time to comprehensive is > 20 min<br></br>2. onset time < 2hr<br></br>3. no tpa exclusions<br></br>4. no severe headache<br></br>Primary center, if not all met, comprehensive center.</p>

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83
Q

<p>Pediatric pts are age what?</p>

A

<p>less than 18.</p>

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84
Q

<p>Where do decompression CO, H2S and CN poisonings go?</p>

A

<p>Hyberbaric chamber @ st mary's hospital.</p>

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85
Q

<p>Where are psychiatric pts transported?</p>

A

<p>stable- closest facility<br></br>unstable- closest ED for stabilization.</p>

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86
Q

<p>What are the criteria for someone to request a "Free Standing" ED?</p>

A

<p>Stable Patients<br></br>informed if admitted they will be transferred.<br></br>sign "Emergency Transport Disclaimer"</p>

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87
Q

<p>What are the Air Transport time criteria?</p>

A

<p>STEMI / Stroke >40min <br></br>Trauma > 25min<br></br>Extrication >15min<br></br>Response time >10min</p>

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88
Q

<p>When can air transport NOT be used?</p>

A

<p>Pt weighing > 500lbs or 227kg<br></br>Pt that cannot lay supine<br></br>combative and cannot be physically restrained<br></br>Hazmat contaminated pts</p>

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89
Q

<p>What does MICCR stand for?</p>

A

<p>Minimally Interrupted cardio-cerebral resusitation</p>

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90
Q

<p>Cardiac arrest pt's with the use of a "Lucas" device will be placed on what?</p>

A

<p>Scoop stretcher and elevated 15 degrees.</p>

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91
Q

<p>All IVP medications for an arrest are followed by what?</p>

A

<p>10ml saline Flush</p>

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92
Q

<p>Termination efforts can be done when?</p>

A

<p>EMS captain OS<br></br>persistent asystole for 15 min<br></br>Etco2< 10mmHg<br></br>No hypothermia<br></br>1 defibrillation @ 360j.<br></br>500ml NS<br></br>All ALS interventions have been completed and reversible causes <br></br> addressed.<br></br>Social support group is in place for family if needed.</p>

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93
Q

<p>What is considered a "SECONDARY" arrest?</p>

A

<p>CHF, drowning, FBAO, OD, Hanging, lightning strike- DC current., Trauma, CN, 3rd Trimester pregnancy</p>

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94
Q

<p>When does a ResQpod get placed?</p>

A

<p>all cardiac arrest patients that are greater than 1yr old.</p>

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95
Q

<p>What are the contraindications for the "ResQpod"</p>

A

<p>Pt less than 1 yr old <br></br>Pt's with a pulse<br></br>Cardiac arrest due to trauma<br></br>during passive oxygenation</p>

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96
Q

<p>If a rhythm converts back after electrical therapy was used what setting should be used ?</p>

A

<p>the setting that was successful in converting the rhythm.</p>

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97
Q

<p>Medications should be delivered when in cardiac arrest ?</p>

A

<p>ASAP after rhythm check and circulated for 2 min</p>

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98
Q

<p>What is the dose of MGSO4 in Torsades?</p>

A

<p>adults- 2g in 50 ml 60gtts wide open<br></br>pedi- 40mg/kg in 50ml 60gtts wide open</p>

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99
Q

<p>primary and secondary arrest pt's go to which facilites?</p>

A

<p>primary- STEMI facility<br></br>secondary- Closest faclility</p>

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100
Q

<p>Spinal motion restriction for what criteria?</p>

A

<p>focal neurologic deficit<br></br>pain to the neck or back<br></br>distracting injury<br></br>AMS w/ an MOI<br></br>intoxication w/ MOI</p>

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101
Q

<p>Sager splints are used on what type fx?</p>

A

<p>Closed Mid shaft femur only</p>

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102
Q

<p>What are the oral hypoglycemic medications</p>

A

<p>Glipizide, Glyburide, Glimepiride</p>

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103
Q

<p>indications for Hyperkalemia for CaCl2?</p>

A

<p>Peaked T waves<br></br>Sine wave<br></br>Wide complex QRS<br></br>RRWCT<br></br>severe bradycardia<br></br>high degree blocks</p>

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104
Q

<p>it is more important to maintain what levels for COPD and asthma patients?</p>

A

<p>SPo2 at 90%</p>

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105
Q

<p>Auto PEEP is what?</p>

A

<p>When Air goes in before a patient is allowed to exhale.</p>

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106
Q

<p>Differences in Croup and Epiglottitis?</p>

A

<p>Chonic vs Acute<br></br>sick for a few days vs Sudden onset<br></br>low grade fever vs high grade fever<br></br>not toxic looking vs drooling and tripod</p>

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107
Q

<p>Ketamine for seizures is what and what contraindications?</p>

A

<p>Adults :100mg- pregnancy<br></br> penetrating eye<br></br> non traumatic chest pain<br></br>Pedi >3yrs: 1mg/kg</p>

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108
Q

<p>Sepsis alert criteria?</p>

A

<p>Adult not pregnant<br></br>suspected or documented infection<br></br>Hypotension<br></br>AMS<br></br>Tachypnea - RR>22 or ETco2 < 25mmHg</p>

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109
Q

<p>Which patients receive fluids despite having rales?</p>

A

<p>Septic pneumonia patients</p>

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110
Q

<p>What is the tine frame for not considering a stroke not an Alert</p>

A

<p>Witnessed greater than 24 hours</p>

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111
Q

<p>What are the precautions with Ketamine in seizure patients?</p>

A

<p>Respiratory distress- need for an advanced airway<br></br>HTN<br></br>Schiziophrenia</p>

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112
Q

<p>What is the criteria for unstable Afib/ flutter</p>

A

<p>Hypotension only</p>

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113
Q

<p>Bradycardia is defined as?</p>

A

<p>< 50 BPM</p>

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114
Q

<p>Unstable bradycardia is defined as?</p>

A

<p>Adult: >50 BPM w. hypotension<br></br>Pedi: >50 w/ AMS and age hypotension</p>

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115
Q

<p>For both adult and peds with pacing, what can be given if normotensive and no IV?</p>

A

<p>Versed- 5mg IN/IM only<br></br> 0.2mg/kg IN/IM only</p>

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116
Q

<p>Pacing for a peds starts at what?</p>

A

<p>80 BPM</p>

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117
Q

<p>What is the initial treatment for bradycardia in peds?</p>

A

<p>Oxygenation / Ventilation<br></br>Neonate: 1 q 3 for 30 sec<br></br>Infant: 1 q 3 for 1 min</p>

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118
Q

<p>Which extremity is to be avoided with vascular access in chest pain?</p>

A

<p>Right hand and wrist.</p>

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119
Q

<p>STEMI alert criteria?</p>

A

<p>2mm elevation smiley face concave in any leads<br></br>2mm elevation frown face convex on V2 and V3<br></br>1mm elevation frown face convex in any leads</p>

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120
Q

<p>What are STEMI disqualifiers?</p>

A

<p>LBBB<br></br>LVH<br></br>Early Repolarization<br></br>Pacemaker with QRS > .12</p>

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121
Q

<p>When does NTG get withheld in CHF patients?</p>

A

<p>febrile patients or nursing home with pneumonia</p>

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122
Q

<p>Stable SVT treatment is?</p>

A

<p>Adults 12mg Adenosine<br></br>Pedi- 0.2mg Adenosine</p>

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123
Q

<p>Unstable SVT treatment is ?</p>

A

<p>AMS-<br></br>Adult 100, 200, 300, 360J<br></br>Pedi: 0.5J/kg and 2J/kg</p>

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124
Q

<p>Vtach is defined as?</p>

A

<p>No p waves<br></br>QRS > .12<br></br>Concordance in all leads<br></br>Neg QRS V6<br></br>Neg in 2, 2, AVF and positive in AVL, and AVR</p>

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125
Q

<p>Vtach stable treatment?</p>

A

<p>Adult : Amiodarone 150mg in 50 15gtts<br></br>Pedi: 5mg/kg in 50 15 gtts</p>

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126
Q

<p>Unstable Vtach</p>

A

<p>Adult : Cardio version 100, 200, 300. 360J<br></br>Pedi : 0.5J/kg and 2j/kg</p>

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127
Q

<p>What makes a Vtach patient unstable?</p>

A

<p>Contraindications to Amiodarone:<br></br>Sinus bradycardia<br></br>2/3 degree blocks<br></br>cardiogenic shock<br></br>hypotension<br></br>QTC >500</p>

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128
Q

<p>RRWCT is defined as?</p>

A

<p>> 0.20 or 5 boxes</p>

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129
Q

<p>Treatment for RRWCT is?</p>

A

<p>Stable :Adult 1g cacl2<br></br> 100mg bicarb<br></br>Pedi: 20mg/kg cacl2<br></br> 1meq/kg bicarb</p>

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130
Q

<p>What makes RRWCT unstable ?</p>

A

<p>hypotension</p>

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131
Q

<p>Torsades de point stable treatment?</p>

A

<p>2g mgso4 in 50 60gtts<br></br>Pedi : 40mg in 50 60gtts</p>

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132
Q

<p>Torsades de point unstable is defined as and treated how?</p>

A

<p>Hypotension:<br></br>defib 200, 300, 360<br></br>defib 2J/kg and 4J/kg</p>

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133
Q

<p>AEIOU TIPS ?</p>

A

<p>Alcohol, Epilepsy, Insulin, OD, underdose<br></br>Trauma, infection, pyschosis, stroke</p>

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134
Q

<p>Compressions for an LVAD device are ?</p>

A

<p>Not using the LUCAS<br></br>The Right of the sternum.</p>

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135
Q

<p>LVAD patients go to which facility</p>

A

<p>JFK</p>

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136
Q

<p>Treatment for an LVAD ?</p>

A

<p>locate emergency bag<br></br>take all equipment to ER<br></br>verify device is working by lack of pulse or measurable BP.<br></br>LIsten for continuous humming.<br></br>Hypotensive Fluids 1L<br></br>Compressions if unresponsive and unable to restart device or not working.</p>

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137
Q

<p>which cardiac arrest patients MUST be transported</p>

A

<p>Witnesed</p>

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138
Q

<p>What are the determination of death criteria</p>

A

<p>1.Lividity<br></br>2.Rigor mortis<br></br>3.tissue decomposition<br></br>4. Valid DNRO</p>

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139
Q

<p>What if the death criteria are not there what can be used?</p>

A

<p>Known down time of >30min<br></br>Apneic<br></br>Without mechanism for Hypothermia<br></br>Asystolic <br></br>Fixed and dilated pupils</p>

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140
Q

<p>Electrocution and LIghtning strikes are what type of arrests</p>

A

<p>Primary b/c of A/C current<br></br>Secondary due to DC current</p>

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141
Q

<p>When can an arrest be called?</p>

A

<p>EMS captain on scene<br></br>persisent asystole for >15min<br></br>ALS interventions<br></br>Etco2< 10<br></br>H and T's or reversible causes treated<br></br>1 defib<br></br>500 ml NS<br></br>Normothermic<br></br>support group</p>

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142
Q

<p>What are fourprotocols where on 500ml NS are used?</p>

A

<p>Decompression sickness<br></br>Calling an arrest.<br></br>2nd > 15% or 3rd > 5% degree burns</p>

<p>Hyperkalemia</p>

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143
Q

<p>What is the o2 setting for initial arrest</p>

A

<p>8L/min for 6 min on oxygen port</p>

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144
Q

<p>What are the amiodarone contraindications</p>

A

<p>Qtc >500<br></br>Blocks<br></br>Bradycardia<br></br>Hypotension<br></br>cardiogenic shock</p>

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145
Q

<p>What type of arrest is a third trimester female considered?</p>

A

<p>Secondary - and displace the uterus to the left</p>

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146
Q

<p>All drug overdoses are treated as what type of arrest with the exception of?</p>

A

<p>All OD's except for Cocaine</p>

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147
Q

<p>What are the indications for Esmolol and doses?</p>

A

<p>Immediately after Double sequential <br></br>40 mg IV/IO initially over 1 min<br></br>Then:<br></br>60mg on 15gtts over 10min 1,25gtts/sec</p>

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148
Q

<p>What type of arrests are to be transported to a trauma center?</p>

A

<p>Electrouctions and lighning strikes</p>

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149
Q

<p>Adult Cocaine OD get treated with what?</p>

A

<p>Versed</p>

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150
Q

<p>Pedi cocaine OD get treated with what?</p>

A

<p>Versed</p>

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151
Q

<p>What are the criteria to administer narcan?</p>

A

<p>RR below 10<br></br>Etco2 >45<br></br>02 sat < 92%<br></br>if not meeting above Supplemental 02 or BVM 2 min</p>

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152
Q

<p>Mad as a hatter<br></br>Red as a beet<br></br>Dry as bone refer to S/S of ?</p>

A

<p>TCA OD</p>

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153
Q

<p>What must TCA ODs be treated with immediately ?</p>

A

<p>Sodium Bicarb</p>

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154
Q

<p>What are the special populations for Ketamine and the dose?</p>

A

<p>Age 65 and older<br></br><50kg<br></br>Head trauma <br></br>Already took sedatives<br></br>200mg</p>

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155
Q

<p>What is the sequence for Combative pts and Ketamina</p>

A

<p>400mg IM<br></br>BVM or supplemental 02 for Laryngospasms<br></br>0.5mg Atropine for Salivations x3<br></br>Ice packs, 1L cold saline and 100meq Sodium Bicarb</p>

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156
Q

<p>How long does Lidocaine dwell in an IO for an adult?</p>

A

<p>1min</p>

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157
Q

<p>Pedi Ketamine for pain is indicated for what age and pain scale?</p>

A

<p>< 3 yrs and 7 or greater pain</p>

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158
Q

<p>Lidocaine in an IO for pedi dwell?</p>

A

<p>1 min</p>

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159
Q

<p>What is the time frame for decompression sickness?</p>

A

<p>48 hours</p>

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160
Q

<p>How much NS admin for Decompression sickness?</p>

A

<p>500ml</p>

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161
Q

<p>When treating Heat stroke?</p>

A

<p>Cool First, transport second</p>

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162
Q

<p>Heat stroke is classified as ?</p>

A

<p>Temp > 103 or AMS</p>

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163
Q

<p>CO poisoning is at what level?</p>

A

<p>35ppm</p>

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164
Q

<p>Who carries a rainbow sensor ?</p>

A

<p>EMS captains and SPLOPS</p>

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165
Q

<p>If SPCO is above what %?</p>

A

<p>>20%</p>

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166
Q

<p>The cyano kit uses how much? at what rate?</p>

A

<p>5g diluted in 200ml and at 5 gtts/sec</p>

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167
Q

<p>What does the MARCH acronym mean?</p>

A

<p>Massive hemorrage<br></br>Airway control<br></br>Respiratory<br></br>Circulation<br></br>Head injury / Hypothermia</p>

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168
Q

<p>FAST ultrsound is done for</p>

A

<p>Blunt or penetrating trauma the ABD or thorax<br></br>Undifferentiated hypotension in trauma</p>

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169
Q

<p>FAST ultrasounds can be performed to identify?</p>

A

<p>Intrabdominal hemorrage<br></br>Intrathoracic hemorrage<br></br>pericardial hemorrage<br></br>PEA motion</p>

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170
Q

<p>For Trauma patients not to be resuscitated what criteria is needed?</p>

A

<p>Apneic<br></br>Fixed dialted pupils<br></br>asystole<br></br>NEED ALL 3<br></br>or injuries incompatible with life</p>

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171
Q

<p>PEA is defined as?</p>

A

<p>an organized rhythm > 20 BPM</p>

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172
Q

<p>When does bilateral decompression get performed?</p>

A

<p>Arrest due to penetrating chest trauma</p>

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173
Q

<p>Ultrasunds in traumatic arrests are done when?</p>

A

<p>observation of cardiac motion in PEA</p>

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174
Q

<p>Finger Thoracostomy is done when ?</p>

A

<p>known or suspected injury to the chest and or abd</p>

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175
Q

<p>Contraindications for Finger Thoracostomy?</p>

A

<p>Unwitnessed arrest with blunt trauma<br></br>Devestating head trauma<br></br>loss of Cardiac output > 10 min</p>

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176
Q

<p>Jump start triage initial is ?</p>

A

<p>Breathing NO- open A/W - breathing - IMMEDIATE<br></br>Breathing NO- open A/W - NO PULSE - DECEASED<br></br>Breathing NO-open A/W- Pulse - 5 breaths-no- DECEASED<br></br>Breathing NO- open A/W- Pulse- 5 breaths- Yes- IMMEDIATE<br></br>Breathing YES- <15 or >45- IMMEDIATE</p>

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177
Q

<p>The " P" in Jump start triage means what ?</p>

A

<p>posturing</p>

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178
Q

<p>what is Trauma alert criteria for peds with BP?</p>

A

<p>< 50</p>

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179
Q

<p>Flail chest sis defined?</p>

A

<p>2 or more adjacent ribs are fractured</p>

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180
Q

<p>Criteria for chest decompression</p>

A

<p>Absent or diminshed LS<br></br>BP< 90<br></br>Respiratory distress or difficulty with BVM</p>

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181
Q

<p>What is the primary site for chest decompression?</p>

A

<p>5th intercostal space mid axillary</p>

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182
Q

<p>What is the secondary site for chest decompression</p>

A

<p>2 or 3 rd intercostal space mid clavicular</p>

183
Q

<p>Intercrainial pressure and herniation signs are?</p>

A

<p>GCS decline of 2 or more points<br></br>sluggish or non reactive pupil<br></br>Paralysis or weakness on 1 side of the body<br></br>Cushings Triad</p>

184
Q

<p>Adult BP maintain BP for Head injuries is what?</p>

A

<p>SBP 110-120</p>

185
Q

<p>Head injuries ETCO2 is?</p>

A

<p>30-35mmhg</p>

186
Q

<p>How many attempts to realign for anatomical position</p>

A

<p>2</p>

187
Q

<p>What are the contraindications for Ceftriaxone or rocephin?</p>

A

<p>Allergy to cephalosporins<br></br>Neonates birth to 30 days</p>

188
Q

<p>Pregnant 3rd trimester trauma alerts get transported how?</p>

A

<p>Left side, 4-6 inches of padding to Right side<br></br>Maintain BP for peripheral pulses</p>

189
Q

<p>Gravida and Para definitions</p>

A

<p>Gravida- previous pregnancies<br></br>Para- Number of Live births</p>

190
Q

<p>1st and 2nd trimester complications include?</p>

A

<p>Ectopic <br></br>Spontaneous<br></br>bleeding<br></br>hypotensive</p>

191
Q

<p>3rd Trimester complications include</p>

A

<p>Placenta previa-painless vaginal bleeding bright red<br></br>Abrupto PLacenta-severe pain sudden onset<br></br>Uterine rupture- - intense abd pain and Vaginal bledding</p>

192
Q

<p>Preeclampsia is defined as?</p>

A

<p>SBP >160 DSP > 110 with :<br></br>AMS<br></br>Headache<br></br>Visual disturbances<br></br>PE</p>

193
Q

<p>Eclampsia is defined as ?</p>

A

<p>S/S of pre + seizures or coma</p>

194
Q

<p>When can you insert a gloved hand into the vagina for a birth?</p>

A

<p>Breech birth<br></br>Prolapsed cord</p>

195
Q

<p>Time for Breech birth actions</p>

A

<p>if not delivered in 3 minutes</p>

196
Q

<p>Who’s responsibility is it to assign a safety officer?</p>

A

<p>IC</p>

197
Q

<p>All safety officers will have the authority to ?</p>

A

<p>Identify and correct safety and heath hazards <br></br><br></br>To alter,suspend, or terminate un -safe acts that involve an imminent hazard to personnel <br></br>Inform the IC of the 2 items above</p>

198
Q

<p>A safety office should have a working knowledge of what?</p>

A

<p>Safety concerns for fire rescue in typical incidents<br></br>Fire behavior<br></br>Building construction <br></br>EMS</p>

199
Q

<p>Only those person who have completed and approved Incident safety officer course \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ be used as a safety officer.</p>

A

<p>SHOULD</p>

200
Q

How much can a pregnant female lose with regards to blood volume?

A

30-35%

201
Q

During pregnancy what is the possibe BP drop?

A

5-15mmhg.

202
Q

<p>What type of communication is to be used with a second paramedic to ensure proper drug dose?</p>

A

<p>closed loop communication</p>

203
Q

<p>what are the sites for IO insertion for an adult and pediatric?</p>

A

<p>proximal humorous</p>

<p>Proximal Tibia</p>

<p>distal tibia</p>

<p>PEDI: All of the above and Distal Femur.</p>

204
Q

<p>what is the preferred access fo r pediatrics in cardiac arrest?</p>

A

<p>IO</p>

205
Q

<p>for the hx taking in an assessment what pneumoic is used?</p>

A

<p>OPPPQRSTA</p>

206
Q

<p>what is the goal for maninging overdose and poisoning pts?</p>

A

<p>Support ABCs</p>

<p>Terminate arrhymthmmias</p>

<p>Terminate seizures</p>

<p>reverse effects with antidotes or medication</p>

207
Q

<p>what classes of medications are responsible for dystonic reactions?</p>

A

<p>antipsychotics</p>

<p>antiemetics</p>

<p>Antidepressants</p>

<p></p>

208
Q

<p>What are the APGAR score interpretations?</p>

A

<p>0-3 severe</p>

<p>4-6- Moderate</p>

<p>7-10- excellent</p>

209
Q

<p>advanced a/w procedures shall be considered for which patients with respiratory involvement?</p>

A

<p>hoarse voice,</p>

<p>Singed nose hairs</p>

<p>carbonaceous sputum in nose or mouth</p>

<p>stridor</p>

<p>Facial burns</p>

210
Q

<p>Infants are evaluated when in JUMP start ?</p>

A

<p>in secondary triage</p>

211
Q

<p>what isto be documented in the medical report upon administration of Ketamine per the memo?</p>

A

<p>Correct dose</p>

<p>high flow 02 15L/min</p>

<p>IV after sedation</p>

<p>Cardiac monitor</p>

<p>12/15 lead</p>

<p>Continous SP02</p>

<p>Continous Etc02</p>

<p>BGL</p>

<p>Respiratory rate</p>

<p>temp</p>

<p>minimum 2 sets V/S</p>

<p>GCS w/ V/S</p>

<p>AVPU w/ GCS</p>

212
Q

<p>What information should be obtained on a dive hx with decompression sickness ?</p>

A

<p>Depth of dives</p>

<p>Air mixture</p>

<p>Number of dives</p>

213
Q

<p>What range can the HR be above in Third Trimester pregnancies?</p>

A

<p>15-20 BPM</p>

214
Q

<p>Grey Turners sign is?</p>

A

<p>ecchymosis of the flanks</p>

215
Q

<p>when can a patient be assisted with an epi pen ?</p>

A

<p>a/w swelling</p>

<p>respiratrory distress</p>

<p>bronchospasm</p>

<p>tounge or facail swelling</p>

<p>loss of a radial pulse</p>

216
Q

<p>pedatric age classifications are?</p>

A

<p>Neonates: birth to 1month</p>

<p>infancts: 1 month to 1 year</p>

<p>children: 1 year to puberty</p>

217
Q

<p>SAMPLE stand for:</p>

A

<p>S/S</p>

<p>Allergies</p>

<p>medications</p>

<p>last oral intake</p>

<p>events preceeding</p>

218
Q

<p>If a 2nd TQ does not stop the bleeding what is the next step?</p>

A

<p>Celox rapid for 2 minute.</p>

219
Q

<p>Marine animal stings gets rinsed with what type of water?</p>

A

<p>Sea water</p>

220
Q

<p>snake bites what should be documented?</p>

A

<p>picture of the head including the eyes</p>

221
Q

<p>benadryl is to be administered over what period of time for IV/IO use?</p>

A

<p>2min</p>

222
Q

<p>All medications are administered with the exception of adenosine over 2 minutes or greater. Which one is adminstered in less time?</p>

A

<p>Push pressor epi 1 min/ ml</p>

223
Q

<p>ASA is contraindicated at what age?</p>

A

<p>< 16 years old</p>

224
Q

<p>How long should a burn be cooled for and what type of liquid?</p>

A

<p>2min and NS</p>

225
Q

<p>1st,2nd degree burns > 15% TBSA or 3rd < 5%get what type of dressing?</p>

A

<p>Dry sterile</p>

226
Q

<p>2nd degree burns > 15% TBSA and 3rd > 5% get what type of dressing?</p>

A

<p>Burn Sheet</p>

227
Q

<p>Head injured patients mortality rates increases by what percent with a single instance of hypotension?</p>

A

<p>150%</p>

228
Q

<p>What pregnant trauma patients are required to have 02?</p>

A

<p>All 3rd Trimester</p>

229
Q

<p>Purpose or Goal or DSI is?</p>

A

<p>Not to blunt spontaneous ventilation or airway reflexes</p>

230
Q

<p>Primary goal of any airway or respiratory emergency is maintaining?</p>

A

<p>Ventilation <br></br>Oxygenation<br></br>Perfusion</p>

231
Q

<p>Indications for an advanced airway are:</p>

A

<p>Airway protection <br></br>Respiratory failure<br></br>Prolonged respiratory suppport</p>

232
Q

<p>What equipment MUST be in place fro DSI?</p>

A

<p>Suction unit<br></br><br></br>Cardiac monitor, BP, SPO2, ETCO2</p>

233
Q

<p>Positioning for DSI is?</p>

A

<p>Ear to the sternal notch<br></br>Head parallel with the ceiling<br></br>Stretcher elevated 15-30 degrees</p>

234
Q

<p>The Pre-oxygenation step includes?</p>

A

<p>Maintaining of SP02 for 3min:<br></br>Positioning head<br></br>NC @ 15L/min<br></br>BVM w/ peep @ 10cm/h20 <br></br>BVM with face seal</p>

235
Q

<p>Definition of apenic in DSI?</p>

A

<p>Respirations < 4/min</p>

236
Q

<p>The only time to give ventilations in the pre-oxygenate phase is?</p>

A

<p>Patient becomes apneic.</p>

237
Q

<p>To fix perfusion in adult and infants for DSI what is used?</p>

A

<p>Adults:<br></br>1L saline <br></br>Infants:<br></br>20ml/Kg<br></br><br></br>If neither work - push press epi- 1:100,000 at 1ml/min. Max 30 ml . Concentration is 10mcg/ml</p>

238
Q

<p>What is the contraindications for push pressor epi?</p>

A

<p>Hypotension secondary to blood loss.</p>

239
Q

<p>DSI paralysis indications are?</p>

A

<p>Apneic Status epilepticus <br></br><br></br>Trismus<br></br><br></br>EMS captain or flight crew discretion</p>

240
Q

<p>Contraindications to DSI paralysis is?</p>

A

<p>Allergy<br></br><br></br>Predicted difficult intubation<br></br><br></br>Inability to ventilate with a BVM<br></br><br></br>Major facial trauma</p>

241
Q

<p>What are the doses for rocuronium for adult and pediatrics?</p>

A

<p>Adults 100mg<br></br>Pediatric 1mg/kg</p>

242
Q

<p>What is the warning for rocuronium with patients?</p>

A

<p>Asthmatic patients may have a drop in BP that may result in Cardiac arrest.</p>

243
Q

<p>Post intubation placement is ?</p>

A

<p>ETCO2 continually- initially, continuously, and upon transfer of care<br></br><br></br>Wave form with no less than 3 boxes<br></br><br></br>Auscultation of bi-lateral breath sounds<br></br><br></br>Placement of a gastric tube</p>

244
Q

<p>Post intubation medications are MANDATORY for any?</p>

A

<p>ET tube or Igel</p>

245
Q

<p>What are the post intubation medications that can be used for DSI?</p>

A

<p>Ketamine Versed Fentanyl <br></br>Adult: 200mg 5mg 100mcg. (Contraindication of pregnancy near term >32 weeks)<br></br>Pedi: 2mg/kg 0.1mg/kg 1mcg/kg (Contraindication of <6mo.)</p>

246
Q

<p>Failed airway in adults or pedi is?</p>

A

<p>Surgical cric >13 yrs of age<br></br>Needle Cric < 12 yrs of age</p>

247
Q

<p>What is the precursor for the cyano kit?</p>

A

<p>Hydroxocabalamine</p>

248
Q

<p>What is the half life of the cyano kit</p>

A

<p>26-31 hours</p>

249
Q

<p>what is the onset time for the cyano kit?</p>

A

<p>2-15min</p>

250
Q

<p>Classification of esmolol</p>

A

<p>selective b1 class 2 antiarrhythmic</p>

251
Q

<p>what is the half life of esmolol?</p>

A

<p>2-9min</p>

252
Q

<p>what is the duration of etomidate?</p>

A

<p>3-5 min.</p>

253
Q

<p>what medication from the pharmacolgy medications has the longest list of side effects?</p>

A

<p>Etomidate</p>

254
Q

<p>What are ketamines mechanism of actions?</p>

A

<p>antagonist for NMDA and blocks these receptors</p>

<p>works on Na and Ca channels for pain relief</p>

<p>dissociation between the limbic and cortical systems</p>

255
Q

<p>what is the half life for Ketamine?</p>

A

<p>1-2 hours</p>

256
Q

<p>what is the duration of ketamine?</p>

A

<p>IV -10-15min</p>

<p>IM- 20-30 min</p>

257
Q

<p>contraindications of ketamine</p>

A

<p>pregnant females</p>

<p>Penetrating eye injures</p>

<p>Non- traumatic chest pain</p>

<p>significant HTN</p>

258
Q

<p>indications for Ketamine</p>

A

<p>Sezures</p>

<p>Violent/ impared</p>

<p>pain 7 or higher</p>

<p>pre sedation</p>

<p>post sedation</p>

<p>CPR induced consciousness</p>

259
Q

<p>What class of medication is rocuronium?</p>

A

<p>Non-depolarizing agent</p>

260
Q

<p>what si the mechanism of action for rocuronium?</p>

A

<p>binds to the cholinergic receptors in the motor end plate</p>

261
Q

<p>what is the onset of rocuronium?</p>

A

<p>30-60 sec</p>

262
Q

<p>What is the durations and half life of rocuronium?</p>

A

<p>Duration 30-60min</p>

<p>Half life- 14-18 min</p>

263
Q

<p>What are the contraidications for rocuronium?</p>

A

<p>Allergy</p>

<p>predicted difficult intubation</p>

<p>inability to use a BVM</p>

<p>major facial or laryngeal trauma</p>

264
Q

<p>per CQI, what other recommendation is added for ketamine?</p>

A

<p>High flow 02 per Scheppke</p>

265
Q

<p>The IMS manual meets what national requirements?</p>

A

<p>NFPA 1561<br></br><br></br>Presidential directive 5</p>

266
Q

<p>“Base’ is defined as ?</p>

A

<p>The coordination and administer logistic functions<br></br><br></br>Only 1 per incident<br></br><br></br>The staging of resources prior to entering on a high rise fire</p>

267
Q

<p>‘Branch” is defined as?</p>

A

<p>Level having Functional, geographical, or jurisdictional responsibilities <br></br><br></br>Is between Section and division/ group in the operations section<br></br><br></br>Uses Roman numerals or by functional area</p>

268
Q

<p>Type III construction is what?</p>

A

<p>Ordinary construction where the interior structural elements are entirely or partially of wood OF SMALLER DIMENSIONS</p>

269
Q

<p>Type IV construction is?</p>

A

<p>Heavy timber- interior structures are made of SOLID or LAMINATED WOOD</p>

270
Q

<p>Type V construction is?</p>

A

<p>Wood Frame- structural elements are made of ENTIRELY wood.</p>

271
Q

<p>The command STAFF positions are?</p>

A

<p>PIO<br></br>Safety officer<br></br>Liaison<br></br>command staff advisors</p>

272
Q

<p>“Division” is defined as?</p>

A

<p>A geographical area<br></br><br></br>Is between the Branch and unit levels</p>

273
Q

<p>What is the fire flow formula?</p>

A

<p>Lx W / 3 x % involved</p>

274
Q

<p>The GENERAL STAFF is made up of?</p>

A

<p>Operations Chief<br></br>Planning Chief<br></br>Logistics Chief<br></br>Finance/ Admin Chief<br></br>Intelligence/ investigation Chief</p>

275
Q

<p>“Group “ is defined as?</p>

A

<p>Functional areas<br></br><br></br>Is between a branch and unit</p>

276
Q

<p>An IAP planned operational period is how long?</p>

A

<p>12-24 hours</p>

277
Q

<p>The ICS 5 major functional areas are?</p>

A

<p>Command<br></br>Operations<br></br>Planning<br></br>Logistics<br></br>Finance/ Admin</p>

278
Q

<p>Incident objectives are defined as?</p>

A

<p>Statements of guidance and direction that are specific , measurable , attainable etc for the selection of appropriate strategies and tactical direction of resources.</p>

279
Q

<p>NIMS components are?</p>

A

<p>Command and management<br></br>Preparedness<br></br>Resource management<br></br>Communications and info management<br></br>Supporting technologies <br></br>Ongoing management and maintenance</p>

280
Q

<p>“Section” is defined as?</p>

A

<p>One of the 5 major functional areas under the NIMS system<br></br><br></br>IS between command and branch areas</p>

281
Q

<p>STEALH stands for?</p>

A

<p>Set time<br></br>Tone<br></br>Execution<br></br>Analyze<br></br>Transfer lessons learned<br></br>Hi note</p>

282
Q

<p>“Strike team” is defined as ?</p>

A

<p>Resources of the “SAME” Kind and TYPE</p>

283
Q

<p>“Task Force” is defined as ?</p>

A

<p>Resources that are DIFFERENT in kind and type</p>

284
Q

<p>The cornerstone to managing an emergency incident is?</p>

A

<p>Pre- incident planning</p>

285
Q

<p>Command staff advisors are?</p>

A

<p>Technical specialists<br></br><br></br>Distinguished from officers because they lack authority to direct incident activities.</p>

286
Q

<p>Intelligence / Investagtory function purpose is what?</p>

A

<p>to determine the cause or source of the incident</p>

287
Q

<p>Duties of the intelligence/ inv branch are?</p>

A

<p>Collecting and analyzing and sharing information<br></br><br></br>Informing incident operations to protect live and safety of response personnel <br></br><br></br>Interfacing with counterparts outside the ICS to improve situational awareness,</p>

288
Q

<p>Where can the intelligence /inv function fit into the the ICS system ?</p>

A

<p>Command staff - Staff advisor<br></br>Planning section as a unit<br></br>Operations section as a branch <br></br>General staff as a section</p>

289
Q

<p>Divisions and group persons who are in charge are termed what?</p>

A

<p>Supervisors</p>

290
Q

<p>The person in charge of a “branch “ is termed what?</p>

A

<p>Director</p>

291
Q

<p>Span of control is defined as?</p>

<p>Optimal span of control is ?</p>

A

<p>The number of subordinates for which a supervisor is responsible for<br></br><br></br>Ratio of supervisors to individuals<br></br><br></br>Acceptable spread is 3-7</p>

<p>Optimal span is 5</p>

292
Q

<p>On a situation in which is NOT under control yet the ICS should have no more than how many personnel operating under them ?</p>

A

<p>5- FIVE</p>

293
Q

<p>What is the command staff person in charge termed as?</p>

A

<p>Officer</p>

294
Q

<p>What is the “Section” person in charge title?</p>

A

<p>Chief</p>

295
Q

<p>The person in charge of a “unit” is termed?</p>

A

<p>Leader</p>

296
Q

<p>A “Strike team or Task force “ person in charge is termed?</p>

A

<p>Leader</p>

297
Q

<p>A single resource unit is termed ?</p>

A

<p>Boss or Leader</p>

298
Q

<p>A technical specialist in charge is termed?</p>

A

<p>Specialist</p>

299
Q

<p>Rules of engagement for an IC is to conduct a n initial risk assessment and implement what and how?</p>

A

<p>Safe action plan:<br></br><br></br>Size up<br></br>Rescue profile<br></br>Risk assessment</p>

300
Q

<p>Who can effect a change in incident management in extreme situations - who , why and How?</p>

A

<p>Anyone<br></br>Safety<br></br>Notifying the IC</p>

301
Q

<p>Orders and decision making shall be performed where?</p>

A

<p>At the lowest level within the organization</p>

302
Q

<p>Any functions within the ICS that remain un delegated remain with whom?</p>

A

<p>IC</p>

303
Q

<p>Command presence is conveyed how?</p>

A

<p>look<br></br>Act<br></br>Speak<br></br>Carry yourself</p>

304
Q

<p>The IC role is a position of ?</p>

A

<p>ROLE</p>

305
Q

<p>The Command post should be set up so the IC has how many views of the incident?</p>

A

<p>2- TWO</p>

306
Q

<p>What are the 5 mandatory functions of incident command?</p>

A

<p>Assumption , confirmation, and positioning of incident command<br></br>Initiate and monitor personnel accountably <br></br>Situation Evaluation which means “SIZE UP”<br></br>Initiate , maintain band control the communications process<br></br>Develop and IAP</p>

307
Q

<p>Assuming command can happen by what 2 means?</p>

A

<p>Non collaborative/Face to face<br></br><br></br>Radio communications of “assuming command”</p>

308
Q

<p>The transfer of incident command what items?</p>

A

<p>Mode of operations<br></br>Current situation<br></br>Current unit locations<br></br>Current assignments<br></br>What has been done<br></br>What is planned</p>

309
Q

<p>Upon transferring of command the IC notifies who?</p>

A

<p>Communications center<br></br>General staff members <br></br>Command staff members<br></br>All incident personnel</p>

310
Q

<p>At what two stages of an incident should transfer of command be utilized?</p>

A

<p>As the emergency escalates <br></br><br></br>Demobilization phase</p>

311
Q

<p>Radio transmissions use what model?</p>

A

<p>Military order model</p>

312
Q

<p>What are considered the fire ground simplex channels?</p>

A

<p>14A/ 15A with a radius of 1mile</p>

313
Q

<p>During multi-jurisdictional incidents how can communication be accomplished?</p>

A

<p>Compatible systems<br></br>Representative <br></br>Dissemination of radios<br></br>Merging of companies</p>

314
Q

<p>Emergency traffic can be used with what 3 situations?</p>

A

<p>By a company that has an immediate communication <br></br>Imminent danger while in the exclusion zone<br></br>Changing modes of operation from offensive to defensive or vice versa</p>

315
Q

<p>Emergency Evacuation is for?</p>

A

<p>Evacuation of a scene or area in imminent danger</p>

316
Q

<p>What term is used to declare the scene is clear of all personnel of an area that was in imminent danger?</p>

A

<p>Emergency evacuation - all clear</p>

317
Q

<p>The term MAYDAY should be used when a FF is?</p>

A

<p>Lost<br></br>Trapped<br></br>Disoriented <br></br>Air emergency <br></br>Serious injury<br></br>In need of immediate help</p>

318
Q

<p>In order to manage a MAYDAY, the IC has to maintain what?</p>

A

<p>Strong command presence<br></br>Composure<br></br>Self control <br></br>Self discipline</p>

319
Q

<p>The only persons to communicate during a mayday emergency are?</p>

A

<p>IC<br></br>RIT/RIG<br></br>RIG supervisor <br></br>Mayday FF</p>

320
Q

<p>Reporting fire conditions are what 4 types?</p>

A

<p>Nothing showing<br></br>Smoke showing with - light, moderate, or heavy<br></br>Flames showing<br></br>Working fire</p>

321
Q

<p>What are the 5 fire operations benchmarks?</p>

A

<p>Primary complete - ALL CLEAR<br></br>Secondary complete- ALL CLEAR<br></br>Water on fire<br></br>Fire under control <br></br>Fire out- OVERHAUL OPERATIONS ARE COMPLETE</p>

322
Q

<p>The mode of operations at a fire is defined by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and represents the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the scene.</p>

A

<p>Strategy and tactics<br></br><br></br>Tempo</p>

323
Q

<p>What are the 3 modes of fire operations?</p>

A

<p>Investigating<br></br>Offensive mode<br></br>Defensive mode</p>

324
Q

<p>What is the most dangerous time during a fire incident?</p>

A

<p>When changing from an offensive to defensive mode.</p>

325
Q

<p>Offensive mode should be used when ?</p>

A

<p>Salvageable life<br></br><br></br>No evidence of structural failure or hostile fire event</p>

326
Q

<p>10 minute benchmarks are used under what conditions?</p>

A

<p>MARGINAL</p>

327
Q

<p>The 10 min benchmark is based on what 3 scientific factors?</p>

A

<p>Building to stay together<br></br>Victim survivability<br></br>FF air supply when working</p>

328
Q

<p>If fire conditions have not improved after the 10min benchmark. What should happen ?</p>

A

<p>Consider switching to “DEFENSIVE MODE</p>

329
Q

<p>The 10 min benchmark timeframe include what 3 things?</p>

A

<p>Notification <br></br>Response<br></br>deployment</p>

330
Q

<p>Exterior water application from the exterior during offensive operations should done how?</p>

A

<p>Directly into the fire compartment <br></br>Directed at the ceiling<br></br>No more than 15 sec<br></br>Used with a solid or straight stream pattern</p>

331
Q

<p>Strategy is defined as?</p>

A

<p>General course of action or direction to accomplish incident objectives</p>

332
Q

<p>Tactics are defined as?</p>

A

<p>Deploying and directing resources to an incident to accomplish objectives</p>

333
Q

<p>The “S” in CANS arrival report means?</p>

A

<p>Statement of command to include command name , location, and mode.</p>

334
Q

<p>When referring to the structure the Alpha side is considered ?</p>

A

<p>The front <br></br><br></br>Or address side</p>

335
Q

<p>When two or more incidents are on the same street then how are they differentiated?</p>

A

<p>Using a hundred block number or some other designator</p>

336
Q

<p>The communications center shall announce benchmarks every?</p>

A

<p>10 min</p>

337
Q

<p>“CAN “ Progress reports should briefly detail ?</p>

A

<p>Actions that are being taken <br></br><br></br>Actions that. Have been completed.</p>

338
Q

<p>TO have an effective progress report , the report need to be ?</p>

A

<p>Timely<br></br>Complete<br></br>Consise</p>

339
Q

<p>The command sequence consists of:</p>

A

<p>Incident priorities<br></br>Situation evaluation<br></br>IAP<br></br>Evaluation of IAP<br></br>Demobilization <br></br>Termination</p>

340
Q

<p>What are the incidents priorities?</p>

A

<p>LIPE<br></br><br></br>Life safety<br></br>Incident stabilization <br></br>Property conservation<br></br>Evidence preservation</p>

341
Q

<p>Development of the IAP includes?</p>

A

<p>Mode of operation<br></br>Tactical priorities<br></br>Scene control <br></br>Tasks</p>

342
Q

<p>The tactical priorities are:</p>

A

<p>RECEOVS<br></br><br></br>Rescue<br></br><br></br>Exposure<br></br><br></br>Confinement<br></br><br></br>Extinguishment<br></br><br></br>Overhaul<br></br><br></br>Ventilation<br></br><br></br>Salvage</p>

343
Q

<p>What is the other term for “Size up”? It is part of the command sequence</p>

A

<p>Situation evaluation</p>

344
Q

<p>What is the other term for Tactical Priorites? Part of the development of the IAP</p>

A

<p>“Overview”</p>

345
Q

<p>The IC is responsible for ensuring that assignments during an incident are based on what?</p>

A

<p>Incident priorities</p>

346
Q

<p>The Situational Evaluation or “Size Up” is based on what?</p>

A

<p>Critical incident factors</p>

347
Q

<p>Critical incident factors include which mnemonics?</p>

A

<p>BELOW<br></br><br></br>COAL WAS WEALTH</p>

348
Q

<p>Which critical incident factor mnemonic is used for the “INITIAL “ Situation evaluation</p>

A

<p>BELOW</p>

349
Q

<p>Which critical incident mnemonic is used for the “ONGOING”fire ground operations</p>

A

<p>COAL WAS WEALTH</p>

350
Q

<p>What make critical incident factors critical?</p>

A

<p>Ability to line up incident factors in priority based on consequences</p>

351
Q

<p>Risk Benefit Analysis is 3 components?</p>

A

<p>Do not risk FF lives for lives or property that cannot be saved<br></br><br></br>Extend vigilant and measured risk to protect and rescue lives<br></br><br></br>Limited risk to protect salvageable property.</p>

352
Q

<p>The Aldridge-Benge FF safety act in Florida instituted what?</p>

A

<p>Signage for Roofs and truss floors to indicate construction type that is “LIGHT FRAME TRUSS “</p>

353
Q

<p>Anything with exposed wood or metal supports in regards to constructions is considered?</p>

A

<p>LIght weight construction</p>

354
Q

<p>A lightweight floor construction exposed to fire becomes unstable in how long?</p>

A

<p>3 minutes</p>

355
Q

<p>The development of the IAP is based off of what?</p>

A

<p>Incident priorities which include LIPE</p>

356
Q

<p>Strategies are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and equivalent to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>General <br></br><br></br>Goals</p>

357
Q

<p>Tactics are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>Specific <br></br><br></br>Measurable</p>

358
Q

<p>Who is responsible for a “FORMAL WRITTEN IAP?</p>

A

<p>Planning section chief</p>

359
Q

<p>Operational periods should be no longer than ?</p>

A

<p>24 hours</p>

360
Q

<p>TASKS are defined as ?</p>

A

<p>Specific assignments that are typically performed by one company or small group working together.</p>

361
Q

<p>Examples of “TASKS’ are?</p>

A

<p>Establishing a water supply<br></br><br></br>Advancing a hose line into a structure<br></br><br></br>Primary search <br></br><br></br>RIC<br></br><br></br>Vertical ventilation<br></br><br></br>Medical</p>

362
Q

<p>The Highest INCIDENT Priority is = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_<br></br>The Highest TACTICAL priority is =\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>LIFE SAFETY<br></br><br></br>RESCUE</p>

363
Q

<p>A person known to be in the structure with conditions tenable for a person WITHOUT protective gear is termed what?</p>

A

<p>Salvageable Life</p>

364
Q

<p>Primary search should be based on which areas in order?</p>

A

<p>Location of reported victim <br></br>Most severely threatened area<br></br>Largest number of victims<br></br>Remainder of the fire area<br></br>Exposed areas</p>

365
Q

<p>Examples of “EXPOSURES” are</p>

A

<p>Near fire building<br></br><br></br>Attached to fire building<br></br><br></br>Near but protected<br></br><br></br>Threatened by flying brands, heat or toxic gases</p>

366
Q

<p>Factors that influence potential exposures are?</p>

A

<p>Distance<br></br><br></br>Radiant head<br></br><br></br>Wind</p>

367
Q

<p>What is the distance to be considered an exposure?</p>

A

<p>30 ft</p>

368
Q

<p>“INITIAL “ Exposure control requires what hose line and how much GPM?</p>

A

<p>2 1/2 ” and 200gpm</p>

369
Q

<p>Exposure protection should be accomplished with ?</p>

A

<p>Ground monitors <br></br><br></br>Mounted deck guns</p>

370
Q

<p>Confinement is defined as?</p>

A

<p>The stopping of the progression of the fire</p>

371
Q

<p>Examples of the “CONFINEMENT tactical priority would be?</p>

A

<p>Preventing fires into un burned areas<br></br><br></br>Time to conduct a rescue<br></br><br></br>Protect exit stairways and corridors</p>

372
Q

<p>What is the fire flow formula?</p>

A

<p>L x W / 3 x % involved</p>

373
Q

<p>What is the fire formula for multiple floors?</p>

A

<p>L x W /3 x % involved = GPM/ min x number of floors</p>

374
Q

<p>The Tactical priority of EXTINGUISHMENT requires?</p>

A

<p>1.75” line @ 150gpm for most initial fire or one room fire<br></br><br></br>2.5” line @ 200gpm for larger fires or have extended outside the room of Origin.</p>

375
Q

<p>What factor has the most impact on the outcome of a fire incident?</p>

A

<p>The initial attack hose line</p>

376
Q

<p>Is the action taken to expose hidden fire and to assure complete extinguishment?</p>

A

<p>Overhaul</p>

377
Q

<p>Term of : Designed to remove the products of combustion from a fire area and allow cool fresh air to enter?</p>

A

<p>Ventilation</p>

378
Q

<p>What is the TACTICAL priority of protecting property from damage?</p>

A

<p>Salvage</p>

379
Q

<p>When will the passport accountability system be utilized?</p>

A

<p>2 or more units assigned to an IDLH incident</p>

380
Q

<p>LEVEL 2 staging is defined as:</p>

A

<p>Formal process directed by the IC or Operations section chief where responding units are assigned a specific location in anticipation of future deployment.</p>

381
Q

<p>Who can establish a LEVEL 2 staging area?</p>

A

<p>IC<br></br><br></br>Operations section chief</p>

382
Q

<p>Approximately how many parking spaces does it take for each fire apparatus?</p>

A

<p>8 spots</p>

383
Q

<p>When should LEVEL 2 staging be established? 4 items.</p>

A

<p>Multiple alarm incidents<br></br><br></br>Level 2 or greater MCI<br></br><br></br>Airport III index or greater <br></br><br></br>Other incident where multiple resources should be supervised</p>

384
Q

<p>When 2 or mare staging areas are being used that are identified how?</p>

A

<p>Function or location</p>

385
Q

<p>Hi rise operation staging is where?</p>

A

<p>2 floors below the fire floor</p>

386
Q

<p>What is the term used for the staging of resources prior to entering the incident scene?</p>

A

<p>BASE</p>

387
Q

<p>Definition of Perimeter?</p>

A

<p>The most distant control point for the incident.</p>

388
Q

<p>What was the perimeter for the Oklahoma City bombing?</p>

A

<p>20 square blocks</p>

389
Q

<p>Responders at an active shooter event should realize?</p>

A

<p>Secondary devices<br></br>Actions against responders<br></br>Implement PPE<br></br>Caution with tactical actions<br></br>Preserve evidence</p>

390
Q

<p>What resources are used to begin at a CBRNE incident?</p>

A

<p>ERG<br></br><br></br>WISER</p>

391
Q

<p>What is the resource that uses the ERG and NIH combined for CBRNE?</p>

A

<p>WISER</p>

392
Q

<p>What are the control zones?</p>

A

<p>Exclusion Zone- Risk outweighs benefit<br></br><br></br>Hot Zone- HI risk<br></br><br></br>Warm zone- Little risk<br></br><br></br>Cold zone- no risk</p>

393
Q

<p>Decision making for setting up isolation or control zones is based on :</p>

A

<p>Potential to harm:<br></br><br></br>1. Life<br></br><br></br>2. Critical systems<br></br><br></br>3. Property</p>

394
Q

<p>The initial isolation zone becomes the hot zone when?</p>

A

<p>The product is confirmed and additional references are used to confirm the distances.</p>

395
Q

<p>According to the ERG for for an “UNKNOWN “ hazard is?</p>

A

<p>100 meters or 330 ft in all directions<br></br><br></br>Found on Guide 111.</p>

396
Q

<p>A protective action Zone is identified for what?</p>

A

<p>Evacuation <br></br><br></br>Protected in place</p>

397
Q

<p>Definition of Protection in place is based upon?</p>

A

<p>Risk assessment of the incident</p>

398
Q

<p>Evaluation of the IAP is done how often?</p>

A

<p>AT LEAST every 10 min</p>

399
Q

<p>Definition of “DEMOBILIZATION”</p>

A

<p>Release and Return of resources that are no longer needed.</p>

400
Q

<p>When should incident command be terminated?</p>

A

<p>When the incident has de-escalated to a point where all units have returned to service.</p>

401
Q

<p>Definition of an “After Action review “</p>

A

<p>An analysis of the events that transpired during an incident and a review of the actions used to mitigate it.</p>

402
Q

<p>PBCFR used 3 types of After action reviews?</p>

A

<p>Informal debriefing AAR<br></br><br></br>Informal Battalion AAR<br></br><br></br>Formal AAR</p>

403
Q

<p>An “INFORMAL BEBREIFING AAR?</p>

A

<p>Tail board or FS</p>

<p>handled at the comany level<br></br><br></br>moderated by the Company officer/ chief<br></br><br></br>Simple discussion</p>

404
Q

<p>Definition of a “INFORMAL BATTALION AAR”</p>

A

<p>Battalion HQ or FS</p>

<p>Handled at the company or Chief officer level<br></br><br></br>moderated by the Company officer of chief<br></br><br></br>IN DEPTH<br></br><br></br>held within a few shifts of immediately after</p>

405
Q

<p>Definition of a “FORMAL AAR”</p>

A

<p>Battalion HQ or HQ<br></br><br></br>CQI or Chief<br></br><br></br>Detailed and analysis<br></br><br></br>Scheduled with 30-90 days post</p>

406
Q

<p>A STEALTH report is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and stands for?</p>

A

<p>Final report<br></br><br></br>Set time<br></br><br></br>Tone<br></br><br></br>Execution<br></br><br></br>Analyze<br></br><br></br>Lessons learned<br></br><br></br>Transfer lessons<br></br><br></br>Hi note.</p>

407
Q

<p>The county established a framework to ensure PBC is prepared to respond and recover from hazardous incidents?</p>

A

<p>Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan</p>

408
Q

<p>Examples of Natural hazards are?</p>

A

<p>Severe Weather- Hurricane, tropical storm, lightening<br></br><br></br>Floods<br></br><br></br>Agricultural pests and ds.<br></br><br></br>Fire<br></br><br></br>Communicable ds. - H1N1, Eboli</p>

409
Q

<p>Examples of Technological Hazards are?</p>

A

<p>Transportation incidents<br></br><br></br>Hazardous materials<br></br><br></br>Nuclear power plant<br></br><br></br>Dike failure</p>

410
Q

<p>Human Caused Hazards are:</p>

A

<p>Domestic security<br></br><br></br>Workplace/ School violence<br></br><br></br>Mass migration</p>

411
Q

<p>An incident Support plan is for what type of incidents?</p>

A

<p>Mass fatality / MCI<br></br><br></br>General population shelters<br></br><br></br>Continuity of operations plan</p>

412
Q

<p>The definition of an HSP?</p>

A

<p>Hazard specific plan that outlines a mitigation strategy for 12 hazards</p>

413
Q

<p>What are the 12 hazards outlined by the HSP?</p>

A

<p>Severe weather<br></br><br></br>Floods<br></br><br></br>Agricultural pests ds.<br></br><br></br>Fire<br></br><br></br>Communicable ds<br></br><br></br>Transportation Incidents<br></br><br></br>Hazmat <br></br><br></br>Nuclear power plant<br></br><br></br>Dike failure<br></br><br></br>Domestic security<br></br><br></br>Workplace/ school violence<br></br><br></br>Mass migration</p>

414
Q

<p>A special or campaign event is a planned and organized activity or contest with how many people?</p>

A

<p>10,000 or more in a defined geographical area.</p>

415
Q

<p>The Emergency Operations Area is divided into how many geographical areas?</p>

A

<p>6</p>

416
Q

<p>An area command is established when ?</p>

A

<p>To oversee management of multiple incidents handled by separate ICSs<br></br><br></br>Very large incidents that involve multiple ICSs<br></br><br></br>Same area and same type</p>

417
Q

<p>For Area command of the same type and same area with 2 or more what are the examples?</p>

A

<p>HAZMAT<br></br><br></br>Oil spills<br></br><br></br>Wildland fires</p>

418
Q

<p>What is the term used for incidents under the authority of an area commander that are multi- Jurisdictional ?</p>

A

<p>Unified Area Command</p>

419
Q

<p>Area command oversees management of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_while an EOC coordinates\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>Incidents<br></br><br></br>Support functions and resource support.</p>

420
Q

<p>The intinial Critical incident mnumonic is and stands for ?</p>

A

<p>BELOW</p>

<p>Buidling construction</p>

<p>Extent of fire</p>

<p>life safety</p>

<p>occupancy</p>

<p>water supply</p>

421
Q

<p>An all hazard level 3 IMT is made up of how many people</p>

A

<p>10-35</p>

422
Q

<p>An all hazard level 2IMT is made up of how many people</p>

A

<p>20-35</p>

423
Q

<p>An all hazard level 1IMT is made up of how many people</p>

A

<p>35-50</p>

424
Q

<p>who serves as the primary Multi-agency coordination center (MACS) for palm beach county?</p>

A

<p>PBC EOC</p>

425
Q

<p>It is recommended that future revisions be completed how often?</p>

A

<p>on a biennail basis</p>

426
Q

<p>when transferring command the prefered method is ?</p>

A

<p>Face to face</p>

427
Q

<p>Floridas light-frame truss type law is applicable to who?</p>

A

<p>commercial</p>

<p>Industrial</p>

<p>multi unit residential with 3 untis or more</p>

428
Q

<p>the purpose of a back up line is?</p>

A

<p>to protect FF who are performing fire arttack.</p>

429
Q

<p>overhaul includes which acions?</p>

A

<p>total xtinguishment of all smoldering fires</p>

<p>checking for all hidden fire and extention</p>

<p>Extinguishing all hidden and extension</p>

<p></p>

430
Q

<p>upoin arriving in lelvel 1 stagging what shall units announce?</p>

A

<p>arrival and stagging location</p>

431
Q

<p>the IC will base the intial isolation zone based from what resources?</p>

A

<p>WISER and ERG</p>

432
Q

<p>what is the only way to detect the presence of radation?</p>

A

<p>monitoring</p>

433
Q

<p>the protective action zone determines what to factors?</p>

A

<p>evacuation or protactin place</p>

434
Q

<p>the decison to evacuate or protectin place is made upon?</p>

A

<p>whichever offers thelesser degree of danger to the public</p>

435
Q

<p>What is an example of the PIO disseminting acurate and timely information?</p>

A

<p>information on public health</p>

<p>safety</p>

<p>protection</p>

436
Q

<p>the PIO serves as a link to who?</p>

A

<p>Joint infoirmation system</p>

437
Q

<p>what are considered examples of natrual hazards?</p>

A

<p>Hurricanes</p>

<p>tropical storms</p>

<p>lightening</p>

<p>H1N1</p>

<p>ebola</p>

438
Q

<p>the Hazard specific plan ubder the CEMP is describedas?</p>

A

<p>Formal and Robust</p>

439
Q

<p>the incident support plan for the CEMP is describedas?</p>

A

<p>written and short</p>

440
Q

<p>EOAs are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and are under the direction and control of the \_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>Field incident commnad posts</p>

<p>EOC</p>

441
Q

<p>What is the breakdown for incident mgt Teams?</p>

A

<p>Type 5 and 4 : 7-10 people 1 operational period</p>

<p>Local and regional</p>

<p></p>

<p>Type 3: 10-35 people multiple operatinal periods</p>

<p>All Hazard</p>

<p></p>

<p>Type 2: 20-35 people multiple operational periods</p>

<p> manages 200-500 persons</p>

<p>All Hazard and Wildland team- self contained</p>

<p>GACC, NIFC, NWCG - operate through US forest service</p>

<p></p>

<p>Type 1: 35-50 people multiple operational periods</p>

<p> manages 500-to over a 1000 perons</p>

<p>GACC, NIFC, NWCG- operate through US forest serivce</p>

<p>18 teams exist.</p>

<p></p>

<p></p>

442
Q

<p>who makes the decision to establish and area command?</p>

A

<p>agency administrator</p>

<p>public offical with juristictional responsibilty</p>

443
Q

<p>Need for Area command examples are :</p>

<p></p>

A

<p>bio terrorism</p>

<p>flooding</p>

<p>hurricanes</p>

<p>Hazmat</p>

<p>oilspills</p>

<p>wildland fires</p>

444
Q

<p>incidents that do not have similar resource demands are usually handled by who?</p>

A

<p>EOC</p>

445
Q

<p>if multiple units arrive OS at the same time and no chief officer has established command, who does it fall to?</p>

A

<p>first due operstional captain</p>

446
Q

<p>the ICS forms should be used for what type of incidents?</p>

A

<p>Large scale</p>

<p>Long duration</p>

<p>complec incidents</p>

447
Q

<p>The emergency evacutation tones will be repeated how many times?</p>

A

<p>2 or Twice</p>

448
Q

<p>COAL WAS WEALTH</p>

A

<p> Construction </p>

<p> Occuoamcy </p>

<p>Area of fire</p>

<p>Life Safety</p>

<p></p>

<p>Water supply</p>

<p>Appartus / Personnel</p>

<p>Street conditions</p>

<p>'</p>

<p>Weather</p>

<p>Exposures</p>

<p>auxillary appliances</p>

<p>Location and extent of fire</p>

<p>time</p>

<p>Heights and hazards</p>

449
Q

<p>What are common operational period lenths?</p>

A

<p>12 hours</p>

450
Q

<p>DOCs or Department operations centers forcus on what ?</p>

A

<p>internal managemnt and response</p>

451
Q

<p>EOC's represent what ?</p>

A

<p>physcial location for coordination of information and resources</p>

<p></p>

452
Q

<p>Regional or local IMT activations include what tyoes of incidents?</p>

A

<p>Major structure fires</p>

<p>MVCs</p>

<p>Armed robbery operations</p>

<p>HAZMAT</p>

<p>special compaign events</p>

<p></p>

453
Q

<p>Examples of incdients for an Allhazard team response is ?</p>

A

<p>tornado touchdown</p>

<p>Earthquake</p>

<p>Flood</p>

<p>Multi day hostage standoff</p>

<p>festivals</p>

<p>political rallies</p>

<p>state and national summits and confrences</p>

EMS captain (25 decks)

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