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EMS captain > Policies and SOGs combined > Flashcards

Policies and SOGs combined Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the clearinghouse for citizens complaints?

A

Operations and administrative services

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2
Q

Who is allowed to take or contact the complaint?

A

Lieutenant or higher officer

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3
Q

How is the 1st notification made in the chain of command for complaints?

A

Verbally to the DC or supervisor.
If not available then BC.for the complaints battalion.

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4
Q

What is a customer inquiry?

A

Inquiry - Request for information -
Lost item
Securing property
Gratitude
Obtain inform

GIS

Gratitude

Information

Securing property

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5
Q

What is a customer complaint?

A

Misconduct
Taking of property of value
Dissatisfaction with policy or procedures

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6
Q

When are statements with regards to citizens complaints necessary?

A

Statements are needed :

  1. Damage or loss of property
  2. Poor treatment
  3. Patient wishes- ie. Not securing residence or wrong transport location
  4. When the officer needs statements
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7
Q

Who gets contacted with finding of an investigation with regards to citizens complaints?

A

DC get contacted for findings of Citizens complaints

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8
Q

Who holds the records for citizens complaints and inquiries?

A

Fire rescue administrative secretary

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9
Q

Customer complaints regarding fire safety includes what types?

A

Codes
Overcrowding
Parking in fire lanes

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10
Q

Customer complaints with regards to matters of fire safety are ha fled by?

A

Community risk reduction and notification to DC or BC

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11
Q

Customer complaints concerning communication center go to who?

A

Communications center supervisor

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12
Q

Reportable events are defined as:

A

An occurrence during emergency calls, training, pub ed, emergency or non emergency situations

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13
Q

An IRE is defined as:
With regards to any Citizen, patient, fire rescue personnel:

A
  1. Harm caused by action or inaction
  2. Caused by equipment failure
  3. Immoral, unethical , or illegal action
  4. Cause for litigation
  5. Poltically sensitive
  6. Media scrutinization
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14
Q

An IRE is reported immediately to whom?

A

Supervisor

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15
Q

For expediency of an IRE notification is made how?

A

By telephone or face to face to the BC.

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16
Q

Who can place an unit OOS for an IRE?

A

BC or equivalent supervisor

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17
Q

A “DRE” is defined as:

A

Events that occur during emergency calls, training, pub ed, emergency or non emergency situations:

Potential to cause harm
Equipment failure that had potential but did not.

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18
Q

Who is responsible completing and submitting the DRE form and where does it go?

A

First person to report event and uploaded to sharepoint.

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19
Q

Who can participate in ride alongs ?

A

Students and observers

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20
Q

Definition of Student in regards to ride times?

A

Enrolled in an education program at an accredited facility that has an agreement with fire rescue.
To include: EMT and paramedic programs
Emergency medical responder
Training programs at secondary school of palm beach county.

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21
Q

Limitations of Student riders?

A

Only perform or assist in activities where proficiency has been verified by training facility.

No riding alone with pt’s in pt compartment

Logged in station log book

Wear uniform that training facility has issued

Not subject to duties outside of agreement

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22
Q

prior to riding, First time students on ride alongs must provide the following items:

A

Written verification of name, year/ class and status in program.

Background check and criminal hx

Written verification of. Proficiency in BSI

Have stethoscope, eye protection, mask and fit tested.

Written confirmation of vaccinations

Written verification of skill proficiency

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23
Q

Students may ride at what times?

A

School Students: 0700-1600
EMR students only 0900-1600

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24
Q

What forms are required by students to ride - legal documents?

A

Copy of Student/ observer ride time

Release of Liability and covenant not to sue.

Indemnification agreement

HIPPA confidentiality agreement

Insurance coverage

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25
Q

Who may ride as an observer?

A

Local Dr’s, nurses, PA’s, Nurse practitioners, and other medical students or professionals.

EMT’s or paramedics with other local agencies from their chief on letterhead

Individuals seeking employee or are in training

Others approved by the fire rescue administrator and FR HIPPA compliance officer

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26
Q

Observers paperwork differs from students in one way?

A

Application signed by FR HIPPA compliance officer

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27
Q

The preferred location for observers to ride is:

A

Battalion HQ’s unless otherwise specified in the approval process.

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28
Q

Students unable to keep ride times :

A

MUST notify the clinical coordinator of their facility in advance

And coordinator MUST notify the recruitment and human resource development officer

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29
Q

Observers unable to keep ride times:

A

MUST notify the recruitment and human resource development officer in advance.

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30
Q

Upon arrival the student or observer MUST report to who?

A

Operational captain and then paired with the LT.

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31
Q

Who may terminate a student or observers ride time?

A

Operational Captain
EMS captain
BC or DC

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32
Q

If a student or observers ride time is terminated who is then notified?

A

Deputy chief of operations is notified.

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33
Q

What is the dress code for Student riders?

A

Designated uniform by training facility
Badge or other identifying means

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34
Q

Observer dress code is:

A

White shirt- SS or LS
Black, dark blue pants
Black closed shoes w/ dark socks

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35
Q

Guidelines for Operational Capt and Lt with Students/ observers?

A

Let to obtain proper paperwork for student

Safe place to observe with seat belt

Introduce person to others in the station

Familiarity with apparatus

Log person in station logbook

Log person on ePCR’s for calls and treatments performed

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36
Q

Students will arrive at ride time with what equipment?

A

Stethoscope
Eye protection
Respiratory protection
Clinical and skills documentation able to perform.
Copy of state EMT and BLS cards.

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37
Q

Who has the responsibility to call for a fire investigator?

A

IC

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38
Q

Who is responsible for securing and maintaining scene integrity for a fire investigation?

A

Operations personnel. Not LE

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39
Q

How is a fire investigator requested?

A

The IC requests through the communications center.

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40
Q

When must a fire investigator be called?

A
  1. Fire is suspicious or crime related-
  2. Loss of injury or life
  3. accidental fire w/ substantial monetary loss or structural damage.
  4. Juvenile related incidents
  5. Explosive devices/ explosion
  6. Undetermined
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41
Q

Evidence that a fire is suspicious in nature or crime related means:

A

Incendiary fires/ explosive devices
Firebombs
Stolen vehicles
Burglaries

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42
Q

Loss of life/ injury definition for fire investigator call out?

A

Fire or explosion related deaths
Fire or explosion related injuries which require transport by FR.

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43
Q

Definition of Accidential fire with substantial monetary loss or structural damage?

A

Monetary fire loss of $70,000 or structural damage exceeding 20%

Any suspicious or crime related incident regardless of dollar value.

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44
Q

Definition of Juvenile related incidents for fire investigation?

A

Suspected to be the result of juvenile involvement in the ignition process

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45
Q

For which of the following fire investigatory incidents shall a Fire investigator be contacted via radio or cell phone?

A

Juvenile related incidents.

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46
Q

What type of work related injuries must be reported?

A

All injuries no matter how minor

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47
Q

What must the employee have in order to go to the OHC?

A

A completed employee injury /illness report. Form FRH-302

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48
Q

Who and where does PPE go if an injury occurs on an emergency incident?

A

BC secures PPE and training AMS safety division

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49
Q

Who fills,out report for minor injuries and where does it go?

A

Immediate supervisor and forwarded to BC

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50
Q

An example of injury while wearing PPE would be?

A

Burns to the hands while wearing gloves.

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51
Q

What are the options for a minor injury requiring treatment?

A
  1. shall report to the OHC for further evaluation
  2. if OHC is closed then may go to the nearest hospital or wait till OHC opens.
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52
Q

When does notification of an injury need to,be reported to the state?

A
  1. one or more FF are hospitalized for,more than 24hrs
  2. LODD
  3. serious injury related to an equipment failure.
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53
Q

Notification of a serious injury meeting criteria for the state gets reported to who and when?

A

Bureau of,fire standards and training- FF Safety and health section within 4 hours.

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54
Q

Employees with work related injuries must be cleared by the OHC before what?

A

Traveling out of the area.

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55
Q

Injury tracking is entered by who ? And then forwarded to who?

A

Training and safety division

Wellness coordinator

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56
Q

How often is injury tracking analyzed

A

On a quarterly basis

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57
Q

Clearance from the OHC prior to returning to work must of,had what types of conditions?

A
  1. work related injury that resulted in being off duty from WC or LD
  2. Out patient surgery or hospitalization
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58
Q

Responsibility for,returning to work is who’s?

A

The employee to notify the BC/ supervisor

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59
Q

What is the order for clearance by the OHC prior to returning to work?

A

Obtain the day before returning to work and if unable notify the BC/supervisor they are reporting to,the OHC for clearance .

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60
Q

If an employee cannot,obtain clearance to return to work because the OHC is closed what happens?

A

The BC MAY allow the employees to return to work if not I’ll and without limitations but must still receive clearance from the OHC before Their next day

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61
Q

If allows to return to work with the BCs permission when must the employee go,to the OHC for clearance?

A

Before the next work day

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62
Q

When must an employee be required to complete a medical exam and fitness assessment?

A

Prior to returning to full duty from any injury or illness or any leave greater than 6 months

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63
Q

For employees returning to full duty who must clearance be obtained from other than the OHC/?

A

Compliance officer and training division.

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64
Q

What is the time frame employees can be held to complete target solutions and other identified training?

A

1 week

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65
Q

If the reporting system is down how shall the incident report be documented?

A

Should be documented on the a “field report”

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66
Q

Report writing will be in accordance with which type of code?

A

“Dispatched code”

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67
Q

Who can enter information on a medical report?

A

Any crew member as ;long as it’s consistent with the authors level of training and certification.

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68
Q

What information is needed to finalize a medical report?

A

“Report author”
HIPPA or PPA signed
Signature of patient or witness
“Transfer of care “ by hospital staff
MRN
Any students or observers must be listed.

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69
Q

How does a reservist get entered in the causality page?

A

RESERVE1 is the ID number
PBCFR is the first name
RESERVIST was the last name

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70
Q

What information is to be entered on a level 1 or 2 MCI?

A

Name
DOB
Phone number
Brief narrative

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71
Q

Security of all medical supplies applies to what type?

A

All non controlled substances , medications, fluids , and medical equipment.

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72
Q

Fire rescue has an agreement with who for purchasing all pharmaceutical supplies and medications?

A

Health care district of Palm beach county.

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73
Q

Battalion level procurement of equipment will go through who?

A

Medical supplies warehouse.

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74
Q

Storing of medications in the station supply room are to be kept at what temperature?

A

70-75 degrees

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75
Q

Storing of medication on the rescue truck need to be kept at what temperature?

A

65-80 degrees Fahrenheit

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76
Q

Rotations of medications are to happen on what day ? AND who is responsible the inspection ?

A

On the first day of each month and the operational captain or designee

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77
Q

Where are adulterated or expired medications kept?

A

In a designated “quarantine “ are within the supply closets.

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78
Q

What are the 6 rights to medications?

A

Right Patient
Right medication
Right Dose
Right Route
Right time and Frequency
Right indication

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79
Q

All medication errors and immediate and delayed outcomes for errors gets reported to who?

A

EMS captain

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80
Q

The exposure control manual provides information on 5 areas. What are they?

A

Risk
Prevention
Determination
Care and cleaning
Biomedical waste

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81
Q

Significant exposures are defined as and are what type?

A

Exposure through a needle stick , sharps to the following body fluids:

Blood or and body fluid containing visible blood
Semen
Vaginal secretions
CSF
Synovial fluid
Peritoneal fluid
Plueral fluid
Pericardial fluid
Amniotic fluid.
Body fluids to mucus membranes
Chapped or a braided skin
Exposure to Airborne contagions

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82
Q

Measures to be taken immediately after a significant exposure?

A

Clean the wound
Notify the EMS captain
Accompany the source patient to the hospital
Fill out the hospitals exposure log book using the Case number
Report to the OHC immediately or the next business day
Discontinue and treatment after being notified by the OHC of a negative result.

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83
Q

EMS captains responsibility post significant exposure are?

A

Make sure exposed employee requests patient source testing at the hospital
Consult with the ER physician
Notify the exposure control officer during normal hours unless employee receives post exposure treatment-
Then have the communications center page the control officer at any time

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84
Q

The definition of a newborn to be left at a fire station is defined as?

A

7 days old or less left by the parent

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85
Q

What is the difference between “Safe Haven” and “Safe Place”

A

Safe haven is referencing new borns
Safe Place is for teenagers

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86
Q

Under the “Safe Haven “ parents may not be pursued unless?

A

The parents are seeking to reclaim the new born infant

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87
Q

Parents under the “Safe Haven “ law can regain custody as longs as what?

A

The infant shows no signs of abuse

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88
Q

Under the safe haven law, Law enforcement should not be contacted unless?

A

Signs of physical abuse are present at the time of surrender.

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89
Q

Who get notified when a newborn infant is surrendered at a fire station?

A

PIO

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90
Q

How does the newborn infant get entered in the PCR if it is unclear the safe haven law?

A

“Safe Haven Baby”

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91
Q

Who gets notified for a Safe place incident?

A

The communications center and that the a unit is OOS until a Safe harbor representative arrives.

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92
Q

Under the safe place law, when should law enforcement be contacted?

A
  1. Child is followed by and angry parent to the fire station
  2. Abuse is ssuspected
  3. Suicidal/ homicidal
  4. Teen is hallucinating and out of control
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93
Q

Medical supply warehouse record keeping inventory items are stored where?

A

On the “G:” drive in the support services folder

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94
Q

Expired medications shall not be held in quarantine for more than?

A

30 days

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95
Q

If an employee is having training issues how should it be documented?

A

On a professional development form

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96
Q

Who can complete a Professional development form ?

A

Any employee

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97
Q

Where is professional development form submitted ?

A

To the affected employees battalion chief

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98
Q

Professional development needs assessments include:

A

Additional research in the questionable subject
Reading combined with per and post assessments
Attendance on training sessions
Performance training and evaluations
Attendance at courses provided by vendors
Other

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99
Q

What is considered successful professional development?

A

Acceptable job performance as described within the plan

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100
Q

Where do completed professional development forms get submitted to ?

A

The compliance officer electronically

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101
Q

What is the maximum amount of time allotted for professional development remediation?

A

Maximum 18 shifts

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102
Q

Property and damage reports are defined as?

A

Damage to fore rescue property and or property belonging to the members of the public. NOT RESULTING FROM A VEHICLE ACCIDENT.

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103
Q

When damage does occur from a fire rescue vehicle and DOES NOT sustain damage who is notified?

A

Battalion chief

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104
Q

Where can phone numbers for contacting parties be found?

A

Fire Rescue intranet (share point) under phone list

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105
Q

Documentation for Property loss, damage, or theft includes?

A

Property and liability report
Employee statements
Law enforcement report if necessary
Photographs with digital color
Property damage tracking number

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106
Q

Who is notified via email once a property damage tracking number is pulled ?

A

Training and safety division
ALL Deputy Chiefs
ALL Division chiefs
ALL District chiefs
ALL Battalion chiefs
Risk management

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107
Q

Incidents involving bodily injury sustained by the pubic at a fire rescue facility what happens?

A

Render appropriate treatment
Notify the communications center
Officers to notify the battalion chief

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108
Q

Stretcher malfunctions are handled how?

A

Render appropriate treatment
Call for an additional rescue
Call for an EMS captain
Take the rescue out of service
Sequester stretcher at battalion HQ
Label the stretcher “Out of Service- do not use”
Place in assetworks as a “HIGH probity”
Report incident to Central shop and CQI

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109
Q

What has to be “Clearly” written on the tag for a stretcher malfunction?

A

OUT OF SERVICE- DO NOT USE

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110
Q

After securing the malfunctioning stretcher- Where does the item get reported to ?

A

Assetworks as a HIGH priority

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111
Q

What is the purpose of paramedic development?

A

Provide a uniform process for new employees attempting to work as a paramedic

Address development for paramedics requiring remediation

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112
Q

The Paramedic Development course is for?

A

New employees and
Those needing remediation

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113
Q

How are new employees selected for the paramedic development course?

A

Based on Senority

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114
Q

What are the requirements to get into the Paramedic development course?

A

Current ACLS card
Current state of Florida or National paramedic certification
Complete sign off skill sheets
Complete IV skill sheet

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115
Q

Evaluation material for the paramedic development course include what?

A

Medical protocols
EMS related SOGs
Exposure control manual
PDC skill sheets
Pharmacology
ECG interpretation
Scenario based assessments on Praxctical application of protocols and or patient assessment

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116
Q

The Paramedic development entrance exam includes?

A

ON the first day completing a written test at 80% or above

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117
Q

IF an employee fails the PDC entrance exam what happens?

A

Returned to shift as soon as possible
Cannot re try until next scheduled PDC
IF the employee fails the 2nd time- must wait 24 month before applying again.

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118
Q

Paramedic probation consists of:

A

18 shifts probation period which can me ended at any time with an EMS captains approval.
Memorandum with task book to be sent from the EMS captain to the compliance officer

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119
Q

Extensions for paramedic probation are ?

A

Done by the EMS captain and documented on a professional development form for an additional 18 shifts.
If the extension period is still less than satisfactory then the EMS captain. Recommends the person be referred to the medical services division and medical director for further evaluation.

All documentation to be sent to the compliance officer

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120
Q

Per CQI and Adverse event is defines as ?

A

Incident causing injury or other medical condition to a patient as a result of treatment rendered by EMS personnel.

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121
Q

Per CQI, A near miss is defined as?

A

Incident that had the potential to harm a patient as a result of care rendered by EMS personnel BUT DID NOT actually harm the patient.

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122
Q

Per CQI, an ERROR is defined as?

A

Failure of a planned action to be completed as intended or the use of a wrong plan to achieve an aim

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123
Q

Reportable adverse, near miss, or errors are sent to who?

A

EMS CQI officer

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124
Q

What are the common means of reporting CQI events?

A

Field personnel vis chain of command
Reportable events
Hospitals via complaint as a performance improvement process
Patients vis a complaint to the agency

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125
Q

EMS CQI Reportable events are?

A

Airway or ventilation issues or errors
Electrical therapy issues or error
Deviation from EMS protocols with out justification
Advanced procedure issues or errors:
Paralytic use, pleural decompression, Cricothyrotomy
Repetitive minor issues that cannot be resolved on a supervisor level
Any other issue or error that causes harm or has significant potential to do so.

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126
Q

MInor CQI errors include?

A

Spelling or topographical errors
TIme delays without patient harm
Lack of detail
Intracranial- report inconsistencies
Protocol deviation without patient harm or potential.

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127
Q

Incidents identified by the EMS CQI officer level containing an EMS CQI reportable event are handled how?

A

Emailed to the appropriate EMS captain to be handled.

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128
Q

Who are responsible for the accurate inventory, distribution, transfer, documentation, and record keeping of all controlled substances on a unit?

A

All department protocoled Paramedics assigned to a unit.

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129
Q

Special events , dignitary details with regard to controlled substances are handled how?

A

Receive written authorization from the division chief of medical services or designee.

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130
Q

What kind of lock can be used for the EMS captains Storage container of controlled substances?

A

Key, coded, or biometric lock

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131
Q

When must controlled substances be inventoried?

A

Begin and end of shift
Custody change
When locked tag seal is changed

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132
Q

If the paramedic who signed the controlled substance log can longer keep possession and no relief is available who do they go to?

A

Lieutenant or operational captain or designee

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133
Q

IF trauma hawk is taken out of service where are the controlled substances kept?

A

In a department issued lockable safe

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134
Q

What shall be recorded on the controlled substance inventory log?

A

Total amount in Mg, MCG, etc
NDC or Lot number
Expiration date

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135
Q

How long before the expiration date are crews to notify the EMS captain that the controlled substance is about to expire?

A

7 days

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136
Q

How are explained discrepancies handled with controlled substances?

A

Report to Lt or operational captain
Single line strike though with initials next to change

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137
Q

How are UNexplained discrepancies handled for a unit?

A

Notification to the EMS captain and EMS captain contact the Division chief of medical services

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138
Q

How are UNexplained discrepancies handled for the EMS captains stock?

A

Notification to the division chief of medical services

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139
Q

One a controlled substance is removed from the container how long till it needs to be re-sealed?

A

Immediately following or as soon as reasonably possible

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140
Q

Distribution of controlled substances from the EMS captain to a unit are signing in what spaces in the book?

A

EMS captain signs Given/ Issued by and Unit sign received by section .

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141
Q

Damage of a controlled substance from a a unit is handled how?

A

Notification t o the EMS captain
Property loss form and tracking number
“Broken/ damaged” written in the case# spot
The EMS captain notifies the division chief of medical services

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142
Q

Damage from the EMS captains stock are handled how?

A

Notification to Chief of medical services
Property loss and tracking number

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143
Q

H ow are lost or stolen controlled substances handled from a unit?

A

Notification to the EMS captain
Property loss form and tracking number
Law Enforcement report attached
EMS captain then to notify the Division chief of medical services
EMS captain to Ensure all paperwork is completed

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144
Q

If theft or loss of a controlled substance from the EMS captains stock- how is it handled?

A

The same as a unit loss except the EMS captain contacts the division chief of medical services 1st.

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145
Q

Disposal, Destruction of controlled substances are handled how by a unit?

A

Draw upon Unused medication and dispose of it “as directed by the medical services division,.
Record disposal in log book using 2 different employees.

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146
Q

How are expired controlled substances handled by the unit?

A

Unit gives the expired medication to the EMS captain and records “Expired” in the logbook for the case #

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147
Q

How are the collected expired controlled substances handled?

A

Hand delivered to an authorized member of the medical services division for proper disposal.

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148
Q

Definition of a “PAR” level?

A

The “ideal quantity of each controlled substance carried by a unit in order to maintain sufficient operations.

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149
Q

Who sets the running par level at the battalion for controlled substances?

A

The EMS captain.

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150
Q

Where can the “Running “ par level for a controlled substance for each unit be found?

A

Front cover of the units controlled substance logbook
And
EMS captains logbook

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151
Q

Minimum par levels with controlled Substances can be found where?

A

PBC portal/ PBCFR/medical services under the quick link- Controlled substances minimum quantities.

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152
Q

A serious injury not requiring state notification get reported to who and within how many hours

A

OHC and 4 hours

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153
Q

Who delivers all investigative material for an IRE?

A

DC to the Division chief of operations

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154
Q

the investigative material fro an IRE has to be sent when?

A

ASAP during normal business hours

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155
Q

what is the time frame for completing a customer complant file and by who?

A

30 days

DC / Supervisor

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156
Q

how far in advance should paperwork for students/ observers be completed?

A

3 weeks

157
Q

who contacts to State Bureau of standanrds and training for reportable events?

A

FOO with authorization by DC

158
Q

inspection of controlled substances includes?

A

medication condition

NDC

lot number

expiration date

cointainer breakage

alteration

tampering

159
Q

What is the minimum time for logs and records with regards to controlled substances kept?

A

2 years

160
Q

With regards to reporting, what are code numbers identified as “FIres”?

A

100-173

161
Q

Who is responsible for completing all fire related pages?

A

Individual with the most knowledge of the incidentr

162
Q

Who is responsible for checking completeness of fire reports and notifies who how and by when?

A

BCVia email to captainChanges completed by end of next shift

163
Q

what are the EMS CQI areas (7)?

A

EMS CQI reportable events

EMS excellence awards

EMS CQI committee

EMS CQI studies and goals

EMS CQI Surveys

EMS CQI best practices

EMS CQI Hospital outcomes

164
Q

What are the FIRE CQI Areas (4)

A

Fire CQI

Fire CQI committee

Fire CQI Studies

FIRE CQI Best practicea

165
Q

What are the 4 possible outcomes from EMS CQI?

A

System Faults

lessons learned

remedial training

CQI officer level

166
Q

who does the administrative secretary or FOO contact after a complaint tracking number is issued?

A

Deputy chief and or Division chief supervisor

167
Q

once discipline is warrented or may a the result during a customer complaint who should be consulted?

A

DC or supervisor

168
Q

the documents generated in a customer complaint are refered to as?

A

Inquiry logs

169
Q

who initiates the primary investigation for an IRE

A

BC or supervisor

170
Q

Who are the comp forms IRE fowarded to by the end of the day ?

A

Divison chief of operations

DC’s

internal affairs

Litigation officer

EMS CQI

FIRE CQI

safety committee

171
Q

DREs are handled by the _______ and notifies the _______

via ___________ before the end of the day.

A

BC

DC

email

172
Q

who initiates a meeting with the involved supervisory staff to ascertain the need for an investigation?

A

Division Chief of operations

173
Q

What is the age for observers?

A

18

174
Q

examples of undetermed cause for a fire and fire investigator response are:

A

Fire sprinkler activation

overcrowding

when the IC determines a significant life safety issue

175
Q

Who determines is the PBSO bomb squad is required?

A

Fire investigator

176
Q

work related injures and incidents is inclusive of ?

A

employeees

Reservists performing offical duites.

DOES NOT APPLY TO CADETS

177
Q

who is responsible for their employees safe working performance and environment?

A

Each supervisor

178
Q

who adjusts leave types for an injury?

A

Payroll section

179
Q

who approves workers compensation?

A

OHC

180
Q

when an employee is transported to the hosptial who is responsible completed paperwork

A

BC

181
Q

When does the employee report to the OHC after an injury?

A

ASAP or within 48hrs.

182
Q

who assists the employee in completing the appropriate dept of labor forms for processing medical claims?

A

OHC

183
Q

If hospitalization of an employee is required who is required to complete the required forms?

A

Risk management

184
Q

who enters injury tracking data information into the computer database?

A

Training and safety division

185
Q

For and exposure, when must the employee report to OHC?

A

immediately or next business day if occured after business hours

186
Q

Who contacts the hospital ICC to verify source patient testing?

A

Exposure control officer

187
Q

Who is responsible for determing workers compensation coverage?

A

OHC

188
Q

the logbook in reagrds to the controlled substances policy is also known as ?

A

record keeping binder

189
Q

who is responsible for designating who will complete the data entry for a fire report?

A

Highest ranking IC

190
Q

Vehicle accident reports with occupants who are denying injures will have their demographic information completed in which program?

A

ePCR

191
Q

The safe haven prgram is based on what statue?

A

Florida

192
Q

In what situations can parents attempt to regain custody of a newborn?

A

no signs of physical abuse

parents state of mind

can contact the selected hospital

193
Q

who shall provide the teen with a safe enviornment ?

A

Lt or operational captain

194
Q

who notifies the communcications center that thir station is OOS for a safe place incident?

A

Lt or operational captain

195
Q

who creates the professional development plan?

A

Batallion command staff

196
Q

The employee with meet with who to discuss progress of a proffesional development plan?

A

supervisor and DC

197
Q

completed professional developmetn forms are fowarded to who and how?

A

complaince offcer

electronically

198
Q

Future updates to the property damage and injury policy is the responibily of who?

A

Division Chief of safety and training

199
Q

who amd when are notified when a unit is involved with property damage but the vehicle does not sustain damage?

A

BC prior to leaving scene

immediately

200
Q

who is notified if the BC is unreacable for property loss or damage?

A

FOO

201
Q

Who can be assigned portions of the property damage/ injury report?

A

Lt

operational captain

202
Q

What are the DCs responsibilty for property damage/ injury reports?

A

ensure all documentaion is accurate and complete

Inital report indicating the report id complete

Ensure discipline

foward all documentation to the training and safety divsion

203
Q

EMS CQI reportable events should not be confused with what other reports?

A

an IRE or DRE

204
Q

Best practices from the FIRE CQI side are submited to who?

A

Deputy chief of operations

205
Q

Paramedic development class is how many hours?

A

80 hrs

206
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to assign a safety officer?

A

IC

207
Q

All safety officers will have the authority to ?

A

Identify and correct safety and heath hazards

To alter,suspend, or terminate un -safe acts that involve an imminent hazard to personnel
Inform the IC of the 2 items above

208
Q

A safety office should have a working knowledge of what?

A

Safety concerns for fire rescue in typical incidents
Fire behavior
Building construction
EMS

209
Q

Only those person who have completed and approved Incident safety officer course ________ be used as a safety officer.

A

SHOULD

210
Q

A safety office shall be appointed on the following incidents?

A

HWH-hazardous, Wildland, high hazard

Incident becomes so large, complex, or dangerous that reasoned safety is potentially threatened.
Hazardous or potentially hazardous environments:
Structure fires
Special operations incidents
Large multi casualty incidents
Wild land fires with 4 or more units or during extreme weather.
Any high Hazard Training:
Live burn evolutions
Smoke drills
Dive rescue
Extrication
Elevated victim rescue
above or Below grade operations
confined space rescue

211
Q

Once assigned to Safety officer what are the duties?

A

Don appropriate vest and PPE
Ensure no entry into the hot zone as a single person
Ensure all control zones are established or adjust as necessary
Ensure exclusion zones are recognized
Rehab
Atmospheric monitoring
Remain on scene until relieved by the IC or designee
Document actions as to the incident reporting guide
any accidents injuries or unsafe acts or safety concerns should follow the CQI
Communicate with EMERGENCY TRAFFIC the exclusion zone

212
Q

Who do assistant safety officers report to?

A

Directly to the Incident safety officer

213
Q

How are safety officers general y assigned?

A

To a geographical or functional area.

214
Q

The following incidents REQUIRE an assistant safety officer?

A

Hazardous material
Dive team operations
Open water incidents
Rehab when assigned

215
Q

“Mayday” definition is?

A

Lost
Trapped
Disoriented
Seriously injured
Experiencing an Air emergency
In need of immediate help

216
Q

The term “MAYDAY” should be used when ?

A

Lost
Trapped
Disoriented
Seriously injured
Air emergency
‘In need of immediate help

217
Q

When a “MAYDAY” is called what happens to the Tac channels?

A

The MAYDAY remains on the original channel and other operations will switch .

218
Q

During a “MAYDAY” the ISO should request what?

A

An additional safety officer

219
Q

The TAC stick shall only be used to?

A

Identify an energized source so an exclusionary zone can be created

220
Q

The ONLY useful purpose for a TAC stick is:

A

To identify energy sources that were not previously aware of

221
Q

The TAC stick has 4 indicators?

A

Detects AC current only

Provides warning in audible beeps and flashes

Warning signals increase in strength as amplitude increases

Warning signal s make it possible to locate the signal quickly

222
Q

The TAC stick does not?

A

Read DC current
Or pick up shielded AC voltage

223
Q

The 3 sensitivities for the TAC are?

A

HIGH
LOW
FRONT

224
Q

When using the TAC stick the user should start on which sensitivity?

A

HIGH and move to lower ones later.

225
Q

During which incidents is the TAC stick particularly useful?

A

Night operations and post storm area searches.

Fires

Powerlines down

226
Q

Atmospheric monitors are carried on which vehicles

A

Engines
Aerials
Rescues
BC
EMS captain
Special ops

227
Q

Who is equipped with the drager X-am 5000 5 gas monitor

A

EMS captains

228
Q

The difference between the drager X am 2500 and 5000 is ?

A

The 500o does OV monitoring for Ethylene oxide

229
Q

The Drager X am 5000 monitors which substances?

A

O2
Flammability
CO
H2S
OV

230
Q

When an atmospheric monitor alarms who SHALL be informed?

A

IC

231
Q

Active atmospheric monitoring is used when ?

A

Firefighter is actively monitoring an atmosphere to detect the presence of a leak
Investigating residential or commercial alarm activations to determine hazards

232
Q

What are the common gasses between the drager atmospheric monitors

A

O2
Flammability
CO

233
Q

What gas and how much is required for both drager monitors to operate correctly?

A

02 and 10% above

234
Q

What are normal atmospheric conditions

A

O2- 21%
LEL -0%
CO- 0 PPM
H2S- 0 PPM

235
Q

H2s has an almond like Oder detectable at what levels?

A

1-5ppm and 60-70% of the population

236
Q

The ISO with regards to atomospheric monitoring SHALL ensure:

A

Levels are safe before allowing personnel to remove SCBA during overhaul

Benefits outweigh risks with OV
Respiratory protection is used accordingly

237
Q

Half mask cartridge respirators with organic vapor filters can be used when 2 conditions apply?

A

OV only and 02 is normal

238
Q

What are Half mask cartridge respirators w/ organic vapors particularly used for?

A

Wildland fires

D/O operating at the pump panel

ISO

Post fire activities

239
Q

The IC or ISO shall determine if it is safe for what to happen when atmospheric monitoring?

A
  1. FF remove their respiratory protection
  2. Occupants to enter the structure
  3. Fire investigators to enter any structure
240
Q

TIC operations: our eyes work by seeing contrast by objects that are illuminated by either. _______ or. __________.

A

Sun or another from of light

241
Q

TIC operations in normal temperatures - a victim or FF will appear what color?

A

White

242
Q

TIC operations with victim or FF in structure fire will appear ?

A

Dark

243
Q

TIC operations for the most prominent feature of a FF is ?

A

SCBA bottle

244
Q

TIC’s are assigned to which apparatus?

A

Every Engine, rescue, EMS captain , and BC.

245
Q

Who are responsible for checking the TIC?

A

All company officers and chief officers in custody of the TIC.

246
Q

TICs are used for:

A

Search and rescue

Fire Attack

Overhaul

HAZMAT

Vehicle accidents

247
Q

TIC limitations:

A

Cannot see into a windowless building- need temperature differences
Cannot see under water
Cannot see through windows or glass
Cannot see through highly reflective materials - stainless, steel, mirrors, windows

248
Q

PBCFR used which Rehab standard for Heat stress index?

A

WBGT- Wet bulb globe temperature

249
Q

The heat stress index Is made up from ?

A
  1. Air Temperature
  2. Air Speed
  3. Humidity
  4. Radiation - direct sun light
250
Q

How many of hours of work may be sustained if ________, _________, _________ and hours__________.

A

Rest
Hydration
Energy nutrition

At least 4 hours

251
Q

What are the 5 components of REHAB?

A
  1. Rest
  2. Energy nutrition
  3. Hydration
  4. Accommodation for weather
  5. BLS and ALS monitoring
252
Q

What is the priority order for REHAB?

A

RHBEA

  1. Rest
  2. Hydration
  3. BLS/ALS
  4. Energy nutritionand ALS
  5. Accommodation for weather.
253
Q

What is the most important V/S to stabilize?

A

CORE temperature

254
Q

What percent is active cooling better than passive cooling?

A

50-60% more

255
Q

What are the medical NO-GO criteria?

A

SBP< 100
Pulse >100 with ANY of the following:
Temp > 101
SBP> 180
DBP>100
SPCO>0
ALS S/S.

256
Q

What are the time frames for rehab?

A

20 min X 2 for a total of 40 minutes. After 40 minutes BLS/ALS tx, and transport or referral to OHC

257
Q

Rehab 6 hours post fire incident is in reference to ?

A

Cardiac arrest and WILL be treated for cyanide exposure

258
Q

Rehab 24 hours post fire incident refer to as?

A

Carbon monoxide and cyanide exposures

259
Q

The rehab unit works under which command branch?

A

Logistics

260
Q

If there is no logistics branch who does the rehab unit report to?

A

IC

261
Q

Companies should be placed in rehab when ?

A

Worked for 45min
Used 2 air bottles consecutively
Rehab chart

262
Q

An assistant safety officer may be assigned by the IC for rehab under what incidents?

A

Physical labor of > 2 hours
Excessive rotation of companies
Incidents that require defined hourly work periods
Hire rise fires not controlled by a single company
Wildland fires
Hazmat incidents
Confined space incidents

263
Q

The incident safety officer will have the 1st EMS captain on all __________ __________ and _____________ __________provide what to whom?

A

Working fires and Hazmat incidents their rainbow sensor to the Rehab unit.

264
Q

Where should the SCBA refill are be located?

A

Near the “Drop Zone” in the WARM zone

265
Q

The rehab tracking worksheet has what recorded on them ?

A

Pulse
BP
Temp
Respirations
SP02
SPCO
SPMET

266
Q

Where do companies leaving rehab report to?

A

Staging

267
Q

The unit rehab tracking worksheet becomes part of what?

A

Permanent medical record.

268
Q

A patient exists when ?

A

medical complaint,

obvious injury,

appears in distress

Suggestive of acute illness or injury
Such as: HX, MOI, appearance

Lack of capacity

269
Q

Motor vehicle accident criteria for a patient?

A

Greater than minor damage

No restraint used

Air bag deployed

Steering wheel damage

Other occupants have injuries

Appearance and behavior not normal

270
Q

People on the ground are patients when?

A

Unable to get up without assistance

Gets up but does not have capacity

271
Q

The definition of “Capacity “ is?

A

The ability to understand the benefits, risks, and alternatives to a proposed tx or intervention.

272
Q

Public assists are patients when?

A

Inability to ambulate is acute

273
Q

Summary of a patient is when the following are met?

A

Any medical complaint, injury or distress
Suggestive acute injury or illness
Lack of capacity
MVC with more than :
Minor Damage
no restraints
air bags
Steering wheeL
occupant injuries
appearance and behavior not normal
Fall that cannot get up on their own
Public assists with acute ambulatory issues

274
Q

Definition of an MCI?

A

One that exceeds the capabilities of the first arriving units?

275
Q

MCI levels are what numbers?

A

1- 1-10
2-11-20
3.21-100
4.101-1000
5.greater than 1000.

276
Q

MCI types are classified as:

A

CBRNE
Shootings
MVC’s
Plane crashes
Collapse

277
Q

Name, DOB, phone number and brief narrative are required for which levels of an MCI?

A

Levels 1 and 2

278
Q

METTAG number, basic information and tx information are required for what level MCI?

A

3 or above

279
Q

Command structure assignments for an MCI may include what?

A

Treatment
Transport
Triage
Staging
Rehab
Hazard mitigation

280
Q

Who maintains the list of resources that may be beneficial in an MCI?

A

FOO

281
Q

The first arriving unit responsibilities to an MCI are what ?

A

Establish Command
360
Establish exclusion zone
Declare LEVEL and TYPE MCI
Initial triage
Assign incoming units based on LIPE
Additional resources
Staging officer

282
Q

When declaring an MCI what 2 things must be included?

A

LEVEL and TYPE

283
Q

Safety officer responsibility for an MCI are to do 3 things:

A
  1. Request LE
  2. Provide physical security
  3. Exclusion zone
284
Q

Additional backboards can be requested from who?

A

Support 81
Rescues in staging
Inventory specialist

285
Q

During an MCI command needs to be updated with what information?

A

Number of patients
Patient categories
Additional resources needed.

286
Q

The MCI transport log has what information on it?

A

Patient METTAG ID
Destination hospital
Transport unit number

287
Q

An “After Action Review” is required for what level MCI?

A

Level 3 or higher

288
Q

With refusals, who may help convince a patient?

A

Family members
Friends
Physician
EMS captain
Medical director

289
Q

In order to sign a refusal for transport Fire rescue personnel SHALL?

A

Exhaust all reasonable efforts have been exhausted

Inform the patient that if at any time they change mind or condition deteriorates/ changes they should call 911

290
Q

What patients my be examined, treated, or transported without their consent?

A

Suspected medical conditions that are likely to be incapacitated from intoxication or other medical conditionsl

291
Q

Adult who can refuse treatment or transport criteria?

A

>18 yrs old
AAOx4
Clinically sober
Hypoxia< 94 on room air
COPD < 90
Syncope
Head injury w/ LOC
>100.5
Sever pain
Hypotension
Stroke

292
Q

Minors refusal criteria?

A

Parent or legal guardian
<18 yrs old if Married
emancipation
military
Parent or guardian by phone w/ person on scene willing to sign

293
Q

If a parent is consenting by phone to not have minor treated or transported and no one can sign the refusal form what happens?

A

Minor to be transported to the appropriate emergency department

294
Q

Pregnant minors can refuse transport only for?

A

Only if the condition if the condition is related to the pregnancy. If not, then no refusal. Ie. Broken leg.

295
Q

Diabetics can refuse transport if ALL the following are met?

A

Baseline, Levels, Food, Adult, oral

Regained baseline mental status
Blood sugar has returned to normal levels
Immediate access to food
A competent adult is present and willing to assume care
Meets criteria to for a general refusal.
Not taking oral hypoglycemic medications

296
Q

What are the oral hypoglycemic medications?

A

Glipizide
Glyburide
Glimperide

297
Q

If a parent or guardian refuses a physical exam what must be documented?

A

Visual exam
Mental status
General appearance
Work of breathing
Circulation to skin

298
Q

What shall be documented in the pcr for refusals of treatment?

A

Refusal can result in death or disability
They were AAOx4- clinically sober w/ no life or potential life threatening conditions
Have the capacity to refuse

299
Q

What shall be documented for refusals of Transport?

A

Death Disablity, AAOx4, Clinically sober, impaired judgement, capacity, assessment, exam, 2 set v/s.

Not being transported may result in death or disability
AAOx4- clinically sober, with no life or potential life threatening conditions to impair judgment
Capacity

Patient assessment
Physical exam
2 sets of V/S

300
Q

Refusal breakdown chart?

A

Refusals:
Adults
Minors
Pregnancy
Diabetics

Treatment refusal:
Death or disability
AAOx4 w/ no life or potential life threatening condition to impair judgment
Have Capacity

Transport refusal:
Death or disability
AAOx4 w/ no life or potential life threatening condition to impair judgment
Have capacity
Patent assessment
Physical exam
2 sets of V/S
Meet all previous criteria for refusal

301
Q

A DNRO applies to who?

A

Cardiac or respiratory arrest
Succumbing to a disease process of a terminal illness

302
Q

The following SHALL NEVER be performed on patients with a DNRO?

A

Artificial respiration
BVM
ET tube
Supraglottic A/W
Chest compressions
Defibrillation

303
Q

A valid DNRO shall be:

A

Signed by the competent patient or patients representative
Signed by the licensed Florida physician
Be on original canary yellow or copied on similar colored paper.

304
Q

The DNRO identification device must be signed by who if the patient cannot provide consent?

A

Surrogate
Proxy
court order
Power of attorney

305
Q

What are acceptable forms of ID for DNRO

A

Drivers license
Other photo identification
Witness in the presence of the patient

306
Q

Who can revoke a DNRO?

A

Patient
Surrogate
Proxy
Court order
Power of attorney

307
Q

How can a DNRO be revoked?

A

By writing
Physical destruction
Failure to produce
Orally expressing a contrary intent

308
Q

For termination of resuscitation efforts who does the scene get turned over to?

A

Law enforcement
Or CARES team.

309
Q

When can a body be covered with a sheet?

A

When no suspicion of a crime scene

310
Q

What other documentation is needed post resuscitation termination of efforts?

A

EKG strip to PCR
ETCO2 to PCR for advanced airway placement

311
Q

What is the primary goal with an active shooter event?

A

Ensure joint command and communications from FR and LE to minimize the risk and maximize safety for all response personnel.

312
Q

What does ASHER/ MCI stand for?

A

Active Shooter Hostile Event Response- Mass casualty incident

313
Q

Who has the ultimate responsibility for an ASHER/MCI (Active shooter hostile event response)?

A

Law Enforcement

314
Q

What is the main role in an ASHER/MCI for Fire Rescue?

A

Fire and medical decisions

315
Q

The THREAT acronym for an ASHER/ MCI stands for what ?

A

Threat Supression
Hemorrhage Control
Rapid extrication
Assessment
Transport

316
Q

What does RTF-PEM stand for?

A

Rescue task Force- Protective element medical

317
Q

Who makes up the RTF-PEM Team?

A

3 Fire rescue
4 LE

318
Q

Where does the RTF-PEM team operate?

A

Warm zone only.

319
Q

What are the 4 zones for ASHER/MCI?

A

Exclusion
Hot
Warm
Cold

320
Q

Definition of the “exclusion zone”?

A

Risks outweigh the benefits
No FF operations allowed

321
Q

Definition of HOT zone with ASHER/MCI?

A

HIgh risk area
No FF operations allowed

322
Q

Definition of “Warm Zone” for ASHER/ MCI?

A

Area with “LITTLE” risk
RTF-PEM teams operate
CCP operates here

323
Q

Definition of “Cold Zone” for an ASHER/ MCI?

A

Area of no risk
Cold “O” no “O”
All support operations
Unified command
Final approach position
Staging

324
Q

The IC shall be advised immediately during an ASHER/ MCI when ?

A

Fire rescue personnel are requested to or are found in the “HOT or Exclusion “ zones

325
Q

RTF-PEM teams are committed by the IC only when ?

A

Threat to life

Benefits outweigh risks

326
Q

Unified command will use which management system?

A

NIMS- National incident Management system

327
Q

Response code levels to an ASHER/MCI by Fire Rescue are?

A

Code 3 with lights and sirens until unit crosses the LE perimeter./

328
Q

Who gets notified of an ASHER/MCI incident?

A

FOO

PIO

329
Q

1st arriving unit responsibilities on a ASHER/MCI?

A

Establish command
Set LEVEL 2 staging
Set up command at Staging
Establish a unified command with LE.

330
Q

What level MCI and why should be set for ASHER/MCI ?

A

Level 2 due to unknown amount of victims

331
Q

The IC should request how many TAC channelsfor an ASHER/ MCI

A

3 TAC channels:

  1. RTF-PEM
  2. Medical
  3. Staging
332
Q

1st Arriving EMS captain on a ASHER/MCI “SHOULD”?

A

BE the incident safety officer
Ensure the following items are brought to the FUP - Forming up Position
- Available RTF- PEM kits
- Available SKEDS
-Available TQ’s
-Available Mega movers
-Available Trauma rapid response kits

333
Q

The Fire rescue RTF-PEM supervisor is established by who and works on which TAC channels

A

IC and 7a or 8/a and 14a or 15a.

334
Q

Where is the fire rescue RTF-PEM group supervisor located?

A

Next to the Tactical LE officer in the “Cold Zone”

335
Q

The fire rescue RTF- PEM TEAM leader reports what to the Fire rescue RTF-PEM group supervisor

A

PAR levels

  • going in and out of the warm zone
  • going in and out of structures in the warm zone
  • Changing floors or levels with in the warm zone
336
Q

The Fire rescue RTF-PEM TEAM leader reports what to the LE RTF-PEM ?

A

Total number of victims
Non ambulatory patients
When ready to move

337
Q

The FUP in a ASHER/MCI is defined as?

A

Forming Up Position where FR and LE meet to form a team

338
Q

What is the FAP definition for ASHER/ MCI?

A

Final Approach position- is the outside area where the RTF-PEM team enters the warm zone

339
Q

What is the Definition of a “Strong Hold” with and ASHER/MCI ?

A

Defensible area within the warm zone that has no windows and all doorways are covered by LE

Also serves a CCP

340
Q

What categories do ASHER/ MCI patients get categorized to using TECC? (MCI level)

A

Immediate and Delayed

341
Q

the Definition of the CCP in an ASHER/MCI?

A

Casualty Collection Point- in the warm zone where patients are triaged and treated.

342
Q

ASHER/MCI incidents with fire are what mode of operation?

A

Defensive

343
Q

Blood Draws are performed when ?

A

Request of LE

344
Q

Who’s responsible for restraining an patient for a blood draw?

A

LE

345
Q

If a patient is too combative for a blood draw and at the discretion of the PM?

A

Blood draw will not be performed and EMS captain notified.

346
Q

Documentation of blood draw will include what?

A

Name and badge number of Officer
Kit sealed Y/ N
PM name
Site
Number of tubes drawn
Date and time
Who sample was turned over to

347
Q

What pages in the ERG are used for LPG and Natural gas leaks?

A

20-25 and orange guide sections 115-116.

348
Q

Natural gas has an LEL of?

A

5.3-14%

349
Q

Propane has an LEL of?

A

2.1-9.5%

350
Q

What gas type and pipe size does not contain mercaptan?

A

Natural gas in sizes 18” or greater

351
Q

Common Natural gas lines that are 24” are found where in PBC?

A

Along the turnpike

Port of palm beach to West county energy center owned by FPL

352
Q

Natural gas lines are what sizes?

A

Commercial 1-4”

Residential 1/2-3/4”

353
Q

On a confirmed LPG/NG leak where does the “Hot zone” start

A

Where the 4 gas monitor has LEL readings above 0

354
Q

What is the minimum size hose line and nozzle for confirmed LPG/NG leak?

A

1 3/4” with a fog nozzle

355
Q

For exterior LPG/NG leaks on above ground containers - they should be cooled with what?

A

2 1/2” line at 200gpm

356
Q

For exterior LPG/NG leaks on above ground containers of 1000lb or greater they should be cooled with what?

A

Ground monitor flowing minimum 500gpm

357
Q

Documentation for LPG/NG response on the technician is?

A

Name
Phone number
ID or employee number

358
Q

The 5 gas monitor will be used when ?

A

Incidents where combustion processes have taken place

In areas with close proximity to any fire- wildland, structure, vehicle, training, or dumpster

359
Q

All atomspheric monitioring readings are entered where?

A

in the appropriate fire reporting system

360
Q

what greatly influences the atomosphere surrounding the hot zone?

A

wind direction

361
Q

Where shall H2S be monitored ?

A

areas of decomposition:

Sewers

Septic tanks

Horse barns

362
Q

daily fluid intake should no exceed how much?

A

12 quarts

363
Q

Sweating is also known as?

A

evaporative cooling

364
Q

How many degrees are added to WBGT index is wearing

Full PPE and SCBA?

Full PPE without SCBA?

A

5 degrees

3 degrees

365
Q

if a FF is treated and transported from REHAB what froms are used and sent where?

A

REHAB tracking worksheet becomes part of the medical record and fowarded to the reconds custodian.

366
Q

Hazard mitigation during an MCI includes what examples?

A

fire supression

structural stabilization

vehicle stabilization

fuel leak containment

367
Q

who is eqipped with the draeger xam 2500 gas monitor/

A

Engine

aerial

BC

SPLOPS

368
Q

What are the typical storage tank capacities for NG and LPG?

A

BBQ- 20lb

Forklift- 33lb

Commerical -100-420lbs

Residential 500lb

HQ 30K

369
Q

What ventialtion type and what percent must it be for clearing out a structure with gas?

A

Natural ventilation

2%

370
Q

What offensice measrues can SPLOPS take with gas emergencies?

A

Grounding

Plugging

Cutting

Clampling

Squeezing

Flairing off

371
Q

The HSO will respond to what investigate what incidents?

A

Injuries to Employee or reservist that rquires trasnport or are fatally injured.

Vehicle accidents that involve fatalities or injuries that require ALS and are non ambulatory.

372
Q

The HSO will help in processing what information for an incident?

A

“3” IONS

Information

documentation

Notification

analysis

processing and mtigation

373
Q

What has to be in place before a RTF-PEM team is deployed?

A

Unified command has to be in place

374
Q

The HSO supports who for investigations regarding accidents or injires to personnel?

A

DC

BC
risk mgt

375
Q

who is the preferred person to manage a Mayday?

A

ISO

376
Q

there is only one thing the ISO should consider requesting for a mayday?

A

Request an assistant ISO

377
Q

when the mayday FF is attempting to self extract and cannot find a door, window, or other egress point what can they use?

A

Exterior wall

378
Q

one the mayday FF is at a wall the should search for what to lead them outside?

A

doors

windows

hallways

379
Q

extreme caution should be used with ther tac stick for the possibilites of ?

A

open neutrals

automatic or back fed generators

380
Q

who ensures atmospheric monitioing is established when incident command has not been established?

A

Company officer.

381
Q

the TIC works by how?

A

seeing heat energy from objects

382
Q

TICs should be used with caution in combustible gas enviornments why?

A

not intrinsically safe

383
Q

who gets notified of any health concern or illness befroe or during scheduled training

A

Training instructor

384
Q

What is considered moderate work for the rehab chart?

A

physical training

Vehicle extrication

Vehicle fire

Ladder raise and climb

Search and rescue non fire

Hose line advancement non fire

exposure control

salvage

385
Q

What is considered Hard work for the Rehab chart?

A

Search and rescue live fire

Hose line advancement live fire

extinguishment

vertical ventilation

overhaul

Level A entries

386
Q

What are the rehab flag colors?

A

no color

white

green

yellow

red

black

387
Q

Who is assigned to the fact finding portion of the citizens complaint?

A

EMS captain or higher

388
Q

all supporting documentation with regards to a citizens complaint, after the outcome is determined what does the status go from and to?

A

open to Submitted

EMS captain (25 decks)

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