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Farm (year 4) > Small ruminants > Flashcards

Small ruminants Flashcards

1
Q

what are the three main ways of managing infectious/parasitic disease?

A

biosecurity
reduce disease challenge
improve animal resistance

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2
Q

what are the three periods of a ewes years?

A

dry (3 months)
pregnant (5 months)
lactating (4 months)

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3
Q

what are common issues associated with inefficiency in sheep?

A

ewe/lamb mortality
chronic wasting diseases
poor nutrition
parasites, lameness, mastitis…

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4
Q

what characteristics are need in the stratification system?

A

lamb vigor
good mothering
growth rates
disease resistance

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5
Q

what are some of the main estimated breeding values of sheep?

A

litter size
maternal ability
scan weight lamb
carcass composition/conformation
mature size
worm resistance

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6
Q

what is the deadweight for lamb?

A

£5-6 per kilo

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7
Q

what is the price of a live lamb?

A

£250

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8
Q

what is the cost of a replacement ewe?

A

£200

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9
Q

what is the cost of a cull ewe?

A

£90

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10
Q

what are the general KPIs of sheep?

A

scanning %
lambing %
ewe mortality
culling ewe
ewe:tup ratio
lamb mortality

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11
Q

are sheep short or long day breeders?

A

short

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12
Q

what is the main advantage of spring lambing?

A

easy management and good grass growth

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13
Q

what is the main advantage of Christmas lambing?

A

better lamb prices at easter market

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14
Q

what are store lambs?

A

lambs that haven’t been finished that summer so are minimally fed through winter (no growth) for compensatory growth the following spring

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15
Q

why do store lambs not grow over winter?

A

concentrates are too expensive

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16
Q

how does seasonality work? (brain)

A

light enters eye
travels in optic nerve through hypothalamus to the superior cervical ganglion and then pineal gland
pineal gland then does/doesnt produce melatonin

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17
Q

what effect does light have on melatonin production?

A

blocks production

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18
Q

in spring melatonin decreases, how does this effect the GnRH of sheep?

A

decreases the pulses and hence decreases FSH and LH so the sheep doesn’t cycle

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19
Q

what do follicles produce? and what does this do?

A

oestrogen that suppresses the FSH

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20
Q

how long is the oestrus cycle in sheep?

A

16-18 days

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21
Q

how many follicular waves do sheep have?

A

2-5 waves

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22
Q

what is the ideal ewe to ram ratio?

A

1 ram per 30 ewes

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23
Q

why isn’t artificial insemination used as commonly in sheep?

A

structure of the cervix is different (has to be done laparoscopically)
low number of straws per ejaculate compared to cattle

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24
Q

what determines the fecundity of sheep?

A

bone morphometric protein signalling from ovary

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25
Q

what is the ram effect?

A

introduction of a male after 2 weeks of male absence (also works if new ram is introduced) that triggers cyclicality in ewes

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26
Q

what happens to the oestrus activity after male introduction? (ram effect)

A

1st ovulation (can be silent)
19 days - second ovulation (first for some)
25 days - second ovulation for ones that had silent first

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27
Q

what is the name of the ram often used for the ram effect?

A

teaser - vasectomies

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28
Q

how can seasonality be manipulated?

A

expose to artificial light (difficult with sheep)
melatonin supplement
genetic selection

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29
Q

how can the ram effect be used to alter seasonality?

A

alter the rams seasonality (melatonin…) then introduce to ewes and they will alter their seasonality due to the ram effect

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30
Q

how is melatonin given to a sheep?

A

ear implant (regulin)

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31
Q

what is done on day 1 of a melatonin plan to induce seasonality?

A

30 weeks prior to lambing move ewes out of sight/sound/smell of ram

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32
Q

what is done on day 7 of a melatonin plan to induce seasonality?

A

implant melatonin in ear base

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33
Q

what is done on day 42 of a melatonin plan to induce seasonality?

A

introduce ram (30-40 days post implant)

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34
Q

what is the short term effect of flushing?

A

effects the current follicular wave (3-7 days)

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35
Q

what is the long term effect of flushing?

A

allows sheep to come out of seasonal trough in fertility sooner (6-8 weeks)

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36
Q

what is the static effect of flushing?

A

ewes with higher BCS have higher ovulation rate

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37
Q

what is the dynamic effect of flushing?

A

ewes that are increasing in BCS have a higher ovulation rate

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38
Q

what is the only method to hormonally synchronise ewes?

A

chronogest - progesterone sponge

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39
Q

how long do progesterone sponges go in the vagina for?

A

12-14 days

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40
Q

what is the issue with progesterone sponges?

A

progesterone is an immunosuppressant so can get vaginitis

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41
Q

when combined with PMSG injection at sponge removal, when does oestrus occur?

A

36-72 hours after sponge removal

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42
Q

what hormone does PMSG have the same activity as?

A

FSH

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43
Q

how long should you wait after removal of the progesterone sponge (with PMSG injection) before introducing the ram? and why?

A

48 hours to ensure ram doesn’t over serve first ewes coming into oestrus and deplete their semen reserves (then most ewes will be in heat)

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44
Q

how long is a CIDR left in a sheep?

A

12 days and eCG on removal

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45
Q

how can lambing be induced?

A

dexamethasone injection (dexafort) from day 140 after ram has been in - this isn’t authorised

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46
Q

how long after inducing a ewe with dexamethasone will they lamb?

A

around 40 hours later

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47
Q

when are most replacement ewes introduced to the flock?

A

19 months

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48
Q

what is the optimal BCS of a ewe at mating?

A

3.5

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49
Q

how long does it take sperm to develop in ewes?

A

roughly 60 days (ensure you check rams well before mating)

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50
Q

what is the optimal BCS of a ram before breeding?

A

3.5

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51
Q

what is the rough gestation of a sheep?

A

145 days

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52
Q

how much should a ewe be fed from conception to 42 days?

A

just maintenance

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53
Q

how much should a ewe be fed from 42-90 days gestation?

A

maintenance plus 2 MJ/day

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54
Q

why is it important to feed well from day 42-90 of gestation?

A

considerable placental growth - underfeeding retards placenta and hence foetal growth

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55
Q

what type of scanning head is used to PD ewes?

A

sector - broader range of vision into the abdomen

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56
Q

roughly when are ewes scanned?

A

70 days (ensure ram has been out for 28 days)

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57
Q

why is nutrition important from 90 days to parturition in ewes?

A

rapid foetal growth
colostrum quality/quantity (mammary development)
prevent metabolic disease

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58
Q

how much food do ewes require at lambing time?

A

2x maintenance (concentrates)

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59
Q

how should a vasectomy be closed?

A

don’t use nice opposing sutures - want to leave a scar to be able to identify the ram

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60
Q

what is checked on a ram pre-breeding examination?

A

feet
brisket (sores for raddle…)
caseous lymphadenitis (lymph nodes)
scrotal measurement and palpation (30cm, firm, even…)
exteriorise penis and vermiform appendage
semen examination
libido testing (mounting ewes)

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61
Q

where is the sperm stored?

A

epididymis

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62
Q

what are some bacteria that can cause epididymitis?

A

Actinobacillus seminis
Haemophilus somnus
Histophilus ovis

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63
Q

what is epididymitis associated with?

A

ascending urinary tract infection
intensively reared trough fed rams (lie down more)

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64
Q

how can epididymitis spread be prevent between rams?

A

have small groups that graze and rotate between clean paddocks

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65
Q

what should be done at the time of treating inguinal hernias in rams?

A

castrate - stop possible genetic/congenital spread

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66
Q

what is the usual cause of testicular degeneration or hypoplasia?

A

specific local injury
(can also be due to extreme fatness, stress, inflammation…)

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67
Q

how does scrotal mange appear in rams?

A

crusty scabs on lower 1/3 of scrotum
sore weeping dermis

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68
Q

what causes scrotal mange?

A

Chorioptes bovis

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69
Q

how can scrotal mange be confirmed?

A

skin scrape in multiple places (low mite number)

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70
Q

what is an effective treatment of scrotal mange in rams?

A

doramection (ivermectin also used)
diazinon sheep dip is effective

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71
Q

what is balanoposthitis also known as?

A

pizzle rot

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72
Q

how does pizzle rot present?

A

small ulcers and discharge at prepuce
scabbing and fly strike

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73
Q

what bacteria is pizzle rot associated with?

A

Corynebacterium renale

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74
Q

what are the risk factors for pizzle rot?

A

high protein concentrates and lush grass

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75
Q

what metabolic diseases are seen around lambing time?

A

pregnancy toxaemia (twin lamb disease)
hypocalcaemia
hypomagnesaemia

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76
Q

when are lambs usually weaned?

A

early summer (summer period to recover before tupping)

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77
Q

what is the target BCS of a ewe at weaning?

A

2.5

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78
Q

what is the target BCS at tupping for a lowland ewe?

A

3.0-3.5

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79
Q

how much of an increase in BCS is aimed for when flushing sheep?

A

0.5

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80
Q

why is appropriate feeding important in mid pregnancy of ewes?

A

placental development (underfed means low birth weight)
mammary development

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81
Q

what are the aims of feeding the ewe in late pregnancy?

A

support lamb growth
support mammary tissue development
colostrum production
prevent pregnancy toxaemia (ketosis)
ensure strong healthy lamb
underfeeding related to mastitis and maternal behaviour

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82
Q

what is the most important aspect of ewe nutritional ration in late pregnancy?

A

good quality forage

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83
Q

what factors could be used to split ewes into feeding groups?

A

single, twins, triplets
BCS
lambing dates
separate young ewes

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84
Q

why does care need to be taken with trough space in pregnant ewes?

A

ewes are fatter so require more room

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85
Q

what are the three main requirements of colostrum?

A

energy, protein, antibodies

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86
Q

what is used as a rough estimate of milk production in ewes?

A

8 week weight of lamb

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87
Q

what age will lambs start to eat grass?

A

6 weeks old

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88
Q

what age of lambs weaned?

A

10-16 weeks

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89
Q

what may indicate there is an issue with peri-parturient ewe nutrition?

A

twin lamb disease
hypocalcaemia
lamb mortality/morbidity (weak small lambs, watery mouth, joint ill/infection, hypothermia…)
mastitis
lamb growth

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90
Q

what is pregnancy toxaemia?

A

energy deficiency (hypoglycaemia and hyperketonaemia)

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91
Q

what are the risk factors for pregnancy toxaemia?

A

last 6 weeks of pregnancy
thin/fat ewes
stress
broken mouth
concurrent disease
multiple foetuses
inadequate/change in diet

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92
Q

what are the clinical signs of pregnancy toxaemia?

A

(neurological due to low glucose)
separate from group
inappetent
blindness, tremors, hyperaesthesia, star gazing
recumbency and death

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93
Q

what can be measured to confirm pregnancy toxaemia?

A

beta-hydroxybutyrate (greater than 3mmol and they will show clinical signs)

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94
Q

what is done to treat pregnancy toxaemia?

A

separate and give fresh food/water
IV glucose (dextrose)
propylene glycol
calcium supplement
NSAIDs (meloxicam…)

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95
Q

what can be considered if a pregnant ewe isn’t improving from pregnancy toxaemia?

A

induce with dexamethasone (after 135 days gestation)
caesarian or euthanasia

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96
Q

what mechanism mediates the mobilisation of calcium from bones? (hypocalcaemia)

A

parathyroid hormone and vitamin D

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97
Q

what is the difference between when hypocalcaemia occurs in sheep and cattle?

A

sheep usually occurs pre-lambing (6 weeks)

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98
Q

what are possible risk factors for hypocalcaemia in ewes?

A

stress (transport, snow, gathering…)
acidosis
older ewes
rapid growing lush pasture

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99
Q

what are the clinical signs of hypocalcaemia?

A

weakness and excitability
recumbency
dilated pupils, constipation, bloat, coma
death

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100
Q

what is done to treat hypocalcaemia?

A

slow IV calcium
SC calcium

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101
Q

what is the classic history for hypomagnesaemia in ewes?

A

post lambing at peak lactation
lush grass or bare pasture

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102
Q

what are the clinical signs of hypomagnesaemia?

A

(neurological)
excitable, tremors, convulsions
death

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103
Q

what are some key points about dealing with dystocia as a vet?

A

wear gloves/be clean
lots of lubricant
NSAIDs
epidural
antibiotics (5 days)
colostrum to lamb

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104
Q

what is the method of a simple embryotomy?

A

remove fore limbs - cut through skin above carpus then up to elbow, undermine attachment of shoulder and remove leg
repeat for other leg

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105
Q

what are some possible issues to look at when getting dystocia related deaths?

A

ewe age
ram breed/size/characteristics
ewe BCS
hygiene lambing/pens
staff numbers/training

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106
Q

what are the indications for caesareans?

A

oversized lamb
ringwomb
vaginal prolapse
foetal monster
malpresentation

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107
Q

what are the contraindications for caesarians?

A

rotten smelly lambs (contamination into abdomen and wound breakdown)

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108
Q

how should a ewe be placed for caesarian?

A

right lateral recumbency (left side up)

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109
Q

what are the options for anaesthetic for caesarians?

A

line block (local infiltration) - procaine
inverted L block
paravertebral - T13, L1-3
sacra-coccygeal epidural

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110
Q

what is the site for making an incision for caesarians in sheep?

A

15cm incision between last rib and wing of ileum 10cm below transverse process

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111
Q

what type of suture is used for the uterus in caesarians?

A

continuous inverting pattern (catgut often used)

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112
Q

what is metritis?

A

infection of all the layers of the uterus (endothelium to muscle)

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113
Q

what usually causes metritis?

A

opportunistic environmental bacteria

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114
Q

what are the risk factors for metritis?

A

dystocia
poor hygiene
dead lambs or abortion

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115
Q

what are the clinical signs of metritis?

A

dull, depressed, recumbent (systemic illness)
toxaemic with congested MM
red/brown or purulent vaginal discharge

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116
Q

what is done to treat metritis?

A

IV antibiotics - oxytetracycline
NSAIDs

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117
Q

what are some possible risk factors for vaginal prolapses?

A

hill breeds
litter size
age
history of prolapse
nutritional - obesity, hypocalcaemia, bulky poor quality forage
high stocking rates
slopes
(anything increasing intra-abdominal pressure and reduced pelvic floor strength)

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118
Q

what are possible treatments for mild prolapse cases?

A

retention device
harnesses
NSAIDs
LA antibiotics

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119
Q

how are prolapses treated surgically?

A

epidural (1.75ml procaine and 0.25ml xylazine)
NSAIDs
antibiotics
clean, replace and suture shut (purse string)
mark to remove sutures

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120
Q

when does mastitis occur in sheep?

A

after lambing

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121
Q

what are the three main presentations of mastitis?

A

peracute/gangrenous/toxic
acute
chronic

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122
Q

why is mastitis often more serious in sheep?

A

can’t monitor them as closely because they don’t go through a milking parlour everyday

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123
Q

when does gangrenous mastitis occur?

A

4-8 weeks post lambing (peak lactation)

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124
Q

how does the udder/milk of a ewe with gangrenous mastitis present?

A

swollen, cold, blue
boundary between diseased and normal tissue
diseased tissue often sloughs off
milk severely discoloured

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125
Q

how will a ewe with gangrenous mastitis present?

A

sick ewe
toxaemia, rumen stasis, inappetent, lame, recumbent
(lambs will be hungry - making noise)

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126
Q

when does acute mastitis occur?

A

immediately post-lambing or 4-8 weeks later at peak lactation

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127
Q

how does the udder and milk present in acute mastitis cases?

A

swollen, red, painful
clots, discoloured, watery

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128
Q

when is chronic mastitis often detected in ewes?

A

at drying off/weaning or possibly culling

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129
Q

how does the udder and milk present in chronic mastitis cases?

A

abscesses, swollen
light purulent discharge

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130
Q

what are the most common bacteria causing mastitis in UK ewes?

A

Staph aureus
Mannheimia haemolytica

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131
Q

what is the source of Staph aureus that leads to mastitis?

A

teat skin

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132
Q

what is the source of Mannheimia haemolytica that leads to mastitis?

A

lambs mouths

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133
Q

what are the risk factors for mastitis?

A

under nutrition in late pregnancy and lactation (metabolic stress)
over suckling lambs and teat lesions
concurrent disease
multiple lambs
older ewes
abnormal udder confirmation

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134
Q

how is gangrenous mastitis treated?

A

euthanasia or cull

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135
Q

how is acute mastitis treated?

A

systemic antibiotics (culture and sensitivity) - amoxicillin as first line
strip udder
IV fluids
NSAIDs

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136
Q

how is chronic mastitis treated?

A

cull

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137
Q

how can mastitis be prevented?

A

good ewe and lamb nutrition (creep feed)
wean abruptly
control disease (orf, worms…)
cull older and diseased ewes
good bedding hygiene

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138
Q

what is a neonatal lamb?

A

period straight after birth (<2 weeks old)

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139
Q

what does perinatal mean?

A

the time around parturition

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140
Q

what can causes death in the first 0-24 hours of a lamb being born?

A

birth stress (results in failure to suck, hypothermia…)
anoxia/hypoxia
ruptured liver
fractured ribs
brain haemorrhage

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141
Q

what are some possible infections that lambs can get postpartum?

A

watery mouth
salmonella
cryptosporidia
septicaemia
meningitis
joint ill
clostridial disease
pasteurellosis

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142
Q

what are the three overall factors which result in lamb loss?

A

lamb factors (weight, vigour, vaccination…)
ewe factors (genetics, stress, colostrum…)
environment (hygiene, equipment, shepherds…)

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143
Q

how much colostrum does a lamb require in the first feed?

A

50 ml/kg

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144
Q

how much colostrum does a lamb require in the first 24 hours?

A

200 ml/kg

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145
Q

how can failure of passive transfer be measured?

A

serum total protein (should be greater than 5.5g/dL

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146
Q

what are some risk factors for poor colostrum intake?

A

concurrent disease
ewe undernutrition
breeding - mothering…
ewe age
multiple births
lambing environment - stress, weather, shepherd…

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147
Q

what can be used to help strip out ewes?

A

oxytocin

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148
Q

what are the risk factors for primary hypothermia of lambs?

A

outdoor lambing
younger ewes
wet weather
low birth weight
feed failures

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149
Q

what is done to treat lambs with hypothermia?

A

give glucose and place in warming box (intraperitoneal glucose)

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150
Q

why is it important to give hypothermic lambs glucose before warming?

A

as they warm and metabolism starts they will have a hypoglycaemic fit

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151
Q

how is an intraperitoneal injection done?

A

just to one side of the naval at a 45 degree angle

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152
Q

what age do lambs get watery mouth?

A

12-72 hours

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153
Q

what are the clinical signs of watery mouth?

A

dull
unwilling to suck
normothermic
saliva drool on muzzle (watery mouth)
profuse lacrimation
abomasal tympany
constipation or retained meconium

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154
Q

what is the main finding on post mortem of a lamb with watery mouth?

A

distended abomasum with gas, saliva and milk clots
(bacteraemia signs)

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155
Q

what causes the clinical signs of watery mouth?

A

endotaemia (large numbers of endotoxin in blood)

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156
Q

what is there proposed hypothesis of why watery mouth occurs?

A

bacteria enter the abomasum before milk and is absorbed using the same transporters as milk
these bacteria multiply in blood and then mass lysis leads to endotoxin release

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157
Q

what are the main risk factors for watery mouth?

A

dirty environment
large litters
poor colostrum intake

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158
Q

what can be used to treat watery mouth?

A

enteral/parenteral antibiotics (streptomycin orally, amoxicillin injection…)
glucose/electrolytes stomach tube
withhold milk until lamb can suck

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159
Q

does metaphylactic use of antibiotics work for watery mouth?

A

yes - but just as well as good colostrum intake (this is a management failure - colostrum and hygiene)

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160
Q

what causes lamb dysentery?

A

Clostridium perfringens type B (beta and epsilon toxins)

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161
Q

what age lambs is lamb dysentery seen in?

A

1-3 days old

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162
Q

what are the clinical signs of lamb dysentery?

A

sudden death and haemorrhagic diarrhoea (occasionally)

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163
Q

what is found on post mortem of lambs with lamb dysentery?

A

dark red intestines
blood stained peritoneal fluid
pale friable liver

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164
Q

how can lamb dysentery be prevented?

A

vaccinate ewes with multivalent clostridial vaccines

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165
Q

how often is enterotoxigenic E. coli seen?

A

uncommon

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166
Q

what age is enterotoxigenic E. coli seen in lambs?

A

24-48 hours

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167
Q

what is the main clinical sign of enterotoxigenic E. coli?

A

watery brown diarrhoea

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168
Q

what are the clinical signs of neonatal salmonellosis?

A

weakness
profuse watery diarrhoea (blood stained)
dehydration
death

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169
Q

why does care need to be taken when treating lambs with neonatal salmonellosis?

A

it is zoonotic

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170
Q

what is the pathogenesis of cryptosporidium?

A

villous atrophy in distal small intestine causing malabsorption and diarrhoea

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171
Q

what is drunken lamb syndrome also known as?

A

lamb nephrosis

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172
Q

what age is drunken lamb syndrome seen?

A

7-10 days
1-2 months

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173
Q

what causes the clinical signs associated with drunken lamb syndrome?

A

increased D-lactate

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174
Q

what produces D lactate?

A

bacterial fermentation

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175
Q

what can be used to treat drunken lamb syndrome?

A

sodium bicarbonate solution

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176
Q

what age is joint ill seen?

A

2-3 weeks old

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177
Q

what is the main clinical sign of joint ill?

A

sudden onset lameness (single/multiple joints)

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178
Q

what can be done to treat joint ill?

A

antibiotics and NSAIDs (often poor response)

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179
Q

what is the main bacteria causing joint ill in lambs?

A

Streptococcus dysgalatiae

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180
Q

how can joint ill be prevented?

A

colostrum, hygiene, naval dipping… (multiple factors)

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181
Q

what antibiotic is Streptococcus dysgalatiae joint ill resistant to?

A

tetracyclines

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182
Q

what is a much less common cause of joint ill, but is seen in lambs from 6 weeks old to 6 months old?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathie

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183
Q

what is naval ill?

A

ascending infection of the naval leading to abscessation and omphalophlebitis

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184
Q

what are some possible sequelae of naval ill?

A

peritonitis, liver abscessation, systemic infection, polyarthritis…

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185
Q

what can Fusobacterium necrophorum cause in naval ill cases?

A

hepatic necrobacillosis

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186
Q

what is the characteristic appearance of hepatic necrobacilosis?

A

white spots on liver (areas of necrosis)

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187
Q

what can be done to prevent/control naval ill?

A

iodine naval within 15 minutes then repeat a few hours later
goof hygiene
colostrum
treat - penicillin, potentiated amoxicillin

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188
Q

what substance can predispose to iodine deficiency in sheep?

A

thiocyanate (contained in some plants - root crops…)

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189
Q

how does iodine deficiency present relating to the neonatal lamb?

A

goitre of newborn
late abortions
minimal fleece on lambs

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190
Q

how much should a thyroid gland weigh at birth?

A

> 0.4 g/kg live weight

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191
Q

how can iodine deficiency be prevented?

A

ewe supplementation (inject/bolus/drench)
treat lamb with oral potassium iodide

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192
Q

what are some antagonists found in soil that can lead to copper deficiency?

A

iron, molybdenum, sulphur

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193
Q

what does copper deficiency cause in lambs?

A

swayback
head tremor
osteoporosis
tendon abnormalities
depigmented and poor quality wool (steely wool)
anaemia

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194
Q

what is used to diagnose copper deficiency in lambs?

A

clinical signs
histopathology of brain/spinal cord
liver copper concentration

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195
Q

how is copper deficiency treated in lambs?

A

euthanasia (no effective treatment)

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196
Q

how can copper deficiency of lambs be prevented?

A

supplement ewe during pregnancy (care with toxicity of certain breeds…)

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197
Q

what can be used to supplement copper in ewes?

A

chelated copper injection
mineral drench/supplements
capsules/bolus
(only use one source… toxicity!!)

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198
Q

what causes white muscle disease?

A

vitamin E and selenium deficiency

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199
Q

what is white muscle disease also known as?

A

nutritional muscular atrophy
stiff lamb disease

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200
Q

what are the clinical and pathological signs of white muscle disease in lambs?

A

weak lambs that don’t suck
histopathology of cardiac musculature

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201
Q

what is used to treat white muscle disease?

A

vitamin E
potassium selenate

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202
Q

how can white muscle disease be prevented?

A

supplementation at least 6 weeks before lambing

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203
Q

what is atresia ani?

A

failure of anus and sometimes part of colon/rectum to form properly

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204
Q

what is entropion?

A

in turned eyelids (usually lower)

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205
Q

what is the most successful way to treat entropion?

A

surgery

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206
Q

how are prolapsed intestines through the umbilicus treated?

A

general anaesthetic and surgically prepare/clean intestines
enlarge the hole, replace and suture closed

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207
Q

before opening a lamb up for post mortem, what should be done?

A

weigh (excessive suggested dystocia)
look at feet - hardened means they’ve walked
meconium staining, trauma, swelling, scour…

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208
Q

when opening a lamb carcass, what should be inspected?

A

brown fat around kidneys (energy supply)
milk/colostrum in abomasum
lung aeration
haemorrhage and trauma
evidence of infection

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209
Q

what are signs on lamb post mortem of dystocia?

A

meconium staining
swollen head/tongue
head/shoulder oedema
fractures
haemorrhage

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210
Q

what are signs of lamb post mortem of hypothermia/starvation?

A

no brown fat
minimal body fat
no milk in abomasum

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211
Q

what are the main differential diagnoses for diarrhoea in lambs?

A

Nematodirus battus
PGE
coccidiosis
Cryptosporidium
acidosis
Clostridium perfringens type B (lamb dysentery) and D (pulpy kidney)
E. coli
Salmonella spp.

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212
Q

what does Clostridium perfringens type B cause in lambs?

A

lamb dysentery

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213
Q

what does Clostridium perfringens type D cause in lambs?

A

pulpy kidney

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214
Q

what are the clinical signs of cryptosporidiosis in lambs?

A

profuse diarrhoea (blood)
dehydration
death

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215
Q

what age lambs does cryptosporidiosis effect?

A

3-7 days old

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216
Q

how can cryptosporidiosis in lambs be diagnosed?

A

faecal sample 6-10 from infected group and stain smear
post mortem histopathology

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217
Q

how is cryptosporidiosis treated?

A

supportive
oral fluids multiple times a day
(no licensed drugs)

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218
Q

what are ways of preventing cryptosporidiosis?

A

hygiene, reduced stocking density, clean pasture
lamb nutrition/colostrum

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219
Q

what type of organism is cryptosporidium?

A

protozoa

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220
Q

what type of organism is coccidia?

A

protozoa

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221
Q

what is the source of coccidia infection?

A

ewes or older lambs

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222
Q

what are the risk factors for coccidiosis?

A

high stocking rates
poor colostrum
stress, concurrent infection and mixed ages

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223
Q

is finding coccidia species in faeces a definitive diagnosis?

A

no - many of the strains are non-pathogenic

224
Q

what age lambs are often infected with coccidiosis?

A

4-8 weeks old

225
Q

what are the clinical signs of coccidiosis?

A

diarrhoea, tenesmus, fever, weight loss, death
(sub-clinical infections lead to poor growth)

226
Q

how can coccidiosis be diagnosed?

A

faecal sample 6-10 from group then do a coccidial count (will need speciation as well to confirm pathogenic strains - usually treat whilst awaiting these results)

227
Q

how is coccidiosis treated?

A

supportive
oral fluids multiple times a day
drugs - toltrazuril or diclurazil (can use metaphylactically)

228
Q

how can coccidiosis be prevented?

A

hygiene, stocking rates, colostrum, nutrition
batch rearing
prophylactic/metaphylactic treatment

229
Q

what causes acidosis in lambs?

A

consumption of rapidly fermentable carbohydrates (grain…)

230
Q

what events occur leading to acidosis when a lamb consumes high volumes of concentrates?

A

fall in rumen pH due to lactic acid production which causes inflammation (rumenitis) leading to the blood being acidotic

231
Q

what are possible sequelae of acidosis in lambs?

A

liver abscessation
fungal (overgrowth) rumenitis
death

232
Q

what are the clinical signs of acidosis in lambs?

A

death
dull, depressed, teeth grinding, colic, bloat, ataxic, recumbent
dehydration, diarrhoea, no rumen sounds

233
Q

how can acidosis be diagnosed?

A

clinical signs
rumenocentesis (pH <5.5)
post mortem

234
Q

how can acidosis of lambs be treated?

A

IV fluids (plus bicarbonate)
oral fluids and multivitamins
good quality hay
penicillin

235
Q

what are the possible causes of rumen bloat in sheep?

A

grain overload, oesophageal obstruction, legumes (frothy)

236
Q

what side will be distended if a sheep has rumen bloat?

A

left

237
Q

what can be done to treat rumen bloat of sheep?

A

stomach tube, dimeticone, trochar (red devil)

238
Q

what age is lamb nephrosis syndrome seen?

A

2-12 weeks old

239
Q

how can lamb nephrosis be diagnosed?

A

raised urea, creatine and hyperkalaemia
swollen kidneys and necrosis on post mortem

240
Q

what is cobalt deficiency of lambs known as?

A

ill thrift

241
Q

what vitamin is cobalt a constituent of?

A

B12

242
Q

where is vitamin B12 synthesised in lambs?

A

rumen

243
Q

what is cobalt important for?

A

red blood cell development
amino acid synthesis
energy metabolism

244
Q

what are the clinical signs of cobalt deficiency?

A

weight loss
anaemia
slow growth
debility
watery eye discharge
(just generally don’t do very well)

245
Q

how is cobalt deficiency diagnosed?

A

cobalt and vitamin B12 levels in blood/liver

246
Q

what can be used to treat cobalt deficiency?

A

cobalt bolus/drench
vitamin B12 injection
cobalt in creep
pasture treatment

247
Q

what are the functions of selenium?

A

anti-oxidant
immune function

248
Q

what effects will a selenium deficiency have on lambs/ewes?

A

white muscles disease
poor reproductive performance

249
Q

what are the consequences of iodine deficiency?

A

death and weakness
late abortions
thyroid goitre
(neonates are more susceptible to disease)

250
Q

what are the clinical signs of copper poisoning?

A

ataxic, head pressing, jaundice, haemoglobinuria, recumbency, death

251
Q

what can be used to treat copper poisoning?

A

(no specific treatment)
sodium calcium EDTA
supportive
remove copper source
add molybdenum and sulphur to water (binds copper)

252
Q

what are bacterial causes of pneumonia in lambs?

A

Mycoplasma spp.
Mannheimia haemolytica
Pasturella multocida

253
Q

what respiratory viruses can cause pneumonia in lambs?

A

parainfluenza virus
respiratory syncytial virus

254
Q

what lung worm effects lambs?

A

Dictyocaulus filaria

255
Q

when is Mannheimia haemolytica found as a commensal in sheep?

A

upper respiratory tract - nasopharynx (causes disease when it enters the lungs)

256
Q

what is usually the driving factor for Mannheimia haemolytica to move into the lungs and cause pneumonic pasturellosis?

A

stress/disease - diet change, worms, ticks, housing, transport, bad weather…

257
Q

what are the clinical signs of Mannheimia haemolytica respiratory disease?

A

pyrexia, mucopurulent nasal discharge, cough, increased RR/depth

258
Q

what can be used to treat pneumonic pasteurellosis (Mannheimia haemolytica)?

A

oxytetracycline, amoxicillin, macrolides (5-7 days) - long acting is useful

259
Q

how is pneumonic pasteurellosis (Mannheimia haemolytica) diagnosed?

A

consolidated lungs and culture

260
Q

what can be done to prevent pneumonic pasteurellosis (Mannheimia haemolytica)?

A

vaccination - heptavac P, ovipast
investigating underlying problem/risk factors - stress

261
Q

what are the clinical signs of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

(more chronic disease)
cough, slight nasal discharge, increased RR/depth
low grade pneumonia

262
Q

what group of animals is mycoplasma pneumonia mainly seen in?

A

housed over stocked lambs

263
Q

what can be used to treat mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

long acting oxytetracycline and macrolides

264
Q

what time of year is lung worm seen in sheep?

A

summer/autumn lambs at pasture

265
Q

how is lung worm diagnosed?

A

larva in faeces (baermans test)

266
Q

at is used to treat lung worm?

A

anthelmintics (BZ, ML, LV)
antibiotics
NSAIDs and supportive treated

267
Q

what should the 8 week growth rate of a lamb be?

A

300-500g/day

268
Q

what efficacy means that there is resistancd to the anthelmintic?

A

<95% efficacy

269
Q

what are the possible ways in which nematodes can cause disease?

A

damage lining of guts (reduce absorption)
remove nutrients
remove blood
damage/provoke host immune response

270
Q

what age sheep is Nematodirus battus seen in?

A

6-12 weeks old

271
Q

what is the main clinical sign of Nematodirus battus?

A

acute severe diarrhoea

272
Q

what age and time of year is type one Telodorsagia infection seen?

A

FSG lambs in mid summer onwards

273
Q

what age and time of year is type 2 Telodorsagia infection seen?

A

yearling in winter months

274
Q

what is the classic clinical sign of Trichostrongylus?

A

black scour

275
Q

what age and time of year is Trichostrongylus seen?

A

lambs in later summer to autumn

276
Q

what is the classic clinical sign of Haemonchus contortus?

A

acute regenerative anaemia and bottle jaw (no diarrhoea)

277
Q

what is the typical Trichostrongyle lifecycle?

A

eggs passed in dung and develop to L1 and L2, L3 is then dispersed onto pasture and ingested by the sheep where they devlop to L4 and adults to produce eggs

278
Q

what is the prepatent period of a typical trichostrongyle lifecycle?

A

21 days

279
Q

what parasites have a typical trichostrongyle lifecycle?

A

Telodorsagia, Trichostrongylus and Haemonchus

280
Q

what does infectivity of pasture with nematodes peak in late summer?

A

shorter lifecycle due to warmer weather and large output from lambs

281
Q

where the majority of the eggs in Haemonchus come from?

A

sheep (don’t overwinter well on pasture)

282
Q

what is hypobiosis?

A

L3 in late autumn have arrested development over the winter period

283
Q

how does Nematodirus battus infect the pasture?

A

eggs shed by lambs remain on the pasture until the following year and then hatched when triggered by prolonged chill and temperature increase to infect the next set of lambs

284
Q

when do lambs begin to develop resistance to nematodes?

A

5-6 months old

285
Q

what are the five groups of anthelmintic?

A

benzimadazole
levamisole
macrocytic lactones
amino-acetonitrile
spiroindoles

286
Q

what colour are benzimadazole drenches?

A

white

287
Q

what colour are levamisole drenches?

A

yellow

288
Q

what colour are macrocytic lactone drenches?

A

clear

289
Q

what colour are amino-acetonitrile drenches?

A

orange

290
Q

what colour are spiroindoles?

A

purple

291
Q

how do benzimadazoles work?

A

tubulin binding to prevent glucose uptake

292
Q

how do levamisole’s work?

A

ganglionic blocking causing paralysis

293
Q

how do macrocytic lactones work?

A

block chloride and GABA channels causing paralysis

294
Q

what colour are microcytic lactone drenches?

A

clear

295
Q

what internal parasites can benzimadazoles be used for?

A

broad spectrum against roundworms tapeworms
albendazole work against fluke

296
Q

what causes anthelmintic resistance?

A

natural genetics
selection pressures

297
Q

what ways can you test for anthelmintic resistance?

A

faecal egg count reduction test
drench test (FEC after drenching)

298
Q

what result on faecal egg count reduction tests would suggest resistance?

A

a reduction of 95% or less

299
Q

what are the SCOPS principles?

A

always make sure treatment is fully effective
reduce dependance on anthelmintics using management and monitoring
avoid bringing in resistant worms/parasites
minimise the selection for resistant worms

300
Q

what anthelmintic groups should be used for biosecurity dosing against nematodes?

A

4 and 5 (amino-acetonitrile and spiroindoles)

301
Q

when is the best time of year to treat adult sheep for nematodes?

A

at lambing (reduces pasture contamination) but leave a portion untreated (ideally ones that will have a high egg output)

302
Q

what can be done if haemonchus is an issue in adult sheep?

A

vaccinate

303
Q

how can reliance on anthelmintics be reduced in grazing lambs?

A

pasture management - rotation…
group ages
manage concurrent disease
good nutrition
breed for resistance
vaccinate (haemonchus)

304
Q

what monitoring tools are available to target anthelmintic treatment?

A

FEC
live weight gain
forecast
FAMANCHA - guide to measuring anaemia for haemonchus

305
Q

how often should groups of lambs have FEC done?

A

every 2-4 weeks

306
Q

what nematode is FEC not suitable for monitoring?

A

Nematodirus battus

307
Q

what is the biosecurity strategy in terms of anthelmintic control for brought in sheep?

A

dose with monopantel/derquantel and hold off pasture for 24-48 hours for treatment to work and then turnout onto contaminated pasture

308
Q

what is the main issues of tapeworm infections in sheep?

A

carcass condemnations
zoonosis (Echinococcus granulosus)
gid cysts in brain

309
Q

where are Taenia hydatigena cysts found in sheep?

A

liver

310
Q

where are Taenia ovis cysts found in sheep?

A

muscles

311
Q

where are Taenia multiceps cysts found in sheep?

A

brain

312
Q

where are Echinococcus granulosus cysts found in sheep?

A

liver and lungs

313
Q

how are tapeworms for which sheep are the intermediate host treated?

A

praziquantel for intermediate hosts (dogs)
don’t allow dog to access sheep pasture or carcass

314
Q

why is liver fluke a larger issue in sheep compared to cows?

A

sheep don’t develop immunity

315
Q

what is the intermediate host of liver fluke?

A

mud snail (Galba truncatula)

316
Q

what are the two factors needed for liver fluke spread?

A

rain
temperature above 10

317
Q

what time of year does the lifecycle of liver fluke begin?

A

around spring

318
Q

what is the rough lifecycle of liver fluke?

A

eggs shed in faeces and develops miracidium which hatches and swims to find a snail
in the snail they develop into cercaria which exit the snail and develop to metacercariae and are ingested

319
Q

is the prepatent period of liver fluke?

A

8-12 weeks

320
Q

when is acute liver fluke most commonly seen?

A

autumn

321
Q

when is chronic liver fluke infection most commonly seen?

A

winter/spring

322
Q

what causes acute fasciolosis?

A

large number of metacercariae release onto pasture in late summer causing severe liver damage

323
Q

what causes chronic fasciolosis in sheep?

A

ingestion of low numbers of fluke over winter/spring

324
Q

how does liver fluke cause acute disease?

A

migration of immature stages through the liver causes haemorrhage

325
Q

how does liver fluke cause chronic disease?

A

blood feeding adults in the bile duct leading to fibrosis and cholongitis

326
Q

what are the clinical signs of chronic liver fluke infection?

A

anaemia, weight loss, submandibular oedema, enlarged liver
(secondary clostridial infection - blacks disease)

327
Q

how can fluke be diagnosed?

A

history/clinical signs
post mortem/abattoir reports
forecasts
faecal egg counts (needs adults)
coproantigen ELISA
serum ELISA antibody

328
Q

what drug is capable of killing any stage of fluke?

A

triclabendazole (extensive resistance)

329
Q

what should be done immediately after fluke treatment?

A

move onto low risk pasture as drugs have no residual activity

330
Q

what drugs can be used to kill adult stages of fluke?

A

albendazole, oxyclozanide, nitroxynil, closantel

331
Q

what drug has minimal resistance and is also able to treat most stages of fluke?

A

nitroxynil

332
Q

what dental diseases need to be checked for in sheep?

A

broken mouth and uneven molar wear (sharp/painful)

333
Q

how many incisors do sheep erupt each year?

A

2 (1 year has 2 incisors… 4 years has 8 incisors)

334
Q

what is examined externally when doing a sheep dental exam?

A

jaw, lymph nodes, face, halitosis, pain

335
Q

what possible infections can sheep get in their mouth/pharynx?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum - necrotic stomatitis
Actinobacillosis lignerisei (facial abscess) - wooden tongue
Caseous lymphadenitis

336
Q

what is a common cause of pharyngeal trauma?

A

dosing gun injuries

337
Q

what are the clinical signs of pharyngeal trauma due to dosing gun injuries?

A

dull, depressed, inappetent, halitosis, pain, cellulitiis

338
Q

what does Johnes cause?

A

weight loss, ewe mortality, poor performance

339
Q

what causes Johnes?

A

Mycobacterium avian paratuberculosis

340
Q

how is Mycobacterium avian paratuberculosis spread?

A

faeces, colostrum, milk, in utero

341
Q

what is the key risk period for infection of Johnes disease?

A

first 3-4 months of life

342
Q

where does Mycobacterium avian paratuberculosis replicate in the body?

A

GI lymph nodes and gut

343
Q

what age do sheep usually show signs of clinical Johnes?

A

3-4 years old

344
Q

what pathology does Johnes cause?

A

cellular infiltration and thickening of intestines leads to malabsorption and protein losing enteropathy causing hypoalbuminaemia

345
Q

what are the classic clinical signs of Johnes disease?

A

weight loss, anaemia, bottle jaw, high parasite burden

346
Q

why is Johnes diagnosis difficult?

A

tests have a low sensitivity
intermittently shed
many animals subclinically infected

347
Q

what is found on post mortem of sheep with johnes disease?

A

enlarged distal mesenteric lymph node
histopathology at ileocaecal junction

348
Q

what tests are available for johnes?

A

serology ELISA antibody
PCR test faeces
faecal culture

349
Q

how are flock screening tests carried out for johnes?

A

older thinner ewes selected and PCR faecal antigen is carried out along with culture
post mortems of older thinner cull ewes

350
Q

what are the benefits of the johnes vaccine?

A

reduces clinical cases and excretion of bacteria (doesn’t prevent infection)

351
Q

when is the johnes vaccine given to sheep?

A

4-16 weeks old then repeated annually

352
Q

what is red gut?

A

torsion of intestines caused by sudden introduction of lush pasture legume diet (often found dead)

353
Q

what are the common respiratory diseases of adult sheep?

A

chronic suppurative pneumonia
maedi visna
ovine pulmonary adenomatosis
laryngeal chondritis
Mannhaemia haemolytica

354
Q

what causes ovine pulmonary adenomatosis?

A

a retrovirus

355
Q

how is ovine pulmonary adenomatosis spread?

A

aerosols, lung fluid, milk, colostrum

356
Q

why is ovine pulmonary adenomatosis an iceberg disease?

A

incubation period of 2-4 years (lot of sheep effected before clinical signs are seen

357
Q

what are the clinical signs of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis?

A

older thin sheep that have increased respiratory rate and exercise intolerance
sudden death

358
Q

how is ovine pulmonary adenomatosis diagnosed?

A

clinical signs and crackles/wheeze on lungs
ultrasound lung consolidation
wheelbarrow test (controversial)

359
Q

what is done if there is a positive result on a wheelbarrow test?

A

euthansia

360
Q

what is done to treat ovine pulmonary adenomatosis?

A

no treatment

361
Q

what causes maedi visna?

A

lentivirus

362
Q

what are the two forms of maedi visna?

A

maedi (chronic respiratory and mastitic disease)
visna (neurological)

363
Q

why is maedi visna an iceberg disease?

A

slow progressive disease (long incubation)

364
Q

how is maedi visna transmitted?

A

milk, colostrum, lung discharge from mothers

365
Q

how is maedi visna transmitted?

A

milk, colostrum, lung discharge from mothers

366
Q

what are the clinical signs of respiratory maedi visna?

A

weight loss
increased respiratory effort
exercise intolerance

367
Q

what are the clinical signs of neurological maedi visna?

A

weight loss
abnormal gait, ataxia, paralysis
circling, head tremor…
(much less common)

368
Q

how is maedi visna controlled?

A

test and cull (good test available)

369
Q

what is the main bacteria causing chronic suppurative pneumonia?

A

Trueperella pyogenes

370
Q

what are the clinical signs of chronic suppurative pneumonia?

A

chronic weight loss
increased respiratory effort
cough
nasal discharge
pyrexia

371
Q

what breeds is laryngeal chondritis most commonly seen in?

A

beltex and texels (rams most commonly)

372
Q

what is the pathology seen in laryngeal chondritis?

A

narrow/swollen larynx, nodules, abscesses

373
Q

why are texels so predisposed to laryngeal chondritis?

A

shorter larynx and vocal cords are closer and narrows to a funnel

374
Q

how can laryngeal chondritis be treated?

A

corticosteroids and broad spectrum antibiotics (penicillin)
temporary tracheostomy
(may never recover or reoccur)

375
Q

what is pink eye also known as?

A

ovine infectious keratoconjunctivitis

376
Q

what causes ovine infectious keratoconjuntivitis?

A

Mycoplasma conjunctivae

377
Q

how can ovine infectious keratoconjuntivitis be treated?

A

isolate sheep and remove risk factors
LA oxytetracycline or macrolide

378
Q

what is anterior uveitis also known as?

A

silage eye

379
Q

what causes anterior uveitis?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

380
Q

what are the clinical signs of silage eye?

A

blepharospasm
cloudy cornea
swollen folded iris
material in front of eye chamber

381
Q

how is silage eye treated?

A

subconjunctival oxytetracycline and dexamethasone
systemic penicillin

382
Q

what are the main diseases of the foot associated with lameness?

A

footrot (scald, interdigital dermatitis)
CODD - contagious ovine digital dermatitis
white line
toe granuloma
foot abscess

383
Q

how does the foot appear in cases of benign footrot?

A

interdigital skin inflamed and discharging but there is no separation of the horn
(cheesy smell)

384
Q

what are some risk factors for benign footrot?

A

moisture (main one) - both indoors and outdoors
anything causing damage to the skin (frost, thistles…)
warmth
genetic susceptibility

385
Q

what is the main bacteria associated with benign footrot?

A

Dichelobacter nodosus

386
Q

what is a secondary bacteria often isolated from benign footrot cases?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

387
Q

what is the classic group of sheep that benign footrot is seen in?

A

growing lambs

388
Q

what is virulent footrot?

A

interdigital dermatitis (benign footrot) that progresses to under running of the sole of hoof horn starting medially and progressing laterally

389
Q

how does virulent footrot present?

A

grey necrotic pungent smelling horn with interdigital dermatitis

390
Q

how long does Dichelobacter nodosus survive in the environment?

A

7 days

391
Q

is Dichelobacter a opportunistic or obligate pathogen of sheep feet?

A

opportunistic (found in normal feet)

392
Q

how is interdigital dermatitis (benign footrot) treated?

A

topical - oxytetracycline, footbath (formalin, zinc sulphate, disinfectant)

393
Q

what factors need to be controlled to ensure footbathing sheep is effective?

A

appropriate exposure (2 minutes)
clean feet prior to bathing
correct concentration and depth
allow feet to dry afterwards (stand on concrete)

394
Q

how is virulent footrot treated?

A

isolate lame sheep
LA oxytetracylcine or amoxicillin
macrolides - tilmicosin, gamithromycin
do not trim (unless really necissary)

395
Q

how is virulent footrot treated?

A

isolate lame sheep
LA oxytetracylcine or amoxicillin
macrolides - tilmicosin, gamithromycin
do not trim (unless really necessary)

396
Q

why shouldn’t you trim cases of footrot as a treatment?

A

delays healing and aids spreading to other sheep

397
Q

how bad is the lameness caused by CODD?

A

very severe

398
Q

how do the feet of sheep with CODD appear?

A

ulcerative/proliferative lesion that starts at coronary band
progressive underrunning of hoof wall
hoof sloughs off

399
Q

what is a grade 1 CODD lesion?

A

just a coronary band lesion

400
Q

what is a grade 2 CODD lesion?

A

coronary band lesion with less than 50% of the hoof capsule separated

401
Q

what is a grade 3 CODD lesion?

A

50-100% of hoof capsule has sloughed off

402
Q

is a grade 4CODD lesion?

A

a healing but still active lesion (still inflamed…)

403
Q

how extensive is the damage caused by CODD?

A

very severe inflammation and lameness that can even attack the bone

404
Q

what bacteria is associated with CODD?

A

Treponeme (same as digital dermatitis of cattle)
Dichelobacter nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum also found

405
Q

what are the risk factors for CODD?

A

late summer to early autumn trend
large flock size
moist, lush, lowland pasture

406
Q

how is CODD treated?

A

isolate and treat rapidly
LA amoxicillin
macrolides - tilmicosin, gamithromycin…

407
Q

what is the five point plan for lameness control/management?

A

vaccinate twice yearly with footvax
treat lame sheep quickly
biosecurity
environmental challenge
cull chronically lame sheep

408
Q

why is footvax (footrot vaccine) useful?

A

treats and prevents footrot (and possibly CODD)

409
Q

what is footvax and vaccine for?

A

footrot (Dichelobacter nodosus strains)

410
Q

when should footvax not be used?

A

prior to shearing or lambing (oily injection site lumps and abortion risk)
if sheep have had recent moxidectin treatment

411
Q

what is the vaccination protocol for footvax?

A

initial 2 doses 4-6 weeks apart then 6 monthly boosters

412
Q

what is the culling advice for lame sheep?

A

if they have had 2-3 cases of lameness they should be culled

413
Q

why should chronically lame sheep be culled?

A

harbour infection in the feet (spreads to flock)
production - less likely to get pregant and rear lambs
welfare
gets rid of genetically susceptible sheep

414
Q

what is white line disease also known as?

A

shelly hoof

415
Q

what is white line disease?

A

separation at the white line of the hoof

416
Q

how lame are sheep with white line disease?

A

only lame if sensitive tissue is effected (impaction wit stones/mud or abscesses)

417
Q

how is white line disease treated if there is no infection present?

A

leave and carefully trim area of separation

418
Q

how is white line disease treated if there is no infection?

A

leave alone and carefully trim area of separation

419
Q

how is white line disease treated if an abscess is present?

A

trim to release pus but avoid sensitive tissue

420
Q

what is the usual cause of toe granulomas in sheep?

A

over trimming

421
Q

how are toe granulomas treated?

A

local anaesthetic then cut back granulation tissue and cauterise (ensure granuloma removed)

422
Q

how do sheep with laminitis present?

A

lame on all four limbs with them all tucked under abdomen
digits warm to the touch

423
Q

what is the main cause of laminitis in sheep?

A

high energy or cereal based feed

424
Q

what causes pedal joint abscess?

A

extension of interdigital infection into the distal interphalangeal joint structure
often seen secondary to white line abscesses

425
Q

what are the clinical signs of pedal joint abscess?

A

severe lameness
foot is swollen
widened interdigital space
purulent discharging sinus tract

426
Q

how can pedal joint abscesses be treated?

A

flush and provide antibiotics
digit amputation

427
Q

what is strawberry footrot?

A

proliferative scab lesions on distal limb

428
Q

what is usually the cause of strawberry footrot?

A

orf and dermatophilus

429
Q

how is strawberry footrot treated?

A

move to a dry field/housing and give systematic/topical antibiotics

430
Q

what is used to diagnose white muscle disease?

A

raised glutathione peroxidase in blood

431
Q

what are some infectious causes of arthritis?

A

neonatal infections (Strep dysgalactiae)
tick pyaemia
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathie

432
Q

what is the most common joint for degenerative joint disease to occur in?

A

elbow

433
Q

what areas can you narrow down a neurological condition to?

A

cerebrum
cerebellum
vestibular system
brain stem
spinal cord

434
Q

what are the clinical signs of diffuse damage to the cerebrum?

A

altered mental state - depressed, hyperexcitable, disorientated
blindness
seizures
opisthotonus - recumbent, extended forelimbs and flexed hindlimbs

435
Q

what is opisthotonus?

A

extended forelimbs and flexed hindlimbs (recumbent)

436
Q

what are some causes of diffuse cerebrum damage?

A

bacterial meningitis
cerebrocortical necrosis
pregnancy toxaemia

437
Q

what are the clinical signs of local cerebral damage?

A

contralateral blindness
circling
proprioceptive deficits

438
Q

what are some examples of causes of local cerebral damage?

A

GID cyst
brain abscess
trauma

439
Q

what are the clinical signs of cerebellar disease?

A

altered head carriage
ataxia(not weakness)
dysmetria - high stepping
intention tremors

440
Q

what are some possible causes of cerebellar damage?

A

congenital - cerebellar hypoplasia
border disease (hairy shakers)
abscesses

441
Q

what are the clinical signs of vestibular system damage?

A

head tilt to affected side
loss of balance
circling
falling/rolling to one side
spontaneous nystagmus

442
Q

what can cause vestibular system damage?

A

middle earn infection

443
Q

what are the clinical signs of brainstem damage?

A

depression
cranial nerve deficits
ipsilateral hemiparesis

444
Q

what is the main condition that causes brainstem damage?

A

listeriosis

445
Q

what are some causes of spinal cord lesions?

A

spinal abscess (joint ill, tick pyaemia…)
wobblers syndrome
trauma
congenital abnormality

446
Q

what needs to be determined when examining lambs with neurological conditions?

A

congenital or acquired

447
Q

what are some common neurological problem in young lambs?

A

border disease
congenital swayback
drunken lamb syndrome
bacterial meningitis
tetanus

448
Q

how are spinal abscesses of young lambs treated?

A

dexamethasone (1ml/kg)
penicillin - 5 days

449
Q

what transmits louping ill?

A

ticks

450
Q

what are the clinical signs of louping ill?

A

head pressing
trembling/tremors
nystagmus
lip twitching
louping gait (front and back legs move together)

451
Q

what are common neurological conditions of older lambs?

A

CCN - cerebrocortical necrosis
listeriosis
gid
trauma
louping ill (if in tick area)

452
Q

what causes CCN?

A

vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency

453
Q

what are the clinical signs of CCN?

A

dull, disorientated, blind, tremors, recumbency, opisthotonus, convulsions

454
Q

what is the classic history of a lamb with CCN?

A

fats growing lamb with a diet change (weaned and ate a lot of concentrates)

455
Q

how is CCN treated?

A

vitamin B1 - every 12 hours for 3 days
NSAIDs

456
Q

what is listeriosis associated with?

A

feeding poorly preserved silage with soil contamination (mouldy)

457
Q

what are the clinical signs of listeriosis?

A

anorexia, depression
unilateral hemiparesis
trigeminal nerve paralysis (salivation and food impaction)
facial nerve paralysis

458
Q

how is listeriosis treated?

A

benzylpenicillin or procaine penicillin
dexamethasone

459
Q

what causes gid?

A

Taenia multiceps

460
Q

what are the clinical signs of gid?

A

circling
unilateral blindness
head tilt
skull softening

461
Q

how is gid controlled in sheep?

A

worm dogs every 6 weeks with praziquantel
keep dogs away from sheep carcass

462
Q

how is pregnancy toxaemia diagnosed?

A

BOHB levels in blood
(mainly clinical signs)

463
Q

how is scrapie transmitted?

A

mother to offspring prenatally, colostrum and milk
birthing fluids and placenta

464
Q

what are the clinical signs of scrapie?

A

2-5 years old
skin issues
weight loss
altered mental state (excitable), trembling, high step ataxia, recumbency

465
Q

what is orf also known as?

A

contagious pustular dermatitis

466
Q

what type of virus causes orf?

A

parapox

467
Q

what type of lesions are seen with orf?

A

painful vesicular/proliferative scabby lesions around mouth, head and teats

468
Q

what is the duration of orf?

A

4-6 weeks

469
Q

how if orf transmitted?

A

contact - usually required damaged skin

470
Q

what is required for orf to survive the winter?

A

a carrier animal (doesn’t overwinter)

471
Q

how is orf controlled?

A

isolate clinical cases
thorough cleaning/biosecurity
no treatment (secondary infection antibiotics)
vaccine

472
Q

when is the orf vaccine used?

A

only on infected farms

473
Q

why does orf need to be confirmed on the farm before vaccination?

A

it is a live vaccine so will infect the sheep if uninfected

474
Q

how is the orf vaccine applied?

A

scratching skin (these scabs will be infection so put in armpit where they won’t likely touch other animals/farmer)

475
Q

what are the main mites effecting sheep?

A

Psoroptes ovis
Chorioptes bovis
Trombiculus

476
Q

what is the main louse effecting sheep?

A

Bovicola ovis

477
Q

what tick species effect sheep?

A

Ixodes ricinus
Haemaphyllis punctuata

478
Q

what does Psorptes ovis cause?

A

sheep scab

479
Q

what type of reaction causes sheep scab?

A

allergic reaction to the mites

480
Q

what are the clinical signs of sheep scab?

A

wool loss, ragged moist yellow fleece, kicking/rubbing, weight loss

481
Q

where should you sample for Psorptes ovis?

A

edge of lesion (on the worst sheep)

482
Q

how is sheep scab diagnosed?

A

wool pluck and skin scrape
ELISA

483
Q

what are the morphological features of Psorptes ovis?

A

pointed mouth parts and bell shaped suckers

484
Q

how is sheep scab treated?

A

treat all sheep with organophosphate dip (diazinon)

485
Q

why is reinfection of sheep scab seen after treatment?

A

mites survive 19 days off the host

486
Q

what are some possible treatment options for sheep scab?

A

organophosphates (diazanon)
macrocylic lactones (ivermectin, doramectin…)

487
Q

how can sheep scab be prevented?

A

biosecurity (treat all bought in sheep)
double fence neighbouring stock
cleaning equipment

488
Q

where is chorioptes bovis found on the sheep?

A

ventral abdomen and scrotum

489
Q

what is used to treat Chorioptes bovis?

A

organophosphates

490
Q

what type of louse is Bovicola ovis?

A

chewing

491
Q

what can be done to treat lice?

A

shearing
synthetic pyrethroids and organophosphates

492
Q

when does fly strike occur?

A

May to October

493
Q

what flies cause fly strike?

A

Lucilia sericata

494
Q

what is the pathogenesis of Lucilia sericata that causes fly strike?

A

lay eggs that hatch in about 12 hours that release proteolytic enzymes and hook onto the skin using their mouth causing damage
the smell also attracts other flies causing rapid multiplication

495
Q

what is the most common risk factor for fly strike?

A

faecal soiling (lush grass causing SARA) in warm wet weather

496
Q

what is used to treat fly strike?

A

synthetic pyrethroids (kills maggots)
clean and trim
house
address other risk factors

497
Q

how can fly strike be prevented/controlled?

A

tail docking
dagging
shearning
worm control
prophylactic treatment

498
Q

what products can be used for fly strike control/prevention?

A

organophosphate dips
pyrethroid pour ons
insect growth regulators

499
Q

what is the headfly called?

A

Hydrotea irritans

500
Q

when does Hydrotea irritans cause the most problems?

A

when a flock has eye disease - they feed on ocular discharge spreading the disease through the flock (mainly a nuisance fly)

501
Q

what causes ovine sweet itch?

A

hypersensitivity to midges (mainly thin places of skin)

502
Q

what causes peri-orbital eczema?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

503
Q

how is peri-orbital eczema spread?

A

spread through contact (feed troughs…)

504
Q

how is peri-orbital eczema treated?

A

penicillin

505
Q

what causes lumpy wool?

A

Dermatophilus congolensi

506
Q

what are the risk factors for Dermatophillus congolensi causing lumpy wool?

A

wet conditions after shearing
thin wooled breeds

507
Q

what are the clinical signs of Dermatophillus congolensi?

A

crusty lesions with wool loss
pruritis
(fly strike)

508
Q

how is Dermatophillus congolensi treated?

A

penicillin

509
Q

what causes caseous lymphadenitis?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

510
Q

what is the mopst common lymph node to find caseous lymphadenitis?

A

parotid

511
Q

how is caseous lymphadenitis spread?

A

close contact
fomites (shearing…)
respiratory pathway

512
Q

what conditions is needed for a tick to feed?

A

above 85% humidity and 7 degrees

513
Q

what are the main UK tick born diseases?

A

tick borne fever
tick pyaemia
louping ill (neurological)
Q fever
(babesiosis in cattle and lyme disease not in sheep)

514
Q

what causes tick borne fever?

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilia

515
Q

what is the effect of tick borne fever?

A

profound immunosuppression (gateway for other diseases)
fever - abortion and infertility (rams)

516
Q

is there any immunity to tick borne fever?

A

yes - with age

517
Q

what can be done to control louping ill in areas where it is common?

A

vaccinate

518
Q

what are the four most common plant poisonings of sheep?

A

yew
acorn
laurel
rhododendron

519
Q

what causes pneumonic pasturellosis?

A

Mannheimia haemolytica

520
Q

what is used to treat pneumonic pasteurellosis?

A

LA oxytetracycline or amoxicillin

521
Q

how can pasturellosis be controlled?

A

vaccination (reduces severity)
control risk factors

522
Q

what causes systemic pasteurllosis?

A

Biebersteina trahalosi

523
Q

what age lambs are generally effected by systemic pasturellosis?

A

6-10 months of age

524
Q

what are risk factors for systemic pasturellosis?

A

change of grazing
change of weather
concurrent disease
stress (handling…)

525
Q

what is used to treat systemic pasturellosis?

A

LA oxytetracycline

526
Q

wherre are clostridial bacteria found?

A

farm environment - soil, guts, surfaces…

527
Q

what are clostridial disease risk factors?

A

poor hygiene
endoparasites
wounds/trauma/injury
changes to diet

528
Q

what causes lamb dysentery?

A

Clostridium perfingens type B

529
Q

what aged lambs are effected by lamb dysentery?

A

under 3 weeks old

530
Q

what are the main clinical signs of lamb dysentery?

A

water profuse diarrhoea with blood in
severe abdominal pain

531
Q

what are the main findings on post mortem of a lamb with Clostridium perfingens type B?

A

haemorrhagic enteritis
blood stained fluid in abdominal cavity and pericardium

532
Q

what causes pulpy kidney?

A

Clostridium perfingens type D

533
Q

what age lambs in pulpy kidney seen in?

A

4-10 weeks old or 6 months plus

534
Q

what is a major risk factor for pulpy kidney disease?

A

high concentrate diet (creep fed)

535
Q

what does Clostridium sordelli cause?

A

abomasitis and toxaemia

536
Q

what sheep is Clostridium sordelli seen to cause disease?

A

intensively reared concentrate fed 4-10 week old lambs

537
Q

what causes tetanus?

A

Clostrium tetani

538
Q

what are the clinical signs of tetanus?

A

stiffness, opisthotonus, recumbency, death

539
Q

what causes braxy?

A

Clostridium septicum

540
Q

what are the risk factors for braxy?

A

autumn/winter - frosty root crops

541
Q

what causes blacks disease?

A

Clostridium novyi type B

542
Q

what is blacks disease often secondary to?

A

fluke

543
Q

what are the findings of blacks disease on post mortem?

A

blood stained fluid in body cavity
necrotic liver
fluke

544
Q

when should a vaccination course for clostridial disease be started?

A

3 weeks old (given to ewe 4 weeks before lambing)

545
Q

what notifiable diseases have been seen in UK sheep?

A

anthrax
blue tongue
contagious agalactiae
foot and mouth disease
scrapie

546
Q

what causes anthrax?

A

Bacillus anthracis

547
Q

what are the main clinical signs of foot and mouth in sheep?

A

lameness, blisters on tongue

548
Q

what are the clinical signs of blue tongue?

A

fever, mouth ulcers, swelling of head/neck and lameness

549
Q

what are the clinical signs of contagious agalactia?

A

mastitis, arthritis, keratoconjunctivitis, abortion

550
Q

what causes contagious agalactia?

A

Mycoplasma agalactiae

551
Q

what are the advantages of a flock health plan?

A

required for farm assurance schemes
up to date advise for farmer
improves client relationships
improved welfare standards

552
Q

what are good times of year to do a flock health plan?

A

summer (weaning) - pre-tupping
pre-lambing (winter)

553
Q

what are some KPIs for sheep flocks?

A

scanning %
lambing % (born alive, weaned, sold)
ewe mortality
replacement rate
ewe:tup ratio
lambing mortality (scanning, birth…)

554
Q

how are KPIs used?

A

compare to industry standard
compare to farms own goals

555
Q

what are the main principles of a biosecurity plan on a flock health review?

A

impossible to have zero risk
business/farm aims discussed
identify the disease the flocks at risk of getting
identify current flock disease status
assess risk of disease introduction
quantify the risk
devise control measures

Farm (year 4) (17 decks)

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