Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

what are some design issues of the bovine lung?

A

small lung volume for body size
large dead space
no collateral ventilation of alveoli
alveoli easy to damage and difficult to recover
poor fibrinolytic system

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2
Q

in terms of airway defence, what issue does having a large dead amount of dead space cause?

A

reduced phagocytic activity in these spaces means decreased bacterial clearance

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3
Q

why does no collateral ventilation of alveoli cause issues in cattle?

A

small areas of blockage/pneumonia can prevent gaseous exchange in large numbers of alveoli

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4
Q

what issue does having a poorly developed fibrinolytic system have?

A

fibrinous exudate persists leading to lung scarring

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5
Q

when does failure of passive transfer of antibodies fail?

A

too little, too late, too poor quality colostrum

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6
Q

how is passive transfer assessed in calves?

A

measuring total protein

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7
Q

what is the local defence of the URT of calves, and how can this be damaged?

A

mucocilliary escalators - damaged by inappropriate air quality

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8
Q

what is the local defence of the LRT of calves, and how can this be damaged?

A

inflammatory cells - damaged by immunosuppression due to stressors, SARA or BVD

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9
Q

what viruses commonly cause respiratory issues?

A

respiratory syncytial virus
parainfluenza
infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (herpes)
bovine viral diarrhoea

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10
Q

what bacteria can cause respiratory issues?

A

Pasteurella
Mannheimia
Histophilus
Truperella

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11
Q

what causes IBR?

A

herpes virus

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12
Q

what is enzootic pneumonia of calves?

A

an outbreak of pneumonia in a group of calves with varying pathogens

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13
Q

what are some factors which can cause a pathogen multiplier effect for enzootic pneumonia outbreaks?

A

mixed age groups
shared airspace between age groups
group size
overstocking
multi-sourcing calves

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14
Q

when animals are young and pre-weaned how big should the age gap be between them?

A

less than 2 weeks

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15
Q

how does winter time effect the spread of respiratory disease?

A

limited housing - mixed age groups
less UV light (UV kills virus)
virus thrives in damp conditions

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16
Q

what does the lower critical temperature of a calf mean?

A

the temperature at which the calf will shiver and there will be production losses

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17
Q

what is the lower critical temperature of a 4 week old calf?

A

0 degrees with no draught
9 degrees with draught
15 degrees if floor is damp

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18
Q

what stage of lungworm is the infective stage?

A

L3

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19
Q

why is the spread of lungworm difficult to control?

A

spread by pilobilus fungi so can blow over from neighbouring farms

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20
Q

what is lungworms prepatent period?

A

3 weeks

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21
Q

what is the issue with becoming reinfected with lungworm?

A

reinfection syndrome - cattle with prior partial immunity can have a severe allergic reaction (no faecal larvae seen)

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22
Q

what is fog fever?

A

acute pneumonia seen 4-10 days after moving onto lush pasture

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23
Q

how many animals are usually effects by fog fever?

A

normally just one in a group

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24
Q

what are the clinical signs of fog fever?

A

open mouth breathing/frothing
tachypnoea
anxiety

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25
Q

how can fog fever be prevented?

A

gradual introduce animals to lush pasture

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26
Q

what causes calf diphtheria?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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27
Q

where are lesions of calf diphtheria seen?

A

lesion in mouth, pharynx and larynx (ulcerative necrosis)

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28
Q

what are the clinical signs of calf diphtheria?

A

mouth lesions
pyrexia
difficulty swallowing/eating
pungent smell (halitosis)

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29
Q

what are some possible risk factors for calf diphtheria?

A

mucosal injury
erupting teeth
unhygienic feed buckets

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30
Q

what can be used to treat calf diphtheria?

A

antibiotics - penicillin, oxytetracycline… (broad spectrum drugs)

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31
Q

what complication can calf diphtheria lead to?

A

laryngeal chondritis

32
Q

what breeds are predisposed to laryngeal chondritis?

A

beef breeds
texel sheep

33
Q

what is done to treat laryngeal chondritis?

A

antibiotics
NSAIDs
tracheostomy

34
Q

what animals is shipping fever classically seen in?

A

adult animals that have recently been transported

35
Q

what pathogens cause shipping fever?

A

BHV 1
(secondary Mannheimia)

36
Q

how is vena caval thrombo-embolism treated?

A

none - slaughter

37
Q

what respiratory conditions are channel island breeds and friesians predisposed to?

A

atopic rhinitis (allergic rhinitis)
enzootic nasal granuloma

38
Q

what is your top differential for respiratory disease for cows at pasture?

A

lungworm

39
Q

why should testing for disease not just be done on the dead stock?

A

they may have died due to a secondary cause

40
Q

what are some possible stressors that lead to respiratory disease?

A

transport (shipping fever)
wean/disbud/castrate… (enzootic pneumonia)

41
Q

how can you differentiate between fog fever and lungworm?

A

fog fever - few days after turnout
lungworm - few weeks after turnout (prepatent period)

42
Q

what type of bacteria are beef cattle more prone to?

A

bacterial - mannheimia/pasteurella…

43
Q

where is the pathology if stertorous upper respiratory noise is heard?

A

laryngeal (laryngeal chondritis)

44
Q

what are the differentials for a nosebleed?

A

vena caval thrombosis
foreign body

45
Q

what facial feature is a very good indicator of calf health?

A

ear position

46
Q

what postural feature show a cow is breathing deeply?

A

abducted elbows (can show pain)

47
Q

what type of discharge do you want to sample from eyes and nose?

A

serous (if purulent you’re guaranteed to find bacteria)

48
Q

why can antibody titre not be that useful?

A

titres may be history (only shows exposure) - take two to see if they change

49
Q

what is a nasopharyngeal swab good for isolating?

A

IBR, RSV, PI3 (good for viruses) - all the way to the back of the pharynx

50
Q

what are conjunctival swabs/scrapes good for isolating?

A

IBR and M. bovis

51
Q

what is bronchoalveolar lavage good for isolating?

A

M. bovis, IBR, RSV, PI3, BVD, haemophilus, lungworm

52
Q

where should the tubes reach to when carrying out a bronchoalveolar lavage?

A

tracheal bifurcation

53
Q

what are bulk milk antibodies good for monitoring?

A

trends (when antibodies rise and fall)
determining how disease entered a farm (young stock, certain lactation…)

54
Q

what should be assessed about the environment when trying to diagnose respiratory disease?

A

urea, warm air
damp, dusty, bedding temperature
does it make you cough
(stack effect)

55
Q

what are some indications of inadequate airflow in a building?

A

tiger stripes (stripes on corrugated roof)
cobwebs

56
Q

what are common reasons for a poor stack effect?

A

insufficient bodies (biomass)
poor inlet/outlet

57
Q

what are the short/immediate treatment options for respiratory disease?

A

antibiotics
NSAIDs
nursing
isolation/reducing number

58
Q

what are general prevention methods for respiratory disease?

A

colostrum/nutrition
improve environment
vaccines

59
Q

in a group of sick animals with respiratory disease, which ones should be treated with antibiotics? (in an ideal world)

A

pyrexic animals, then monitor others and treat on first day of pyrexia

60
Q

in a group of sick animals with respiratory disease, which ones should be treated wit5h antibiotics? (in reality)

A

if more than a quarter of the group is effected then treat all of them

61
Q

what are the considerations when choosing a drug?

A

spectrum of activity
ease of administration (drug and animal…)
long/short acting
licensing/cascade
cost

62
Q

what are some good broad spectrum antibiotics for respiratory disease?

A

oxytetracycline
beta lactams - penicillin and cephalosporins
florfenicol
macrolide
fluoroquinolones

63
Q

what is the issue with using beta lactams to treat respiratory disease?

A

don’t work on Mycoplasma spp. because they need a cell wall to act on

64
Q

what are some macrolides available for respiratory disease?

A

tilmicosin
tulathromycin
gammithromycin
tildipirosin

65
Q

what is the issue with tilmicosin?

A

only vets can administer it (absorbed through skin, fatal if inject yourself with it)

66
Q

what is the issue with fluoroquinolones?

A

high priority group - should avoid using them

67
Q

what is NSAID use for in respiratory cases?

A

pain relief, antipyretic, improve appetite

68
Q

what are some NSAIDs that can be used for respiratory cases?

A

flunixin
meloxicam
ketoprofen
carprofen

69
Q

what is the advantage of using ketoprofen or carprofen for treating respiratory disease?

A

they have a zero milk withhold (less useful if using in combination with antibiotic that requires a milk withhold)

70
Q

when are vaccines administered for maximum effect?

A

before risk period
correct storage, dose, route, frequency and age

71
Q

what is one way vaccines can be administered at an early age? (gets around MDA)

A

intranasally to promote a local reaction

72
Q

what is the use of IBR marker vaccines?

A

can tell the difference between vaccinated and naturally infected animal

73
Q

when is a live IBR vaccine used?

A

in the face of an outbreak it is given intranasally to provoke a cell mediated response

74
Q

when is the inactivated IBR vaccine used?

A

in eradication programmes as it provokes antibody levels to reduce the shedding

75
Q

what are some autogenous vaccines that can be made?

A

mycoplasma
salmonella