Lameness Flashcards

1
Q

what causes a swinging leg lameness?

A

pain when bringing the leg forward

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2
Q

are most upper limb lamenesses swinging or weightbearing?

A

mainly swinging (shortened forward stride)

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3
Q

which leg has a shortened stride when an animal has a weight bearing lameness?

A

shortened is on the good leg

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4
Q

how does the head position change at the point of weight bearing on a lame leg?

A

if lame on front leg - head up
if lame on back leg - head down

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5
Q

what is the use of a flexion test?

A

exacerbate the lameness in the joint that is held in flexion

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6
Q

what can cause atrophy of muscle associated with lameness?

A

disuse - pain
neurological

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7
Q

what are some possible theories about the causes of tight tendons in calves?

A

position in utero
manganese deficiency
hereditary

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8
Q

what are some options for treating tight tendons in calves?

A

cast
metal splint
tendonectomy

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9
Q

what is the main differential for arthrogryposis?

A

schmallenburg

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10
Q

what can cause gastrocnemius ruptured?

A

rotational force (foot stuck)
sudden weight
trauma
weakening/compartment syndrome
hypophosphataemia

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11
Q

what causes a similar stance to gastrocnemius rupture in cattle?

A

tibial nerve paralysis

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12
Q

what is the most common cause of flexor tendon injury in cattle?

A

trauma (then infection) - usually an open contaminated wound

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13
Q

why is it useful to cast an open wound to the leg after infection in controlled?

A

highly mobile joints that will pull wound edges apart whenever they walk

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14
Q

how should cellulitis on the limb be treated?

A

aggressively with antibiotics and anti-inflammatory

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15
Q

how does a cow with patellar fixation present?

A

intermittent lameness and wear of dorsal horn

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16
Q

what is the treatment for patellar fixation?

A

cut medial patellar ligament near distal end on both legs (not on the same visit - other with usually develop it as well)

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17
Q

what is the main cause of peroneus tetras rupture?

A

pulling leg two high up (foot trimming)

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18
Q

what causes a flying scapula?

A

serrautus ventralis rupture

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19
Q

what are the osteodystrophies seen in cattle?

A

rickets - young growing cattle
osteoporosis and osteomalacia - adult

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20
Q

what causes osteodystrophies in cattle?

A

calcium, phosphorous, copper deficiency
rapid growth, gender, genetics, housing

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21
Q

why are oesteodystrophies more common in beef animals?

A

tend to be fed homegrown diet which doesn’t have the correct minerals and they grow rapidly

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22
Q

what are the clinical signs of osteodystrophies?

A

stiffness/recumbency
bone distortion
long bone fractures
swelling joints/epiphysis

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23
Q

what causes white muscle disease?

A

vitamin E and selenium deficiency

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24
Q

what breeds are predisposed to hip dysplasia?

A

herefords, angus, galloways, Limousin, charolais

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25
Q

what are the main points osteochondrosis occurs in cattle?

A

atlanto-occipital joint
femora-patellar joint

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26
Q

how does degenerative joint disease present?

A

progressively lame animal in young/growing cattle

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27
Q

how does the direction of hip dislocation effect how the animal presents?

A

cranio-dorsal displacement - walking
cause-ventral displacement - recumbent

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28
Q

what is a common cause of metacarpal/tarsal fractures?

A

calving ropes during assisted delivery

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29
Q

when should box rest only be considered in fracture cases?

A

no displacement or joint involvement
animal is ambulatory

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30
Q

why does care need to be taken using xylazine to sedate calves?

A

large drop in cardiac output

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31
Q

what are some possible complications of fractures?

A

osteomyelitis
dislocation/non-union
decreased bone development
ischaemic necrosis
nerve damage
disuse atrophy

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32
Q

what are the two ways haematogenous arthritis can occur?

A

haematogenous spread
traumatic

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33
Q

what is the most common pathogen that causes septic arthritis?

A

Truperella pyogenes

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34
Q

what is done to diagnose septic arthritis?

A

arthrocentesis - high protein and nucleated cell count

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35
Q

what are the main non-infectious causes of lameness in the foot?

A

sole haemorrhage/bruising
sole ulcers
white line lesions

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36
Q

what is sole haemorrhage?

A

contusion of the corium due to pressure from the pedal bone and external pressure

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37
Q

what causes double sole formation?

A

complication of sole haemorrhage/bruising

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38
Q

what is a sole ulcer?

A

more severe manifestation of sole haemorrhage/bruising leading to disrupted sole horn production and corium exposure

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39
Q

what are the key anatomical features of the foot that play a role in sole haemorrhage/ulcers formation?

A

pedal bone
digital cushion
corium/sole

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40
Q

what is the treatment for sole haemorrhage/ulcers?

A

functional trimming
block unaffected claw
NSAIDs

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41
Q

what is the white line?

A

area where hoof wall meets the sole (weak point_

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42
Q

what is white line disease?

A

separation at the white line due to external pressures and sideways forces

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43
Q

how is white line disease treated?

A

functional foot trimming and removal or detached horn
block unaffected claw
NSAIDs
(antibiotics? - abscess)

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44
Q

what structure defines the lying and lunging area of a cubicle?

A

the brisket board

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45
Q

what is the best choice of bedding for cubicles from a lameness aspect?

A

deep sand bedding with mats

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46
Q

what behaviour does overstocking lead to?

A

increased standing times
more aggressive interactions

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47
Q

how much resting area is needed per cow in a straw years?

A

at least 10 square metres

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48
Q

how much feed barrier space should a cow have?

A

at least 70cm

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49
Q

what factors effect cow comfort?

A

cubicle space/bedding
feed barrier space
milking frequency/duration
floor surfaces and tracks
cow flow - sharp turns, handling…
animal handling

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50
Q

what is a possible issue with having rubber flooring all over a shed?

A

cows don’t lie in cubicles and lie on rubber flooring instead - mastitis risk

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51
Q

what areas of the farm could rubber flooring be used for?

A

high cow flow areas - exit to parlour, collecting yard…

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52
Q

how do overgrown claws effect the pedal bone?

A

rotates the pedal bone and puta more pressure on the soft tissue

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53
Q

what is a major risk period for sole haemorrhage/ulcers and white line disease?

A

just after calving (foot trimming 50 days after calving)

54
Q

how thick should you trim the sole to be?

A

5-8mm

55
Q

why is calving a risk factor for lameness?

A

causes weakening of the connective tissue of the claw suspensory apparatus (lamellae)

56
Q

what is the cause of increased laxity of the suspensory apparatus of the claw around calving?

A

hormonal changes around calving

57
Q

other than hormonal changes, what else contributes to increase lameness risk after calving?

A

bullying, new housing, new diet…

58
Q

what is the correlation between lameness and BCS?

A

lame cows are thinner (lameness a risk factor for low BCS and low BCS is a risk factor for lameness)

59
Q

what is the role of the digital cushion?

A

to protect the corium and epithelium

60
Q

how is the digital cushion effected around calving?

A

it is thinner post calving
(also thinner in first lactation animals)

61
Q

what age of cow (lactation) has the thinnest digital cushion?

A

first lactation is significantly thinner - adding to lameness susceptibility

62
Q

how does age effect the likelihood of becoming lame?

A

older cows more likely to be lame - once they have had a lesion they are more likely to get it again

63
Q

how does nutrition effect lameness?

A

SARA
deficiencies (biotin…)
BCS

64
Q

why are transition cows at risk of lameness?

A

reduced DMI and fat mobilisation
calving effects
diet changes
comfort changes - bullying, feed space…

65
Q

how can heat stress effect lameness?

A

heat stress causes cows to stand up for longer in cooler places

66
Q

what temperature do cows get heat stress?

A

> 25 degrees with high humidity

67
Q

what factors of genetics effects lameness?

A

foot angle
milk yield
digital foot pad thickness

68
Q

what causes interdigital hyperplasia?

A

chronic skin irritation

69
Q

how is interdigital hyperplasia treated?

A

surgical removal if painful/infected (anaesthesia possibly needed)

70
Q

what is the major risk factor for toe necrosis?

A

over wear/trimming of toe sole

71
Q

how can toe necrosis be treated?

A

trim and block
partial/full digital amputation

72
Q

what is another name for a vertical wall crack?

A

sand crack

73
Q

how are vertical wall cracks treated?

A

trim and block
stabilise the hoof wall

74
Q

complications of what can lead to deep digital sepsis?

A

untreated foul in the foot
complicated sole ulcers
untreated white line abscesses

75
Q

what can be done to treat deep digital sepsis?

A

amputation, arthrodesis or euthanasia

76
Q

what is corkscrew claw?

A

the dorsal edge of the claw wall deviates from a straight line (often hereditary)

77
Q

what are the indications for digit amputation?

A

deep digital sepsis
retroarticular abscess
non-healing wall lesions
toe necrosis

78
Q

what are the methods of digit amputation?

A

disarticulation of proximal interphalangeal joint
cut through P1
cut through P2

79
Q

what method of digit amputation has the worst outcome?

A

cutting through P2 - leave a small portion of P2 which can cause complications

80
Q

what type of nerve block is used for digit amputation by disarticulation?

A

IV regional block (tourniquet required)

81
Q

how should a digit amputation be managed post surgery?

A

NSAIDs and antibiotics
bandage and block
put in clean environment

82
Q

what is the main piece of equipment used for digit amputation when you cut through P1?

A

embryotomy wire

83
Q

what is the aim of arthrodesis?

A

save both claws but address/treat the deep joint damage in the foot - destroy and fuse the joint

84
Q

what type of anaesthetic is used for arthrodesis?

A

IV regional block (tourniquet required)

85
Q

what are the steps of arthrodesis?

A

block and surgically prepare
remove navicular bone
flush/destroy joint
place drains

86
Q

what is the major advantage of arthrodesis over digit amputation?

A

2 claws left so may last in herd longer

87
Q

what are the main infectious foot disease of cattle?

A

digital dermatitis
interdigital phlegmon (foul in the foot)
interdigital dermatitis
heel horn erosion

88
Q

what are some other names for digital dermatitis?

A

mortellaro disease
hairy heel warts
strawberry foot

89
Q

what is the main bacteria involved in digital dermatitis?

A

Treponema spp. (spirochete)

90
Q

what are the main Treponema spp. associated with digital dermatitis?

A

Treponema denticola
Treponema medium
Treponema phagedenis

91
Q

how would the lesions of digital dermatitis be described?

A

painful reddened area just above the interdigital cleft between the heel bulbs (usually with erected hair around the lesions)

92
Q

what are the stages of digital dermatitis?

A

M0
M1
M2
M3
M4
M4.1

93
Q

what is a M0 digital dermatitis lesion?

A

normal digit with no signs of lesion

94
Q

what is a M1 digital dermatitis lesion?

A

early small lesion less than 2cm that is circumscribed and red/grey in colour

95
Q

what is a M2 digital dermatitis lesion?

A

acute active ulcerative or granulomatous lesion greater than 2cm in diameter

96
Q

what is a M3 digital dermatitis lesion?

A

acute healing lesion covered by a firm scab

97
Q

what is a M4 digital dermatitis lesion?

A

chronic lesion that can be dyskeratotic or proliferative

98
Q

what is a M4.1 digital dermatitis lesion?

A

chronic lesion with subacute components (reactivated lesion)

99
Q

what is found on top of the epidermis of cows feet?

A

microbiome (has a role to play in development of digital dermatitis)

100
Q

what are potential entry points of Treponemes into the skin to lead to digital dermatitis?

A

skin damage/integrity
hair follicles
sebaceous glands

101
Q

what are some risk factors for the development of digital dermatitis?

A

exposure to slurry and wet conditions
grooved flooring - skin integrity/cleanliness??
infected cows
poor hygiene
foot trimmers/biosecurity
buying in animals
stocking density
genetics

102
Q

how long can treponemes causing bovine digital dermatitis survive on foot trimming equipment?

A

can be alive for over 2 hours

103
Q

why is stocking density a risk factor for digital dermatitis?

A

overcrowding causes increased standing time so more time stood in slurry and damaging skin integrity

104
Q

how does parity effect digital dermatitis risk?

A

young cows have increased risk and this often becomes chronic in infected cows

105
Q

how can digital dermatitis be controlled?

A

improve conditions and risk factors
screening and early treatment
genetic selection
footbathing

106
Q

what is the main source of digital dermatitis infection?

A

chronically infected cows

107
Q

when is a good time to screen and detect early digital dermatitis lesions?

A

in the parlour

108
Q

what are some possible footbath solutions for digital dermatitis control?

A

copper sulphate
formalin
zinc sulphate

109
Q

what is the issue with using copper sulphate footbaths?

A

damaging to the environment when disposed of

110
Q

what are some important aspects to consider when using footbaths?

A

feet should be as clean as possible
change solution at appropriate intervals
correct concentration
correct contact time for solution

111
Q

how often should cows be footbathed for digital dermatitis control?

A

multiple times a week

112
Q

how should early stage lesions of digital dermatitis be treated?

A

clean/dry lesion
apply topical antibiotics (oxytetracycline)
keep in a clean dry environment for a few days

113
Q

should digital dermatitis lesions be wrapped?

A

no - no evidence to support this and gives a damp dirty environment for the lesions

114
Q

are NSAIDs indicated for digital dermatitis?

A

yes - animal is painful (decreases severity of lameness) (NSAIDs indicated for any lameness)

115
Q

what is the blitz approach digital dermatitis treatment and why is it useful?

A

screening entire herd and simultaneously treating all active/recurring lesions with improved hygiene and footbathing protocols this reduces infection pressure to control outbreaks

116
Q

what is foul in the foot also known as?

A

foot rot (USA)
interdigital phlegmon
interdigital necrobacillosis
infectious pododermatitis

117
Q

what is the main bacteria responsible for foul in the foot?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

118
Q

what is the clinical presentation of foul in the foot?

A

diffuse swelling above the claw with characteristic necrotic odour that begins in the interdigital space
acute onset and very painful

119
Q

what is done to treat foul in the foot?

A

early intervention is crucial
clean lesion and remove necrotic tissue
systemic antibiotics and NSAIDs

120
Q

what systemic antibiotics can be used for foul in the foot?

A

oxytetracycline
pen and strep
tylosin
ceftiofur (avoid as is critically important)

121
Q

what is interdigital dermatitis?

A

mild infection of the interdigital space that can spread across the heels causing horn erosions

122
Q

what is the main bacteria associated with interdigital dermatitis?

A

Dichelobacter nodosus

123
Q

how can foul in the foot be differentiated from interdigital dermatitis?

A

foul with have diffuse swelling and pain

124
Q

what is heel horn erosion?

A

progressive destruction of the heel horn associated with poor hygiene (not very painful)

125
Q

what is done to treat heel horn erosion?

A

foot trimming and topical antibiotics if needed

126
Q

what is pain?

A

unpleasant sensory and emotional experience caused by actual/potential tissue damage

127
Q

what are some indicators a cow is in pain?

A

reduced activity and increased lying
changing posture (less load on foot)
increased HR and RR
decreased food intake, body weight and rumen turnover
facial expression

128
Q

what are some indicators a cow is in pain?

A

reduced activity and increased lying
changing posture (less load on foot)
increased HR and RR
decreased food intake, body weight and rumen turnover
facial expression

129
Q

how may a cows posture indicate pain?

A

reduced weight bearing
spine arched
hanging/nodding head when walking
shuffling walk
shortened stride

130
Q

what are the three levels of welfare protection for animals on farms?

A

legislation
welfare code
farm assurance schemes