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Farm (year 4) > Reproduction > Flashcards

Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

where is the control of the oestrus cycle begin?

A

hypothalamus releasing pulses of GnRH

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2
Q

what does GnRH work on?

A

pituitary gland to secrete FSH and LH

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3
Q

how long does it take a follicle to be released from the primordial follicle pool and become a dominant follicle?

A

3 months

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4
Q

what things can have an effect on the brain, which in turn can effect fertility?

A

energy
stress - lameness, nutrition…
photoperiod

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5
Q

what feedback loops does oestradiol have?

A

negative on LH and FSH

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6
Q

what happens to the first follicle when the cow returns to ovarian activity after calving?

A

there is no progesterone so the follicle will be smaller - so this oestrus may be silent

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7
Q

what is a silent oestrus?

A

no behavioural signs of oestrus

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8
Q

if there is progesterone available as another follicle develops, what happens to the developing follicle?

A

atresia

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9
Q

how is metestrus detected on vaginal examination?

A

blood in the discharge

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10
Q

when does progesterone increase?

A

after ovulation when a CL is present

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11
Q

how many follicular waves are usually present in a oestrous cycle?

A

2 (some have 3 but takes more energy)

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12
Q

how long does it take beef cows to return to oestrus?

A

up to 3 months

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13
Q

what does success of AI depend on?

A

fertility/sires
reliable oestrus detection

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14
Q

what is the best sign of oestrus?

A

cow standing to be mounted

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15
Q

if a cow sniffs the vulva of another cow, which cow is in heat?

A

cow that is sniffing

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16
Q

if a cow rests her chin on another cow, which one is in heat?

A

either or both

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17
Q

if a cow is licking another cow, which one is in heat?

A

either or both

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18
Q

if a cow is binding another cow, which one is in heat?

A

either or both

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19
Q

if a cow mounts another cow, but on the head end, which one is in heat?

A

the cow doing the mounting

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20
Q

if a cow mounts another cow, which one is in heat?

A

the one being mounted (stands to be mounted)

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21
Q

when is the most common behaviour seen when a cow is in heat?

A

sniffing and chin resting

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22
Q

what are some aids for heat detection?

A

tail paint and kamars
records - target those in oestrus 21 days ago
teaser animal
pedometers

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23
Q

what is the best way to detect heat?

A

observation and pedometers together

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24
Q

how many sperm are in an AI straw?

A

conventional - 15-20 million
sexed - 1 million

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25
Q

what is the role of KPIs in relation so fertility?

A

demonstrate efficiency, animal health/welfare and provides a benchmark

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26
Q

what are some recording systems for farms?

A

on farm diary
computer packages - milking parlour data, activity/rumination monitoring
milk recording companies

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27
Q

what assessments of animals can be made as a rough look at fertility?

A

BCS
type
cleanliness

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28
Q

what is submission rate?

A

the number of animals served that are eligible

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29
Q

what is first service submission rate?

A

the number of animals served in their first service out of their voluntary waiting period

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30
Q

what should the calving to first service interval be?

A

roughly 75 days

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31
Q

why is calving interval not a great KPI?

A

has to have had at least 2 calves for this to work (doesn’t work as a representation of the herd if lot of heifers are present)

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32
Q

what is conception rate?

A

percentage of animal that are pregnant that have been served

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33
Q

what are the advantages of early PD?

A

identify empty animals early to treat problem

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34
Q

what is preg rate a combination of?

A

conceptions rate and submission rate

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35
Q

what is preg rate?

A

number of cows pregnant that are eligible to be pregnant in a 3 week block

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36
Q

what should the inter service interval be?

A

3 weeks (time in-between each service)

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37
Q

how many days after fertilisation is the embryo implanted in embryo transfer cases?

A

day 7 (16 cell embryo)

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38
Q

what happens for maternal recognition of pregnancy?

A

the embryo implants and progesterone/oxytocin stay high meaning no prostaglandin is released by the uterus

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39
Q

what day does the embryo implant?

A

16 (days after fertilisation)

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40
Q

when does a pregnancy become visible using ultrasound?

A

around day 27

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41
Q

what is the trigger for calving?

A

calf (foetal stress response)

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42
Q

how does the calf trigger calving?

A

produces cortisol which helps the calves lungs develop and triggers the increased release or prostagladin and progesterone to trigger parturition

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43
Q

when in a cows life must resumption of cyclicity occur?

A

puberty
onset of seasonal breeding
recovery from NEB
post partum

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44
Q

what happens for a cow to resume cyclcity after calving?

A

increase in FSH stimulates first follicular wave 2 weeks post partum

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45
Q

what two hormones are low after calving?

A

progesterone and oestrogen

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46
Q

why may fertilisation fail or embryo losses occur?

A

poor AI technique/timing
poor oocyte quality/health
uterine environment
infectious agents
metabolic status of dam
genetic abnormalities

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47
Q

what is the biggest risk factor for uterine infection?

A

retained foetal membranes

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48
Q

what is metritis?

A

an abnormally enlarged uterus and purulent uterine discharge in the vagina within 21 days of parturition

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49
Q

what are the consequences of uterine infection?

A

damage to uterus
suppression of hypothalamic GnRH and pituitary LH secretion

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50
Q

what are the main pathogens causing uterine infection?

A

E. coli
Trueperella pyogenes
Dichelobacter nodosus
Fusobacterium necrophorum

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51
Q

what increases the risk of uterine infection?

A

multiparous
dystocia
abortion
retained foetal membranes

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52
Q

what is a grade 1 metritis?

A

enlarged uterus and purulent uterine discharge but no pyrexia or illness

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53
Q

what is a grade 2 metritis?

A

puerperal metritis - systemic illness with milk drop and pyrexia

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54
Q

what is grade 3 metritis?

A

toxaemic metritis - signs of toxaemia (cold and dull)

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55
Q

what is pyometra?

A

accumulation of purulent material within the uterine lumen in the presence of a corpus lute and closed cervix

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56
Q

what is used to treat pyometra?

A

prostaglandin

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57
Q

what is clinical endometritis defined as?

A

presence of purulent uterine discharge in the vagina at least 21 days post partum

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58
Q

what is done with cows that retain a mummified foetus?

A

cull (if valuable then collect eggs)

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59
Q

what is subclinical endometritis?

A

immune cells (neutrophils) present in uterus when flushed but not necessarily any bacteria present

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60
Q

what are the risk factors for subclinical endometritis?

A

negative energy balance/ketosis
metritis

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61
Q

what are the two types of ovarian cyst?

A

follicular
luteal

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62
Q

what is a follicular cyst?

A

follicle that has grown and not ovulates so continues to grow

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63
Q

what is a luteal cyst?

A

follicular cyst that lutenises

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64
Q

when are ovarian cysts most commonly seen?

A

in cattle less than 60 days in milk

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65
Q

when would an ovarian cyst not be treated?

A

if the animal is less than 30 days in milk (usually correct themselves with good nutrition and minimal stress)

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66
Q

what are some risk factors for ovarian cysts?

A

high milk production
negative energy balance and ketosis
older cattle
twinning and periparturient problems
excess BCS at drying off

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67
Q

what is the rule for determining if the corpus luteum or follicular cyst is the dominant structure?

A

if the corpus lute is greater than 2cm then the follicular cyst is hormonally inactive and all treatment is directed at the corpus luteum

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68
Q

what are the features of a follicular cyst?

A

thin wall (less than 3mm)
fluid filled (clear - no infection)
internal diameter >25mm
>10 day duration of follicle

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69
Q

what are the features of a luteal cyst?

A

luteinised follicular cyst
>25mm external diameter
thick wall >3mm
fluid filled lacuna

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70
Q

what does the thick wall of a luteal cyst indicate?

A

progesterone production

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71
Q

does a follicular or luteal cyst hair trabelulae?

A

luteal

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72
Q

what are the options for treating follicular cysts?

A

burst
GnRH
progesterone (PRID)
aspirate

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73
Q

how does GnRH treat a follicular cyst?

A

causes it to ovulate or lutenise

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74
Q

can you inseminate animals that come into heat after a follicular cyst?

A

no egg will be too old to be fertile

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75
Q

how is a luteal cyst treated?

A

prostaglandin

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76
Q

if unsure on whether a follicular or luteal cyst is present, what treatment is used?

A

progesterone device

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77
Q

what is the notifiable cause of abortion, which is the reason behind needing to report abortions?

A

brucellosis

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78
Q

what are the regulations behind brucellosis management?

A

all abortions must be reported in the UK
monthly routine bulk milk sampling

79
Q

why should we try to diagnose the causes of abortion?

A

economic importance
vaccination
zoonosis
venereal infections

80
Q

what are the two types of infectious causes of abortion?

A

primary agents - cross feet-maternal barrier
opportunistic - cross damaged barrier

81
Q

what are some tissue the can be targeted and cause abortion?

A

chorio-allantois
amnion
bone
soft tissue (lungs…)
endocrine gland (adrenal…)
foetal immune cells

82
Q

what is the definition of a primary abortive agent?

A

destroys integrity of feto-maternal unit (this may/may not cause abortion) allowing opportunistic pathogens to invade the placenta and foetus

83
Q

what are some primary infectious abortive agents?

A

Brucella abortus
BVD
Leptospirosis hardjo
Neospora
BHV-1
parainfluenza 3
Bacillus licheniformis
fungi

84
Q

what tissue do opportunistic (secondary) abortive pathogens target?

A

chorion and amnion

85
Q

what are the main secondary abortive pathogens?

A

Listeria
Leptospira
Salmonella dublin

86
Q

what are the three routes of infection of abortive agents?

A

resident flora of reproductive tract
transplanental
haematogenous

87
Q

what determines the response to an abortive agent?

A

when the infection occurs - if the foetal immune system is functional or not

88
Q

at what stage will infection with an abortive agent cause the animal to be born with a carrier status?

A

90-120 days of gestation

89
Q

what type of virus is infectious bovine rhinotracheitis?

A

herpesvirus (BHV1)

90
Q

will the reproductive and respiratory symptoms of IBR be present in the same herd?

A

highly unlikely

91
Q

when can vaccination be used for IBR?

A

protection in the face of an outbreak (outbreak of abortions)

92
Q

what is the most commonly diagnosed cause of abortion in cattle?

A

Neospora

93
Q

what are the ways Neospora can infect a cow?

A

ingestion of oocyst (exogenous)
transplacental (endogenous)

94
Q

how can neospora be diagnosed?

A

test calf at birth (show dam is infected)
histopathology of brain (dead foetus)
screen at drying off

95
Q

what are some ways of controlling Neospora?

A

keep dogs away from cattle feed and cleansing
cull seropositives
breed to beef
sexed semen

96
Q

what happens if BVD is caught in the first trimester (0-95 days)?

A

foetal resporption or abortion

97
Q

what happens in BVD is caught from day 95-120 of gestation?

A

immunotolerance (PI status of calf)

98
Q

what happens if BVD is caught from day 120 onwards of gestation?

A

seropositive calf with congenital lesions or aborted

99
Q

in terms of antibody and antigens, how would a PI BVD calf be described?

A

antibody negative and antigen positive

100
Q

what develops in PI animals with the cytopathic biotype of BVD?

A

can develop mucosal disease

101
Q

what are the clinical signs of mucosal disease?

A

ulceration of mucosa (tongue, soft palate, gingiva…)
ill thrift
diarrhoea

102
Q

what are the ways of diagnosing BVD?

A

quarterly bulk milk tank antibodies
PI in blood from one months (after MDA are gone)
ear notch test
antibody - check test of other animals in a group to see if PI is present

103
Q

how can BVD be controlled?

A

test and cull
biosecurity
avoid co grazing with sheep
vaccinate (protects pregnancy)

104
Q

where does Leptospira reside in the cow?

A

kidney (excreted for months/years in urine)

105
Q

why is control of leptospirosis so important?

A

zoonotic

106
Q

what are some clinical signs of leptospirosis?

A

(often unapparent and latent)
infertility, abortions, stillbirths, weak calves, retained foetal membranes, milk drop

107
Q

what is used to treat leptospirosis?

A

antibiotics - oxytetracycline, streptomycin
vaccinate before turnout

108
Q

what is the most common serovar of salmonella associated with bovine abortion?

A

S. dublin

109
Q

when is the ideal time to vaccinate for salmonella?

A

in the run up to calving (highest shedding around calving - stress!!!)

110
Q

what is the main abortive agent spread venereally?

A

Campylobacter fetus fetus

111
Q

how can Campylobacter fetus fetus be diagnosed?

A

preputial washing bulls and vaginal mucus aspiration of cows

112
Q

what is an uncommon cause of abortion spread by natural service? (eradicated in UK??)

A

Trichomonas fetus

113
Q

what can be recorded on post-mortem examination of aborted calves to help the pathologist?

A

crow rump length (age of death)
thyroid gland weight
fractures/haemorrhages
fluid compartment (-itis)
placentitis
liver rupture
meningeal haemorrhage and oedema

114
Q

what sample would be taken on post mortem of a post mortem suspected to be BVD?

A

spleen

115
Q

what sample would be taken on post mortem of a post mortem suspected to be IBR?

A

liver

116
Q

what sample would be taken on post mortem of a post mortem suspected to be of bacterial cause?

A

stomach content

117
Q

what sample would be taken on post mortem of a post mortem suspected to be leptospirosis?

A

kidney

118
Q

what sample would be taken on post mortem of a post mortem suspected to be neospora?

A

brain

119
Q

what sample would be taken on post mortem of a post mortem suspected to be fungal?

A

eye lid hair follicles (hyphae in hairs)

120
Q

what should always be taken from the dam and foetus when abortion has occurred?

A

bloods

121
Q

in lambs how big should the thyroid be in grams?

A

foetal weight divided by 2 to 3

122
Q

what does a large thyroid in lambs suggest?

A

iodine deficiency

123
Q

what antibodies can be tested for in bulk milk samples? (relating to abortion)

A

BVD, leptospirosis, IBR, neospora
(take care if vaccinating)

124
Q

what are the three fates of the first dominant follicle of a peri-parturient cow?

A

follicle ovulates
follicle turnover - new follicle rises
becomes cystic

125
Q

what is the relationship between milk yield and first service pregnancy rate?

A

inversely proportional (as yield increases pregnancy rate decreases)

126
Q

what consequences can milk fever have in terms of predisposing to other disease?

A

difficult calving
retained foetal membrane
endometritis
subclinical low calcium - poor fertility

127
Q

how does lameness effect the monitoring of heat in cattle?

A

less active - pedometers not so useful (less mounting…)
high proportion of vulva sniffing and chin resting

128
Q

what effect does mastitis have on ovulation?

A

cows take longer to ovulate when induced when they have a higher cell count (due to follicles taking longer to mature)

129
Q

if the cow is known to be lame or have mastitis how could we alter service?

A

possibility to serve them slightly later after induction

130
Q

what increases your chances of being a repeat breeder?

A

having uterine disease previously (or dystocia)

131
Q

what is a repeat breeder?

A

cow that gets served but doesn’t hold

132
Q

how does yield effect the standing oestrus signs?

A

decreases with high yielding cattle

133
Q

what is the first stage if labour?

A

dilation of cervix

134
Q

how long can the first stage of labour (cervix dilation) take?

A

3-6 hours

135
Q

what are some possible signs of the first stage of labour (cervix dilation)?

A

separated from herd
appetite decreases
restless (standing and lying alternates)
thick mucus string
abdominal straining (towards end)

136
Q

what is the second stage of labour?

A

delivery of the calf

137
Q

what is the sign that stage two of labour has began?

A

water bag (membranes) at vulva

138
Q

what is the third stage of labour?

A

expulsion of placenta

139
Q

when is a placenta classed as a retained foetal membrane?

A

if it isn’t expelled within 12 hours of calving

140
Q

what happens if you intervene in calving too early?

A

can prevent the cervix from fully dilating

141
Q

what is the earliest stage to intervene with calving?

A

if water bag has started showing and no progress has been made after an hour
if there is extreme discomfort
if there is significant bleeding

142
Q

what would be a potential problem if the calving cow has progressed to the second stage of labour after 6 hours?

A

twisted uterus

143
Q

if a calving cow doesn’t strain when you put your hand in, what does this suggest?

A

cow is hypocalcaemic (give calcium)

144
Q

what are some causes of dystocia?

A

malpresentation
foeto-maternal oversize
congenital abnormality
hydrops allantois
schmallenberg virus
primary inertia (hypocalcaemia)

145
Q

what is hydrops allantois?

A

a lot of fluid accumulation in the membranes

146
Q

when doing a vaginal examination of a calving cow, what must be examined?

A

lesions or haemorrhage
position of uterus and calf
relaxation/distention of vulva, vagina, cervix
signs of life
position of umbilical cord
likelihood of extraction of calf

147
Q

what are the 3R’s for approaching dystocia?

A

reposition
repulsion
rotation

148
Q

what is a good way to position the cow when calving?

A

downhill - uterus pushes towards diaphragm and gives you more room

149
Q

what is the best lubricant?

A

J-lube

150
Q

what can be used to relax the uterus?

A

clenbuterol

151
Q

what is the risk with placing calving ropes/chains above the fetlock?

A

higher risk of leg fracture

152
Q

what is the risk of placing calving ropes/chains below the fetlock?

A

higher risk of slipping off

153
Q

what is the ideal way to place calving ropes/chains?

A

loop above and below the fetlock

154
Q

how can you tell if a posterior positioned calf is going to be able to be calved per vaginum?

A

if the two limbs are able to be exteriorised past the hocks

155
Q

before pulling out a calf in posterior position, what must be checked?

A

the position of the umbilical cord

156
Q

what is episiotomy?

A

purposeful cutting of the vulva to allow more space for calving (uncommon in cows, can be seen done in heifers)

157
Q

what should be done before opting for an episiotomy?

A

manually stretch vulva lips with arms for about 20 minutes

158
Q

where is a cut made for an episiotomy?

A

10-11 o’clock or 1-2 o’clock

159
Q

what is required for an episiotomy?

A

caudal epidural
antibiotic cover

160
Q

what are some complications of episiotomy?

A

wound infection/breakdown
distorted vulva conformation - poor conception rates - pneumo-vaginum and uro-vaginum
weak point can effect ability to calve naturally in future

161
Q

when are full embryotomy/foetotomy indicated?

A

large dead calf
abnormal calf (foetal monster…)

162
Q

when is partial embryotomy/foetotomy indicated?

A

hip lock
head back - unable to correct and dead
leg back - unable to correct and back

163
Q

what are the methods of passing wire for a embryotomy/foetotomy?

A

passing
cleat

164
Q

what is the passing method for placing the wire for a embryotomy/foetotomy?

A

pass wire by hand around area of calf that is being removed
thread wire through each side of embryotome, tighten and check before sawing

165
Q

how is the head removed in a full embryotomy/foetotomy?

A

passing method cutting as caudally as possible

166
Q

once on leg and the head is taken off in a full embryotomy/foetotomy, what is done next?

A

keep one leg on, to allow to pull and give traction then remove as much of the trunk as possible then split the pelvis

167
Q

what are some complications fo embryotomy/foetotomy?

A

uterine, cervical, vaginal tears
retained foetal membranes
metritis
adhesion formation

168
Q

when do most uterine torsions occur?

A

at the onset of parturition (rather than during pregnancy)

169
Q

what are the risk factors for uterine torsion?

A

poor rumen fill
space in abdomen
hilly land
lots of standing/lying

170
Q

what direction do most uterine torsions occur?

A

anti-clockwise

171
Q

how do cows with uterine torsion present?

A

start calving but don’t progress
no straining (Fergusons reflex not triggered)
slightly raised tail
down/toxic

172
Q

what is found on examination of cattle with uterine torsion?

A

arm will corkscrew on vaginal exam
lip in front of cervix
palpate torsion (per rectum)

173
Q

what is the first way to attempt to correct uterine torsion?

A

swing the calf or twist a leg of the calf

174
Q

what are the ways of dealing with uterine torsion?

A

swing the calf
twist the calfs leg
roll the cow
caesarian

175
Q

what are some complications of uterine torsion?

A

high degree can lead to occluded blood supply and friable tissue
dead emphysematous calf and toxic cow

176
Q

what are the major indications of forced caesarians?

A

foetal oversizing or maternal disproportions
irreducible uterine torsion
insufficient cervical dilation

177
Q

what are some minor indications of forced caesarian?

A

foetal malpresentation
abnormal calf
dead/emphysematous calf (embryotomy not feasible)
constricted vagina and vestibulum

178
Q

what are some reasons for an elective caesarian?

A

double muscled breeds and embryo transfer calves (not always in the UK)

179
Q

what anaesthesia techniques can be used for a caesarian?

A

caudal epidural
paravertebral nerve block
line block or inverted L

180
Q

what is the most common anaesthetic used for caesarians?

A

clenbuterol

181
Q

where is an incision made for a caesarian?

A

left flank just below transverse process and behind last rib

182
Q

where is an incision made in the uterus during a caesarian in a cow with a normally presented calf?

A

greater curvature from hock to tip of toe

183
Q

what are some complications of caesarians?

A

haemorrhage
peritonitis
localised adhesions
retained foetal membranes
metritis
wound infection/breakdown

184
Q

what is uterine prolapse commonly associated with?

A

hypocalcaemia

185
Q

what are quantitative genetics?

A

inheritance of traits that can be measured such as milk yield or muscle growth rates that can be influenced by several genes at different loci

186
Q

what effects quantitative traits of cattle?

A

genes and environment

187
Q

what is heritability?

A

part of the phenotypic variation that is due to the heritable gene effects

188
Q

what is a breeding value?

A

additive genetic merit of an animal

189
Q

how are breeding values predicted?

A

information from animals own performance and its relatives

190
Q

what does a breeding value of 0 mean?

A

they are average of the current population (mean)

191
Q

what effect does the bovine leucocyte adhesion deficiency have?

A

fewer neutrophils get into tissue to fight infection

192
Q

what are the clinical signs of bovine leucocyte adhesion deficiency?

A

oral ulcers, gingivitis, pneumonia, chronic diarrhoea
death due to infectious complications

193
Q

what is PLI in relation to genetics?

A

profitable lifetime index

Farm (year 4) (17 decks)

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