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Back up cards AAB > Serodeck_14196840 > Flashcards

Serodeck_14196840 Flashcards

1
Q

Person makes ab, immunized/infection, memory

A

active immunity

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2
Q

ab transferred to, no memory

A

passive immunity

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3
Q

nonspecific, no memoryskin,acid,PMNs, NK

A

Natural, innate

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4
Q

specific, memoryT/B cells (cytokines,ab)

A

Adaptive, acquired

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5
Q

Kind of immunity…viral,fungalintracellulartcell/lymphokinestype 4 delayed

A

cellular

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6
Q

type of immunitybacteria,phagocytosis,extracellulartype 1(immediate)type 2(ADCC)type 3 immune complex

A

humoral

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7
Q

4 things that make antigens more immunogenic

A

largecomplexprotein/polysaccharideforeign

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8
Q

4 subclasses of IgG

A

IgG 1,2,3,4

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9
Q

Immunoglobulin with highest concentration

A

IgG

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10
Q

Concen immunoglobulins high to low

A

G>A>M>D>E

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11
Q

Largest antibody

A

IgM

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12
Q

Pentamer, Jchain, fixes complement the best,1st to appear in neonates

A

igM

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13
Q

Immunoglobulin on mature cells

A

IgD

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14
Q

Immunoglobulin type 1 hypersensitivity, histamines

A

IgE

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15
Q

Monoclonal ab made by

A

immunizing mousecombining spleen cells w/myeloma cells

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16
Q

Hybridoma

A

plasma cell fused w/myeloma cells,make monoclonal abs

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17
Q

Most circulating lymphoid cells are… and are…%

A

Tcells, 80%

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18
Q

5 T cell surface markers

A

CD…2,3,4, 8,25

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19
Q

CD4 surface markers are… and release…

A

T helper, cytokines

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20
Q

CD3 surface markers are

A

associated w/TCR

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21
Q

CD2 surface markers

A

rosette w/SRBCs

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22
Q

2 Tcell surface markers that are regulatory cells that suppress immune response

A

CD4,25

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23
Q

CD8 is

A

cytotoxic

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24
Q

3 surface markers on B cells

A

CD 19,20,21

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25
Q

2 markers for NK cells

A

CD 16,56

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26
Q

cells that kill virus infected and tumor cells

A

NK

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27
Q

Normal T:B cell ratio

A

8:1

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28
Q

Normal T helper:Tcyto ratio

A

2:1

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29
Q

AIDs T helper:Tcyto

A

1:2

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30
Q

which pathway initiated by immune complexes (IgG/IgM)

A

classical

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31
Q

What consists of 21 proteins that controls inflammation, activates phagocytosis, opsonizes

A

complement

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32
Q

In complement what is the major chemotatic agent

A

C5a

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33
Q

classical complement proteins and order of binding

A

C: 1,4,2,3

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34
Q

Most abundant complement protein in both pathways

A

C3

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35
Q

Alternative complement is activated by

A

lipopolysaccharides, polysaccharides

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36
Q

Proteins involved in alternative pathway

A

C3Factors B/D, H/I

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37
Q

complement proteins of MAC

A

C56789

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38
Q

Name of soluble ag+ab forms lattice and visibe precipitate forms

A

precipitation

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39
Q

Double diffusion(ouchterlony),Single diffusion (radial),Immunoelectrophoresis,Immunofixation All are what kinds of rxns

A

precipitation

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40
Q

antigen excess is called

A

postzone

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41
Q

antibody excess is called

A

prozone

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42
Q

IgE mediated, histamine(Bee sting,hay fever,asthma) all are what type of hypersensitivity rxns

A

Type 1, anaphylatic, immediate

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43
Q

Ab-ag, Transfusion rxn,AIHA, Hashimoto, Goodpasture all are what type of hypersensitivity rxn

A

Type 2, ab-dependent cytotoxicity

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44
Q

immune complexes, RA, SLE, serum sickness all are what type hypersensitivity

A

Type 3 immunie complex

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45
Q

Type 2 is

A

antibody dependent

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46
Q

Type 1 is

A

anaphylatic, immediate

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47
Q

Type 3 is

A

immune complex

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48
Q

Type 4 is

A

delayed

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49
Q

TB, contact dermatitis, GVHD all are what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type 4 delayed

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50
Q

Two skin tests for allergyq

A

RIST,RAST

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51
Q

What test for IgE

A

ELISA

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52
Q

Eos/IgE in what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type 1, anaphylatic, immediate

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53
Q

natural active immunity seen in

A

infection

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54
Q

natural passive immunity seen in

A

maternal ab

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55
Q

2 primary lymphoid organs

A

thymusbone marrow

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56
Q

What type of immunity with skin,mucous,BF

A

natural

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57
Q

what kind of immunity with vaccines

A

specific immunityartificial active

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58
Q

adaptive immunity w/ab is called

A

humoral immunity

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59
Q

immunity inside infected cells

A

cell mediated

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60
Q

Plasma protein that activates complement systme of innate

A

properdin

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61
Q

enzyme that catalyzes destruction of cell walls of bacteria

A

lysozyme

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62
Q

signal protein release by cells due to virus

A

interferon

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63
Q

Subtance that stimulates cell locomotion/migration

A

chemotactic factor

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64
Q

Cell that kills tumor cells nonspecifically

A

NK

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65
Q

Have receptors that are specific for a tumor/microbe

A

cytotoxic cells

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66
Q

Combines to larger carriers to elicit immune response but doesn’t elicit on its own

A

hapten

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67
Q

Enhances immune response

A

adjuvant

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68
Q

molecule that can elicit an immune response

A

immunogen

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69
Q

3 secondary lymphoid organs

A

spleen,tonsils,lymph nodes

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70
Q

Which 2nd lymph organs respond to antigens by making lymphocytes and plasma cells

A

lymph nodes contain WBCSspleen makes WBCs,ab

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71
Q

cell that specifically kills tumor cells/virally infectedneeds exposure

A

T cytotoxic

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72
Q

cell nonspecifically kills tumorinnate/no need exposure

A

NK

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73
Q

Phagocytosis is main function of what cell

A

PMNs

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74
Q

Genes that control expresson of HLA antigens are called

A

MHCmajor histocompatibility complex

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75
Q

3 Class I gene products

A

HLAA,B,C

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76
Q

5 Class II gene productspresent antigen outside of the cell of T lymphs

A

HLAD-M,O,P,Q,R

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77
Q

Ab increases during convalescence phase(symptoms disappear, return to normal)

A

IgG

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78
Q

Ig…best precipitinsoluble ag/specific ab

A

IgG

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79
Q

Ig..best agglutinin

A

IgM

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80
Q

has 4 subclasses

A

IgG

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81
Q

Ig…dimer

A

IgA

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82
Q

2 Ig…monomer

A

IgG, E

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83
Q

Ig…pentamer

A

IgM

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84
Q

2 Ig have Jchain

A

IgM, A

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85
Q

complement are heat…

A

labile

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86
Q

complement acts as an…and end result of complement is…

A

opsonincell lysis

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87
Q

Which ab bind complement

A

IgG/M

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88
Q

First component to bind to immunoglobulin in recognition phase of complementcan bind bacteria,ab,CRP

A

C1q

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89
Q

Proteases of complement that don’t bind/aren’t active

A

Clr/s

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90
Q

Complement component that is chemotactic and anaphylatoxicis released to recruit phagocytes

A

C5a

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91
Q

Factor B,D and properdin is in what pathway

A

alternate

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92
Q

IgG ab binds to rbc and is reversible is called

A

sensitization

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93
Q

clumping ag w/ab after sensitization is called

A

agglutination (IgM best)

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94
Q

Antigen in agglutination inhibition is…which is bound to

A

Pt serumab reagent

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95
Q

Positive test for aggulutination inhibition

A

no aggglutionationPT has antigen(in serum) and reagent ab is bound to serum/antigen so it can’t react with indicator

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96
Q

Negative test for agglutination inhibition

A

agglutinationPT doesn’t have antigen in serum, and reagent ab isn’t bound thus reacting w/indicator

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97
Q

Two examples of agglutionation inhibition tests

A

hemaggutination inhibition (rubella)latex agglutination inhibition (viruses)

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98
Q

complement fixation positive test is

A

no hemolysisno C available, complement is fixed, not available to combine w/indicator (SRBC coated w/antiSRBC)

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99
Q

complement fixation negative test

A

hemolysiscomplement not bound, reacts w/indicator(SRBC/antiSRBC)

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100
Q

What type of rxn/test is ab-ag combined in presence of complement to see if hemolysis occursdetects IgM ab w/sheep RBC/antiSRBC/hemolysin

A

complement fixation (CF)

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101
Q

single immunodiffusion also called

A

radial immunodiffusion (RID)

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102
Q

Rxn where diffusion occures and a ring of precipitate forms on an agar plate with ab where serum/standards are added

A

Radial immunodiffusion(RID)Single immunodiffusion

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103
Q

Fahey(kinetic) and Mancini(end pt) are what kind of tests

A

RID/immunodiffusion/precipitaition

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104
Q

Another name for double diffusion

A

Ouchterlony

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105
Q

Test used to determine relationship between ag-ab Ab is added around ab well and diffussion occurs with precipitation bandsConcentration and rate of diffusion dictates location of bandsUsed to id ab w/autoimmune disorders

A

doulbe diffusion/ouchterlony

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106
Q

Double diffusion pattern that fuse together is

A

identity

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107
Q

double diffusion patter than intersect are

A

nonidentity

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108
Q

double diffusion patterns that parially intersect are

A

partial identity

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109
Q

Test where ab-ag diffuse thru agar after serum proteins are electrophoresed on agar

A

immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)

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110
Q

Serum IEP can detect

A

monoclonal gammopathies

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111
Q

urine IEP can dectect

A

Bence Jones protein or free light chains

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112
Q

protein electrophoresis plus immunoprecipitation is called

A

immunofixation

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113
Q

Immunofixation is used to classify

A

monoclonal gammoopathies/determine heavy and light chains

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114
Q

name of test where ab-ag migrate toward each other and forms precipitate

A

countercurrent immunoelectrophoresisCIE

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115
Q

Two examples of RIA, radioimmunoassay

A

RIST, RAST

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116
Q

Which RIA measures total IgE

A

RISTradioimmunosorbent test

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117
Q

which RIA measures IgE to specific allergens

A

RASTradioallergosorbent test

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118
Q

Which test is a sanwhich tecnique with ab on solidPT serum addedenzyme labeled abenzyme substrate

A

EIA/ELISA enzyme immunoassay

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119
Q

HIV/Serum HcG/hepatitis mreausred by

A

EIA/ELISA

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120
Q

EMIT measuresenzyme multiplied immunoassay

A

small molecules like drugs, hormones

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121
Q

Positive EMIT is

A

color

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122
Q

Negative EMIT is

A

no color

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123
Q

Test where insoluble complexes reflects scattered light

A

nephleometry

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124
Q

ANA and FTA-Abs can be tested with

A

immunofluorescencefluorescein labeled ab

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125
Q

Positive FPIA

A

reduction of polarized light

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126
Q

negative FPIA

A

increased polarized light

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127
Q

FPIA stands for

A

Fluorescence polarization immunoassay

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128
Q

Time frame to test for infectious disease

A

acute and convalescent specimens 2weeks apart

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129
Q

Clinically sig titer for infectious disease is

A

4-fold or 2 tube rise

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130
Q

Ability of test to detect very small amount of a substancwe

A

sensitivity

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131
Q

ability of test to give positive result if PT has the disease-less false neg

A

sensitivity

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132
Q

ability of test to detect substance without interference from cross reacting substances

A

specificity

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133
Q

ability of test to give neg result if PT does not have disease-less false pos

A

speficity

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134
Q

Name of principle where if person has ab to virus, the virus on the RBCs added will be neutralized and inhibit agglutination

A

hemaaglutination inhibition

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135
Q

ab of allergically hypersensitive people

A

reagin

136
Q

fusing B lymphs w/a plasma myeloma cell is how you make

A

monoclonal ab

137
Q

binding strength of single sitesingle antigenic determinent + individual ab

A

affinity

138
Q

total binding strength, multivalent ag-b

A

avidity

139
Q

one dimensional single electroimmunodiffusion also called

A

rocket electrophoresisLAUREL

140
Q

fluorochrome that gives less false reading

A

fuoresceinisothiocyanate

141
Q

fluorochrome gives off red at 580nm

A

tetra-methylthodamineisothicyanate

142
Q

The nontreponemal antigens in syphilis are

A

cardiolipin and lecithin

143
Q

The VDRL antigens are

A

cardiolipin and lecithin

144
Q

Nontreonemal antibody

A

reagin

145
Q

Ab-ag rxn in VDRL test is what type

A

flocculation

146
Q

Which requires heat inactivation, VDRL or RPR

A

VDRL

147
Q

antigens for RPR

A

cardiolipin + charcoal

148
Q

reactive RPR forms

A

black clumps

149
Q

two nontreponemal tests/reagin tests

A

VDRL/RPR

150
Q

Reiter strain serves as a …. in FTA-ABS

A

absorbent, removes nonspecific ab

151
Q

In FTA-ABS, what strain is used with serum after absorbed off

A

Nichols

152
Q

Name of test1.)Absorb ab, Reiter2.)At Nichols, serum3.)label, fluorescein

A

FTAfluorescent treponemal ab absorption

153
Q

most sensitive tests for syphillis

A

FTS-ABS and EIisa

154
Q

Not reactive in primary,secondary syphillis in which test

A

MHA-TP

155
Q

Test name that detects treponemal abremove nonspecific ab w/sorbent, react serum w/Nichols strain of pallidium, add fluorecein label

A

FTA-ABsfluorescent treponemal ab absorptoin test

156
Q

Test you add live treponemes to PT serum

A

TPItreponema pallidium immobilization testp

157
Q

positive TPI

A

treponemes immobilized

158
Q

MHA-TP used to detect

A

ab to T.pallidium

159
Q

in MHA TP what is PT serum added to

A

SRBCs sensitized w/T.pallidum

160
Q

positive MHA TP

A

agglutination, ab

161
Q

TP-PA uses what kind of particles

A

gellatin

162
Q

Which microflocculation test is screen for CSF syphillis

A

VDRL

163
Q

Whici microflocculation test for syphillis does not require heat

A

RPR

164
Q

Virus that causes infectious mononucleosis

A

EBVepstein barr virus

165
Q

What does the screen for EBV test for

A

heterophile ab

166
Q

What is a positive rxn for EBV using the screening rapid diff slide test

A

greater agg in kidney absorbed cells

167
Q

What are the indicator cells for the EBV screen rapid diff slide test

A

Sheep, RBCs

168
Q

What is the confirmation test for EBV

A

Tests for ab such as ELISA, CLIA

169
Q

In CLIA test to confirm EBV, what stage of infection is it when there is a presesnce of IgG/IgM + anti-VCA in absense of anti-EBNA

A

current or recent

170
Q

anti-VCA IgM/IgGanti-EAanti-EBNA all are antibodies to what virus

A

EBV

171
Q

Anti-EBNA and IgG anti-VCA w/out IgM anti-VCA indicate what stage of infection of EBV

A

past

172
Q

Name 5 streptococal ag

A

streptolysin, streptokinaseDNase, NADaseHyaluronidase

173
Q

Streptozyme test:Kind of rxn, what it tests for, reagent used

A

hemagglutionationtests for abSRBC

174
Q

Name of specific neutralizaton test for antibody made in group A strep infection

A

Anti-DNase B test

175
Q

What is a positve rxn in the anti-DNase B test

A

green color

176
Q

Test name where strep abs prevent the lysing of group O rbcs by neutralizing

A

Anti-streptolysin O neutralization test

177
Q

What indicates presence neutralizing ab in the anti-strepolysin O neutralizing test

A

Dilution of last tube shows no hemolysis

178
Q

Name of reciprocal of dilution of last tube in anti-streptolysin O neutralization test

A

Todd units

179
Q

Two tests for strep A antigens

A

LFA Molecular testing for DNA

180
Q

What is used to screen for HIV-1 ab

A

ELISA

181
Q

2 ways to Confirmation for HIV

A

Western blotNucleic acid testing

182
Q

Name of retrovirus that attackes CD4 cells

A

HIV-1

183
Q

Cause of CMV

A

herpes virus

184
Q

Testing for CMV

A

ELISA

185
Q

HepB serology involved in acute phase

A

HBsAg, HBeAg

186
Q

Hep B serology involved in early recovery

A

anti-HBc IgM

187
Q

Hep B serology involved in recovery, immunity

A

anti-HBc totalanti-HBsanti-HBe

188
Q

Hep A serology recent infection

A

anti-HAV IgM

189
Q

Order of Hepatitis B ag/ab

A

HBsAg, HBeAgantiHBc, antiHBe, antiHBs

190
Q

Paul Bunnell heterophil ab test uses what type of rbc

A

sheep

191
Q

Paul Bunnell heterophil ab used to detect

A

ab from IM

192
Q

Forssman ab are absorbed by what kind of kidney antigen

A

guinea pig

193
Q

Davidsohn diff test uses what kind of rbc

A

sheep and horse

194
Q

Which antigen is the somatic antigen used to determine antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria

A

O

195
Q

which antigen is the flagellar antigen

A

H

196
Q

Widal test tests for what

A

Salmonella typhi

197
Q

An elevated O titer in the Widal test indicates

A

increase in agglutinins to S.typhi

198
Q

Weil-Felix test detects ab to

A

Rickettsia

199
Q

Proteus,OX19-2, agglutination all have to do with what organism

A

rickettsia

200
Q

What kinds of strains are OX19 and OX2 antigens

A

strains of Proteus vulgaris

201
Q

Widal(typhoid) and Weil-Felix (Rikettsial) detect

A

febrile agglutinins

202
Q

Francisella tularensis will cross react with

A

Brucella abortusF.t./B.a.

203
Q

To diagnose aspergillosis, titer must be

A

1:512

204
Q

India Ink is replacing what test…

A

cryptococcal antigen t est

205
Q

What inferes w/crytococcal antigen latex agg test

A

RF

206
Q

autoimmune disease where IgM/IgG ab are directed against Fc portion of IgG

A

RA

207
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is RA, what is formed

A

Type 3 immune complexes

208
Q

what does screening test, RF assay for RA detect

A

serum IgM

209
Q

Confirmatory test for RA

A

anti-CCPcyclic citrullinated peptide

210
Q

Screen test for autoimmune dieases

A

ELISA

211
Q

Two tests for ANA are

A

ELISAIIFindirect immunofluorescence

212
Q

Antinuclear antibodies are seen in what conditions

A

SLESjogrensSclerodermaRAMCTD

213
Q

In IIF for ANA what cells are fixed to a slide

A

HEp2 cells

214
Q

Disease where autoab to myelin sheath of nerves/myelin basic protein

A

MS

215
Q

In MS, what kind of bands are in CSF but not in serum

A

oligoclonal IgG

216
Q

Disease name in hyperthyroidism

A

Graves Disease

217
Q

Disease where autoab are directed against TSH receptors (TSH-R)

A

Graves, hyperthyroidism

218
Q

In Graves disease what are TSHs and T3/T4 levels

A

Low TSHIncreased T3/T4

219
Q

3 ab elevated in Graves

A

TPOTSHR-ab/TR-AbTSI

220
Q

Graves disease symptoms

A

anxiousweight loss goiter

221
Q

Name of disease with hypothyroidism

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis

222
Q

Autoab made against thyroglobulin

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis

223
Q

In Hashimotos, what are the TSH levels

A

increased TSH

224
Q

In Hashimotos, what ab are present

A

TPOTg/Tg-Ab

225
Q

Symptoms of Hashimotos

A

TiredWeight gainintolerance to cold

226
Q

IMBurkitts, Hodgkin’sCarcinomaLymproloferative all associated with

A

EBV

227
Q

Lab finding in IM

A

Lymphocytosis>50%20% atypicalHetetophile abAb EBV ag

228
Q

Name of ab formed against Forssman ag (discovered in guinea pig tissue)

A

Forssman hetetophile ab

229
Q

IM hetetophile ab are usually Ig…Can react to which 3 rbcs…Absorbed by…Not absorbed by…

A

IgMHorse, sheep, ox rbcsAdsorbed by beef rbcNot adsorbed by guinea pig kidney cells

230
Q

Name of test screens for hetetophile ab using titer of abIncubated with sheep RBCHighest dilution of agglutination

A

Paul Bunnell test

231
Q

Paul Bunnell test titer needs to be

A

> 56

232
Q

Performed when Paul Bunnell is >56

A

Davidsohn diff test

233
Q

True false, Paul Bunnell diff between hetetophile ab

A

False

234
Q

Test that diff hetetophile ab, uses sheep RBC

A

Davidsohn diff test

235
Q

Sig titer in Davidsohn

A

> 224

236
Q

Which cells are used in Davidsohn diff test…

A

Guinea pig kidney cellsBeef rbc

237
Q

Which cells removes Forssman and serum sickness ab..Which cells are agglutinated by them…

A

Removed by Guinea pig kidney cellsAgglutination by beef

238
Q

Which cells remove serum sickness and IM ab…Which cells agglutinate them

A

Beef rbcs remove IM abGuinea agglutinate IM ab

239
Q

Ab adsorbed by only guinea kidney cells not beef rbc

A

Forssman abThus not able to agg the guinea kidney

240
Q

Ab adsorbed by both guinea and beef

A

Serum sickness, thus not able to agg either

241
Q

Ab adsorbed by only beef not guinea

A

IM, thus not able to agg beef

242
Q

Adsorption Fossman, Serum, IM

A

Adsorbed on…Fossman: guinea pig kidneyIM: beef rbcSerum sickness: both

243
Q

Agglutination: Fossman, Serum, IM

A

Agglutination Fossman: beef rbcIM: guinea pigSerum sickness: none

244
Q

2 EBV antigens in early acute phase

A

EAR, EAD (restricted,nuclear)(diffuse, nucleus, cytoplasm)

245
Q

2 EBV late phase antigens

A

VCA (viral capsid)MA (membrane)

246
Q

2 latent phase antigens EBV

A

EBNALMP

247
Q

PT sero neg, lacks ab to VCA they are

A

Susceptible to EBV

248
Q

Has IgM to VCA, EBNA absentHigh IgG VCA is what stage of infection

A

Primary infection

249
Q

Ab to EBNA, increased EA ab what stage of EBV

A

Reactivation

250
Q

Ab to VCA and EBNA what stage

A

Past infection

251
Q

E-rosette test used to enermurate

A

T lymphs

252
Q

Disease that is hypersensitive to gliadin/gluten

A

Celiac disease/sprue

253
Q

4 ab to test for celieac

A

tTG IgA,GEMA-IgAAGA-IgG

254
Q

2 HLA markers in all celiac

A

HLA-DQ 2, 8

255
Q

Disease where autoab directed against TSH receptors

A

Graves

256
Q

Disease where autoab directed against basement mebrane of kidney and lungs

A

Goodpastures

257
Q

Disease where autoab directed against thyroglobulin

A

Hashimotos

258
Q

Disease where autoab directed against myeline sheath of nerves or myelin basic protein

A

MS

259
Q

Disease where autoab directed against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular joints

A

MGmyasthenia gravis

260
Q

Disease where IgM autoab directed against Fc portion of IgG

A

RA

261
Q

Disease where autoab directed against salivary duct,tear duct

A

SJogrens syndrome

262
Q

ANA centromere pattern associated with

A

CREST

263
Q

Nucleolar ANA pattern associated with these two diseases

A

SclerodermaCTD connective tissue

264
Q

SLE ANA patterns

A

Peripheral(rim)Homogenous(diffuse)

265
Q

What is used in diagnosing, determining progression, choosing drugs, monitoring diseases

A

tumor markers

266
Q

Tumor markers tested using

A

ELISA

267
Q

AFP, Alpha Fetoprotein associated with these 3 cancers/organs

A

liverovary, testes

268
Q

CEA, carcinoembryonic ag associated with these three cancer/organs

A

colonbreastlung

269
Q

CA 15-3 associated with this cancer/organ

A

breast

270
Q

4 Breast tumor markers

A

CA-15-3CEABR 27-29Estsrogen/Progesterone receptors

271
Q

2 ovary tumor markers

A

CA 125AFP

272
Q

CA 125 what organ/tumor marker

A

ovary

273
Q

CA 19-9 what organ/tumor marker

A

pancreas

274
Q

2 testes/testicular markers1 prostate

A

HCGAFPPSA

275
Q

Beta-2 microglobulin marker for

A

MM, CLL

276
Q

Disease with ineffective phagocytosis, defect in neutrophils thus recurrent bacterial infections

A

CGDchronic granulomatous

277
Q

Disease with impaired neutrophil function

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

278
Q

T cell deficiency disease, no thymus

A

DiGeorge’s syndrome

279
Q

Decreased TH, TH/TS ratio/Tcell proliferation

A

HIV

280
Q

Partial combined immunodef, thrombocytopenia at birth

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

281
Q

Complete or marked def of T and B

A

SCIDsevere combined immunodef

282
Q

Name of test where dilute serum is added to latex coated AHG to detect ag against IgG

A

RF latex slide test

283
Q

Which test…detects IgM, positive doesn’t agg, is a screen, and synovial fluid can be a source

A

RF factor latex

284
Q

Anti-RNP indicates

A

Mixed connective tissue disease

285
Q

Ab to proteins in centromere of chromosome indicates…

A

CREST

286
Q

anti-dsDNA or anti-histone indicates these two diseases…ANA pattern of…

A

SLEdrug induced lupusHomogenous/diffuse

287
Q

anti-ds DNA highly suggestive of…has a ANA pattern of…

A

SLEPeripheral/rim

288
Q

Anti-RNA, anti-ENA has what ANA pattern…Associated w/most but not…

A

speckelednot CREST

289
Q

2 Scleroderma ANA patterns

A

Nucleolarspeckled

290
Q

connective tissue ANA pattern

A

nucleoloar

291
Q

RA ANA pattern

A

speckled

292
Q

2 SLE pattern

A

peripheral/rim, homogenous/diffuse

293
Q

Anti-I ab seen in present infections with what ogranism

A

Mycoplasma penumoniae

294
Q

After infection with Myco pneumo, what forms

A

cold agglutinins

295
Q

Acute/chronic infection HB ag

A

HBsAg, HBeAg

296
Q

Vaccinated HB ab

A

anti-HBs

297
Q

early recovery HB…recovery HB…

A

early: antiHBcIgMrecovered: antiHBc,HBs,HBe

298
Q

HSV that can cause urogenital infections/genital herpes…which one more common in genital herpes

A

HSV 1,2HSV 2 is 90% of genital herpes

299
Q

HSV more related to sex, mom passing on, genital

A

HSV 2

300
Q

HSV more related to oral, break in skin

A

HSV 1

301
Q

HSV 3 is which virus

A

varicella zoster virus

302
Q

How to type HSV with high specificity

A

ELIAA

303
Q

Serotype HSV with

A

DFAdirect fluoresecent ab

304
Q

Cause of chicken pox, spread thru respiratory, spreads to blood, skin and lays dormant in nerves

A

Varicella zoster virus

305
Q

Latent varicella zoster turns into

A

Herpes Zoster, shingles

306
Q

Serological test for VZV

A

ELIAA

307
Q

CMV is diagnosed serologically by detecting

A

IgM and IgG ab

308
Q

IgM ab with 4 fold increased in IgG indicates what stage of CMV

A

active

309
Q

IgG, no IgM ab indicates what stage of disease in CMV

A

inactive

310
Q

Which virus attacks monos/grans/lymphs/episis spread by STI, tranplant tissue, thru placenta

A

CMV

311
Q

Why is indirect immunofluorescence not a great test for CMV

A

Has false positives

312
Q

Screening test for immunity to rubella

A

IgG ab

313
Q

Serological test for rubella, VZV, HSV, and T.gondii

A

ELIAAenzyme linked immunosorbent assay

314
Q

Serological test for T.gondii is called

A

ELIAAIgG, IgE

315
Q

Mantoux skin/TB test type of hypersensitivity

A

Type 4 delayed

316
Q

Type III rxn due to

A

immune complexes

317
Q

Type II due to

A

antibody, transfusion, AIHA

318
Q

Type I due to

A

anaphylactic

319
Q

Ataxia telangiectasia

A

Louis bargenetic, nervous, immuneataxia

320
Q

Brutons aggamaglobulinemia

A

sex linked immunodef, absense of plasma cells thus lack of ab made

321
Q

Tcell subset enumeration by flow cytometry can be used in what syndrome

A

DiGeorgethey have no thymus, tcell def

322
Q

West nile caused by

A

arbovirus, bite from mosquito (female culex) that feed on birds

323
Q

Virus that Can attach immune cells, can make BBB more impermeable

A

WNV

324
Q

Serologic method for WNV

A

IgM ab

325
Q

Giardia common in

A

water, water parks, vegetables

326
Q

Diagnositc forms of Giardia

A

in fecesinfective is cysttroph

327
Q

Diagnosis Giardia thru 3 ways

A

fecal ag test, EIA/direct IFAexamine stool cyst/trophbiopsy troph

328
Q

Lyme diease caused by vector/organism

A

ticks, Borrelia

329
Q

2 step testing Serological testing for Lyme

A

1.)EIA2.)Western blot

330
Q

Tick that spreads B.Burgdorferi

A

Ixodes tick, deer

331
Q

Which Borrelia is in US and causes lyme disease

A

B.Burgdorferi

332
Q

Serological diagnosis of Lyme

A

ELISA

333
Q

Crytosporidium parvum infectious stage

A

sporulated oocyst

334
Q

How is C.parvum transmitted

A

oocyst is ingested from fecal contam food etcdiarrhea, AIDs

335
Q

Testing for C.parvum

A

PCR, Antigen, NAATStool not so sensitive, acid fast stain

336
Q

Cryptococus

A

soil, pidgeon droppingsinhalationnarrow based buddingindia ink, halos formlatex agg test for ag PCAAIDs,lung infections, meningitis

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