Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Back up cards AAB > AABHeme2.3.24 > Flashcards

AABHeme2.3.24 Flashcards

1
Q

3 main sites of hematopoesis during conception and early fetal months

A

yolk sac, liver, spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adult Bones Hematopoesis, acrynom

A

SSPRVSkull, SternumPelvis, Ribs, Vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Heme needs these two things

A

iron and protoporhyrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Protein that transports Fe

A

transferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Major storage form of iron

A

Ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Long term storage of insoluble Fe

A

Hemosiderin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Enzyme def w/build up of heme precursors is called

A

porhyrias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

While in the DELTA, POR UR COP PRONTO a cup of HEME

A

Heme Precursors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hmg F % in newborns versus adults

A

newborn 60-90adults 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hmg A in adultsversus newborns

A

adults 97newborns 10-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hmg A2 in both adults and newborns

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gower I/II, Portland Hmg in…Hmg F in…Hmg S in…

A

embryonicboth newborn and adultnot normal, sickle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In Hmg oxy diss curve, oxygen is released or not released in a shift to the left

A

not releasedNo, won’t let go

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In Hmg oxy diss curve, oxygen is released or not released in a shift to the right

A

releasedwon’t hold tight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

To determine Hmg, the oxidation of hmg to methmg is done with these two reagents

A

K-CN and K-Ferric-CNCyanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HCT % NVMale Female

A

Female 37-47Male 42-52

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diluent used for WBC/PLT CT

A

1% Ammonium Oxalate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MCV formula

A

HCT/RBC x 10volume/cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MCV NV

A

80-100fL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MCH formula

A

HGB/RBC x 10hmg/cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MCH NV

A

27-31pg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MCHC formula

A

HGB/HCT x 100concentration=always smaller number at top and percentagehmg/volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MCHC NV

A

32-36 g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

RDW NV

A

11.5-14.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

RBC reffemalemale

A

female 3.8-5.2male 4.5-6.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Seg ref

A

45-70About 1/2-2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Lymp ref

A

20-40About a quarter almost 2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

mono ref

A

3-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

baso

A

0-2, least

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

eos

A

0-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

plt ref

A

150-400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Romanowsky stain also called

A

Wright stain, Giesma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

4 things in wrights stain

A

-methanol-phosphate buffer-eosin, methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Calculation of absolute values

A

Relative% x total cell ct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TB, Syphilis, Malignancies associated with what kind of cell

A

monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils ass with what kind of anemia

A

megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hyposegmented neu ass with

A

pelger huet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

bacterial infections, burns, chemo ass with what 2 white cell morphologies

A

toxic granulation and vaculoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bacterial infections, burns, and May Hegglin ass with what white cell morph

A

Dohle bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Varient lymphs ass with

A

IM, viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

WBC correct calculation for NRBCS

A

wbc x100/100 + nrbcs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Abetalipoproteinemia and severe liver disease ass with what rbc shape

A

acanthocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

uremia and artifacts cause what kind of rbc shape

A

echinocyte, burr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

DIC causes what rbc shape

A

shisto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HJ bodies composed of

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Baso stip composed of

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pappenheimber bodies made of

A

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Heinz bodies made of

A

denatured precipitated hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

cabot ring made of

A

left over mitotic spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which rbc inclusion is not seen with wright stain

A

Heinz bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Heinz bodies ass with what deficiency

A

G6PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Kind of rbc inclusion with thall and lead

A

baso stip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Rule of 3

A

RBC x 3=Hmgx3=Hct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Increased MCV/MCHC and decreased RBC are ass with

A

cold agg disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What replaces glutamic acid in the 6th position of the beta chain in Hmg C

A

Lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What replaces glutamic acid in the 6th position of the beta chain in Hmg S

A

Valine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hmg A1 chains

A

2 alpha2 beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hmg A2 chains

A

2 alpha2 delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Hmg F chains

A

2 alpha2 gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Order from fastest to slowest in cellulose acetate at pH 8.4 (as opposed to citrate 6.2)

A

A, F, S, C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Two reagents usedin solubility test of Hmg S

A

saponin and sodium dithionite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

ESR Female

A

0-20mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ESR male

A

0-15mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ESR show increase in these two plasma proteins

A

fibrinogen and globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

decrease temp, old, excess EDTA ESR…

A

decrease ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

supravital Stain for retic ct

A

new methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Retic ct monitors

A

etrythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Retic ct % calculation

A

retics/10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Absolute retic

A

RBCs x retic%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

corrected retic ct (corrects for HCT)

A

retic % x PT HCT/45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

retic ref

A

0.5-1.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

RPI calculation

A

corrected retic/maturation time of 2need retic # and HCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

M:E ratio

A

3:1-4:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Stain for bone marrow

A

romanowsky, same for wrights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Cellulose acetate ph8.6, cathode/slowest to fastest/anode

A

-C, S, F, A+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Cellulose acetate ph8.6, anode/fastest to slowest/cathode

A

+A, F, S, C-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Citrate agar ph6.2 anode to cathode

A

+C,S,A,F-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Hmg D seen in what race, migrates with

A

East indian, S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Hmg E seen with what race, migrates with

A

Southeast asian, C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Hmg G seen with what race, migrates with

A

African, S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Reducing agent in qualitative screen for Sickle Dex, solubility test

A

sodium di-thionite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

In solubility test, what is added to lyse the RBC to release the hmg…what is added to reduce the hmg…

A

saponin lysessodium dithionite reduces it to become deoxygenated and insoluble; will precipitate out of phosphate buffer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What confirms s positive sickle screen

A

hmg electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which electrophoresis separates S

A

citrate agar ph6.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Lead and Thall trait are what kind of anemias

A

microcytic/hypochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

IDA and letter phase of anemia of Chronic disease what kind of anemia

A

micro/hypoInitially anemia of chronic is normal,normo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

In IDA, all Iron studies are low except for

A

TIBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Three causes of macrocytic anemia

A

B12 def, folate defliver disease/alcholism (B12, folate def)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does G6PD have that PK doesn’t

A

Heinz bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

G6PD def and HbH uses this stain/prep

A

Heinz body prepUse as a nonspecific screen for hemolysis due to drugs/toxins, enzyme deficiencies, thalassemias, and unstable hemoglobins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Test for PCH, IgG, Anti-P Biphasic

A

Donath Landsteiner TEst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Condition with large Azurophilic granules, mucooplysaccharies (Hunter, Hurler)

A

Alder Reily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Condition with large lysosomes/fushion of primary granules

A

Chediak-Higashi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Condition with large PLTs, decreased PLTS, Dohle bodies in seg/mono/lymph

A

MayHegglin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Condition with hyposegmented polys

A

PelgerHuet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Dry tap is seen in which condition

A

primary myelofibrosismyeloid metaplasia: is a disorder in which normal bone marrow tissue is gradually replaced with a fibrous scar-like material. Over time, this leads to progressive bone marrow failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Decreased LAP, Ph chromosome in what condition

A

CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

JAK2 seen in what condition

A

Polycythemia Vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which reaction has toxic granules and Dohle bodies

A

Leukemoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

WHO acute leukemia how many blasts in BM

A

> 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Leukemia seen with soccer ball nucleus lymphs

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Lymphoma associated with EBV, HIV

A

BurkittBurkitt lymphoma (BL) is an aggressive non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Lymphoma associated with Reed Sternberg cell

A

Hodgkin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Myeloma with bone involvement, IgG and Bence Jones in urine

A

Multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Condition with IgM, increased serum viscosity and normal bone

A

Waldenstrom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Prussion blue stains

A

iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

LAP in CML

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

LAP in Leukamoid rxn

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

TRAP tartrate-resistant ACID PHOSPHATASE for what condition

A

Hairy cell leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Auer rods in

A

AMLacute myeloid leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

BM macrophages have wrinkled/striated cyto with accumulation of glucocerebrosidease

A

Gaucher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

BM macrophages w/globular or foamy cyto, sea-blue histiocytes with sphingomyelinaseNeimann-Pick is a disease in which excess material is stored inside cells (metabolic storage disease). These cells are referred to as foam cells because of their foamy or soap-suds appearance

A

Niemann-Pick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Stain for AML, myelogenous cells for nonspecific/specific granules/fats…

A

Sudan black BOil red O stains neutral lipids and is replacing SSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Stain for glycogen deposits in liver, fungi, and blasts in ALL, stains lymphoblasts not myeloblasts

A

PASperiodic acid-Schiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is added to stabilize WBC when there’s smudge cells causing WBC cts to not match

A

22% bovine albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

DF of PLT CT with sodium citrate

A

1.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Which inclusion isn’t stained with WRights

A

Heinz bodies, uses NMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Peroxidase stains which cell lines..not…

A

Myelogenous: myelos, monosNot lymphs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

NASDA/Naf used for which leukemiaaddition of Naf makes monos become negative

A

AMMLacute myelol, mono

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

PAS pos in

A

ALLacute not chronic lymphoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

TRAP pos for whic leukemia

A

hairy cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

3 names for NRBCs, last nucleated rbc

A

metarubricyteOrthochromic normoblastOrthochromic erythroblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

2 names for retic

A

reticulocytepolychromatophilic erythrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

1.)Rubriblast2.)Pro-rubricyte3.)Rubricyte4.)Meta-rubricyte/NRBC5.)Reticulocyte6.)RBC

A

1.)Pro-2.)Basophilic-3.)Polychromatophilic-4.)Orthochromic- -normoblast5.)Polychromatophillic erythrocyte6.)RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Male Hmg

A

14-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

female hmg

A

12-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

neonate hmg

A

19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

toddler hmg

A

11-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

IDAiron, ferritin…TIBC/transferrin…size, color…

A

iron lowferritin lowTIBC/transferin highmicro, hypo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Anemia of chroniciron, TIBC…ferritin…size, color…

A

iron/TIBC lowferritin highNormo, normo at firstmicro, hypo later on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

5 micro, hypo anemias

A

IDA, anemia of chronic(can become)sidero, leadthall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

4 macrocytic anemia

A

B12, folateliver, alcoholism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

2 names for target

A

codocyte, leptocyte

134
Q

Target, baso stip, tears in

A

thallasemia

135
Q

sugar water test, sucrose hemolysis, and acidified serum test associated with

A

PCHParoxysmal cold

136
Q

Smudge cells seen in which leukemia

A

CLL

137
Q

increased sml, mature lymphs and smudge what leukemia

A

CLL

138
Q

Condition with giant, bizarre PLTs, NRBCs, teardrop, pancytopenia It causes scarring of the bone marrow which makes it more difficult to produce blood cells causing pancytopenia.It is one of a group of conditions called myeloproliferative neoplasms or myeloproliferative disorders.

A

myelofibrosis

139
Q

Condition that’s a subtype of AML, PLTs and WBC decreasedA subtype of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) that is distinguished by erythroblastic proliferation. Patients usually present with nonspecific signs and symptoms from the anemia, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia resulting from the replacement of bone marrow by leukemic cells

A

erythroleukemia

140
Q

Sydrome where decrease in alpha granules and there is a release in proteins that cause myelofibrosisAn inherited bleeding disorder characterized by macro-thrombocytopenia and absence of platelet α-granules resulting in typical gray platelets on peripheral smears. It is associated with a bleeding tendency, myelofibrosis, and splenomegaly

A

gray PLT syndrome

141
Q

Factor 12 actived by

A

subendothelium

142
Q

Vik K dependent factors and what group

A

2,7,9,10 Prothrombin

143
Q

Factors in fibrinogen group

A

1,3,5,8-13

144
Q

Factors in contact group

A

11,12PK,HMWK

145
Q

Serine proteases:-are vit K dependent -include two factors from contact group

A

2,7, 9,10 (vit K dep)and11,12

146
Q

70% of PLTs are in the…30% PLTs are in the…

A

70 % blood30 % in spleenMost in blood, rest in spleen

147
Q

Adhesion requires what factor

A

VWF

148
Q

is a platelet agonist that causes platelet shape change and aggregation

A

Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

149
Q

What links the PLTs together after being stimulated by ADP

A

fibrinogen

150
Q

What inhibits active plasmin

A

alpha 2 plasmin inhibitor

151
Q

Action of plasmin on fibrin. Breaks… Into these 4…

A

cleaves fibrin into X, Y, D, E fragments

152
Q

3 clot busters

A

streptkinaseurokinaseTPA

153
Q

WB:anticoag ratio

A

9:1

154
Q

Screen for extrinsic/common, monifors oral anticoag like warfarin/coumarin

A

PT

155
Q

PT ref…INR ref goal…

A

<13 secINR. 2.0-3.5

156
Q

Screen for intrinsic,commonmonitors heparin

A

APTT

157
Q

APTT ref range

A

20-40sec

158
Q

Fibrinogen factor and ref range

A

Factor 1200-400 mg/dL

159
Q

Coag test that doesn’t measure intrinsic/extrinsic but is affected by decreased fibrinogen levels and heparin

A

TT

160
Q

TT ref

A

<20sec

161
Q

Coag test that measures PLT fnc/#s

A

BT

162
Q

PFA measures PLT fnc with theses three aggregating agents

A

collagen, ADP, epi

163
Q

Rapid dissolution of clot indicates increased fibrinolytic activity in this condition

A

DIC

164
Q

Aspirin inhibits 2ndary wave of aggregation by destroying….

A

cyclooxygenase

165
Q

Two adhesion disorders that have abnormal ristocetin agg

A

BSvWD

166
Q

BS is differentiated from vWD by these two things related to PLTs

A

BS has decreased PLTS and giant PLTS

167
Q

PLT disorder with normal PLT #/morph but abnormal aggregation and abnormal with all aggregating agents

A

Glanzmann

168
Q

DRVVT activates factor… and is prolonged in presence of this anticoagluant

A

Factor 10Lupus anticoag

169
Q

Assay that monitors LMWH

A

anti-factor 10a

170
Q

Test similar to TT, uses snke venom enzyme,and is not inhibited by heparin

A

Reptilase time

171
Q

Repitilase time ref

A

18-22sec

172
Q

Another name for primary myelofibrosis

A

myeloid metaplasia

173
Q

Myeloid metaplasia can have increased… and thus have…Primary myelofibrosis/myeloid metaplasia (MF) is a chronic blood cancer in which excessive scar tissue forms in the bone marrow and impairs its ability to produce normal blood cells

A

increased uric acid and have gout

174
Q

BM condition where theres increased plasma cells, marked roleaux, and relative/absolute lymphocytosis

A

WMWaldenstroms macrobulemia

175
Q

Kind of leukemia with B cell neoplasms, increase in small/mature lymphs, and smudge cells

A

CLLchronic lymphocytic leukemia

176
Q

Leukemia with no peroxidase activity and positive PAS

A

ALL

177
Q

Leukemia with increased baso/eos in early stages

A

CML

178
Q

Xa-Vaphospholipid-Ca complex is called what

A

prothrombinase complex

179
Q

What cleaves fibrin into soluble fragments X/Y,D/E

A

plasmin

180
Q

Which protein inhibitor inactivates/degrades F5,8?

A

Protein C

181
Q

Which protein is a cofactor and accelerates Protein C

A

Protein S

182
Q

Which factors are inactivated by Protein C

A

Factor 5,8

183
Q

Which protein is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system and inhibits plasmin

A

alpha 2 antiplasmin

184
Q

What is the principal inhibitor that neuralizes thrombin, F10, and all serine proteases?

A

antithrombin III

185
Q

Most frequently acquired inherited inhibitor leading to factor deficiency?

A

anti-8APTT mixing study to testusually w/Hem A/B therapy

186
Q

Which inhibitor inactivates coag factors thru phospholipids

A

lupus like anticoaglupus anticoagprolong APTT, no factor def or bleeding

187
Q

What is the cause of 25yr old male who has a normal PT and INR, but an increased APTT thats not corrected by a mixing study

A

circulating anticoagulant possibly lupus anticoag

188
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder with decreased F9/vWF, prolonged APTT, and normal PLT CT

A

vWDissue isn’t with number of PLT but can’t adhere to collagen

189
Q

DDAVP and cryo used to treat

A

vWD

190
Q

Trauma, prego issues, liver disease/hepatitis, cancer/leukemia, sepsis, drugs all can cause

A

DIC

191
Q

PT/INR, PTT, D-dimer all increased and fibrinogen decreased in

A

DIC

192
Q

PT/INR, PTT slight increase with slight decrease in fibrinogen is

A

liver disease

193
Q

2 labile coag factors

A

5,8

194
Q

plasma fibrinogen nv

A

200-400mg/dl

195
Q

Xmas factor

A

9IX

196
Q

hereditary condition with decreased PLT production and Dohle bodies

A

May Hegglin anomaly

197
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura has less PLTs due to…

A

PLT destruction

198
Q

VWD, Glanzmann, aspirin all have what kind of PLT counts

A

normal

199
Q

BS has what kind of PLT CT

A

decreased

200
Q

vWD and BS are what kind of PLT issue

A

adhesion

201
Q

Glanzmann and aspirin cause what kind of PLT issue

A

aggregation

202
Q

F7 def test

A

PT, extrinsic

203
Q

What tests 1,2,5,8,9,10,11,12

A

APTT

204
Q

Test monitors heparin, FSP, fibrinogen issues

A

TT

205
Q

Hemo associated w/F11 and Jews

A

Hemo C

206
Q

Hemo ass. w/8, men

A

Hemo A

207
Q

Hemo ass. w/9, men

A

Hemo B

208
Q

Factor def detected with 5M urea test

A

F13

209
Q

Most common specific factor inhibitor, APTT mixing studies

A

F8 inhibitor

210
Q

Mutant Factor V, resists action of protein c/s

A

factor v leiden

211
Q

drug that blocks ADP receptor(P2Y12)

A

PlavixClopidogrel

212
Q

Drug that inhibits VitK, monitored w/PT/INR

A

Wafarin

213
Q

Drug that inhibits serine protease via AT, monitored with APTT

A

Heparin unfractionated

214
Q

Drug that targets F10a, doesn’t require monitoring

A

LMWH

215
Q

Chains in Gower 1

A

2 zeta, 2 epsilon

216
Q

Chain in Gower 2

A

2 alpha, 2 epsilon

217
Q

Portland chains

A

2 zeta, 2 gamma

218
Q

RBC count calc if 5 squares

A

RBCxDF/0.02

219
Q

Volume of single RBC square

A

0.04

220
Q

Total volume of 5 RBC squares

A

0.2

221
Q

Depth of hemocytometer

A

0.1

222
Q

4 things affect hmg/cause falsely high

A

LipemicIctericHigh WBC Lyse resistant hmg SS, CCaffects the absorption of hmg

223
Q

Hmg composed of…heme, iron, globin

A

4 globulins, 4 heme inside with 4 iron

224
Q

Defect in heme synthesis leads to

A

porphyria

225
Q

1.)disorder in amino structure2.)disorder in # globulin chains3.)disorder of heme synthesis

A

1.)amino sub: hmg-pathy2.)# globulin chains: thall3.)heme: porphyria

226
Q

methmg-cytochrome C reductase keeps…

A

iron the ferrous statekeeps it reduced

227
Q

when iron in hmg is oxidized to the ferric state, it becomes…

A

methmg

228
Q

hmg with 200x affinity for oxygen than hmg has

A

carboxyhmg (carbon monoxide)

229
Q

type of hmg that carries iron in ferrous/reduced state

A

oxyhmgcan carry oxygen

230
Q

type of hmg that can’t transport oxygen; irreversible oxidation by drugs

A

sulfhmg

231
Q

type of hmg that is in ferric state, cannot bind oxygen, but is reversible

A

met hmg

232
Q

Ferric state of iron is in this hmg

A

methmg

233
Q

cyanmethmg used to

A

measure hmgcyanmethmg w/K cyanide, ferricyanide

234
Q

Of these three, which on is irreversible…carboxyhmg, methmg, sulfhmg

A

sulfhmg

235
Q

Hmg that becomes insoluble under lowered oxygen tension

A

Hmg Sit sickles

236
Q

In hmg C, what replaces glutamic acid…what position…what chain…shape of crystal in hmg C…

A

lysine6th position of beta chainrod shaped, washington monument

237
Q

what kind of RBC inclusion seen in lead and thall

A

basophillic stippling

238
Q

what kind of inclusion in rbc seen in G6PD def

A

Heinz bodies

239
Q

Hmg F made of 2…2…

A

2 alpha, 2 gamma

240
Q

Hmg A1 made of 2..2…

A

2 alpha, 2 beta

241
Q

Hmg A2 made of 2…2..

A

2 alpha, 2 delta

242
Q

Gower 2 made of 2…2…

A

2 alpha, 2 epsilon

243
Q

Gower 1 made of 2..2…

A

2 zeta, 2 epsilon

244
Q

Portland made of 2…2..

A

2 zeta, 2 gamma

245
Q

Hmg resistant to alkali denaturation

A

Hmg F

246
Q

Kleihauer Betke screens for what hmg…Can differentiate between…and….

A

hmg FA1 from Fadult from fetal

247
Q

Hmg D seen in what race…migrates with…

A

East Indianmigrates with S

248
Q

D can be separated from S with … … at ph…

A

cellulose acetate at ph 8.6

249
Q

Only hmg not measured by cyanmethmg

A

sulfhmg

250
Q

Drabkins sln is used to determine…in the …..method

A

hmg in cyanmethmg methodf

251
Q

Hmg in WB..Hmg in plasma..

A

WB 14-16 g/dLplasma 2-3 mg/dL (up to 5)

252
Q

Free hmg binds to…

A

haptoglobin

253
Q

In HA:RBC, hmg, hct are…haptoglobin is…indirect bili is…

A

RBC,hmg,hct are decreasedhaptoglobin is decreased/used upindirect bili is increased, increased hmg but doesn’t get to liver

254
Q

HA is what kind of anemia

A

normo, normosudden, doesn’t have enough time to affect size/color yet

255
Q

What reagent do you saturate specimen with to separate myoglobin from hmg

A

ammonium sulfate

256
Q

PACKED rbc VOLUME is also called

A

hematocrit

257
Q

3 factors that influence degree of packing during centrifugation

A

radius, speed, time

258
Q

WBC are found in what part of spun hematocrit…where is the packed rbc % read from….

A

wbc buffy coatread packed rbc below buffy

259
Q

How do these affect ESR/rate:acute infectionsrouleauxmacrocytesMM,Waldstrom Manemia vibrations/tilting/increased temp

A

all increase, make fall faster, rate/mm is biggerbigger cells=fall fasteranemia=less cells, fall fasterproteins/ab fall faster

260
Q

How do these affect ESR/rate:microcytes, sperocytessickle cellspolycythemiaold specimen, decreased temp, EDTA increased

A

all decrease, fall less, smaller rate/mm

261
Q

RBC cell count calculation

A

RBCs x DF/total vol sq x depth(0.1)ie. 5 small squareseach square is 0.2x0.2=0.4,x5 squares=0.2

262
Q

CSF has 285 rbc in 5 squares, dilute 1:100cell ct

A

285 x 100/0.2 x 0.1 =28500/0.021,425,000

263
Q

method where cells pass thru aperture increasing resistance of electrical flow between electrodes making a pulse

A

electrical impedance

264
Q

Name of principle that uses laminar flow and hydrodynamic focusing to characterize cells based on granularity and reflectivity

A

laser light scatterlaser is focused at angles

265
Q

3 things used to created scatter plots, one that isnt

A

scatter, volume, conductivityfluorsence isn’t used for the scatter plot

266
Q

NRBC and lrg PLTs will increase

A

WBCgranularity counted as WBC

267
Q

Shistocytes will…rbc # but …PLTs #

A

decrease rbc, increase PLT ctcounted as PLTs instead of RBC

268
Q

WBC 6.5RBC 1.69HGB 9.1HCT 22.8MCV 135.0MCH 53.8MCHC 39.9what is cause

A

cold agg,RBC/HCT decreasedMCV, MCH, MCHC increased

269
Q

DF for PLT ct when using sodium citrate instead of EDTA

A

1.1

270
Q

Adding 22% bovine albumin to hematology specimen will prevent…cells by…WBCs

A

will prevent smudge cells by stabilizing WBC

271
Q

Action if cryoglobulin or cold agg cause issues

A

incubate 37C 15min

272
Q

manual WBC ct on hemacytometer can help count …WBC from… ….. leukemia patients

A

count fragiles WBCs from pseudoleukopenic patients

273
Q

lipemic specin, can perform a .. …

A

saline replacement

274
Q

hyperglycemia:MCV is…red cell color is…

A

MCV is normalcolor is hypochromic

275
Q

WBC ct calc

A

WBC x DF/vol sq x depth 0.1Each sq 1mm

276
Q

WBC ct 50, 8squares, 1:100 dil

A

50x 100/(8x1)x0.16250

277
Q

Wright stain:fixative…adjust color by adusting… of ….

A

methanolcolor change with ph of buffer

278
Q

Giesma can stain which organism

A

malarial parasites

279
Q

Cannot be stained with wrights, needs to use NMB

A

Heinz bodies

280
Q

Stain that stains both nonspecific and specific granules in myelogenous cells

A

SBBsudan black Bmyeloblasts, not lymphoblasts

281
Q

Stain for granulocytes, monocytes but not lymphs

A

MPOmyelo-peroxidase

282
Q

leptocyte is also these two

A

Target, codocyte

283
Q

Most immature RBC, 3 names

A

RubriblastPro-erythroblast/normoblast

284
Q

2nd RBC after most immature, 3 names

A

ProrubricyteBasophilic- erythroblast/normoblast

285
Q

Rubricyte, comes after…Two other names…

A

Comes after ProrubricyteRubricyte is also calledpolychromatic- erythroblast/normoblast

286
Q

Last stage RBC with nucleus, 3 names

A

MetarubricyteOrthochromic -erythroblast/normoblast

287
Q

NASDA 3+, NaF 1+ what leukemia

A

AMMLacute myelo mono

288
Q

Leukemia where blasts stain PAS pos

A

ALLlymphoblasticlymphs not myelo, acute not chronic

289
Q

Best stain for neutral lipids

A

Oil red Obetter than sudan black b as it is more red/visible

290
Q

LAP stands for…differentiates these two…which is incresed, decreased…

A

leukocyte alkaline phosphataseleukomoid increasedCML decreased

291
Q

stain that is positive in hairy cell leukemia

A

TRAPtarte resistantacid phosphatase (not alkaline phosphatase)

292
Q

MOST reliable criterion for cells age

A

nuclear chromatin

293
Q

Last cell to retain nucleus before becoming erythrocyte/NRBC two names

A

metarubricyte, orthochromatic normoblast

294
Q

toddler hmg range…female…male range…Neonate hmg range…

A

toddler has the least: 16female: 12-15male: 14-18neonate has the most: 16-22

295
Q

anemia based off three things

A

rbc, hmg, hct

296
Q

reticulocytosis is….due to…

A

polychromatophillic due to residual RNA

297
Q

3 things seen in IDA:size, color, shape

A

micro,hypopoikilocytosis

298
Q

condition with low ferrin/iron, hight TIBC/transferrin

A

IDA

299
Q

condition with hight ferrtin, low iron/TIBC/transferrin

A

anemia of chronic

300
Q

cell seen in:-thallasemia-liver disease-postsplenectomy

A

target

301
Q

aggregated RNA in RBC causes

A

basophilic stippling

302
Q

best supravital stain for RNA remnants

A

NMB

303
Q

RBC ironstained granules stained with PB..stained with wrights…

A

siderocytespappemheimer

304
Q

increased iron in the mitochondria of normoblasts is seen in what anemia

A

sideroblastic anemia

305
Q

3 cells seen in thallasemia

A

targets, tearsbasophilic stippling

306
Q

3 main causes of macrocytic anemia

A

B12/folate def (d.latum, taperworm B12)liver/alcoholism

307
Q

4 main causes of micro,hypo anemia

A

IDA, anemia of chronic in later stagessideroblastic, lead

308
Q

Megaloblastic anemia:WBC seen in BM…3 things seen in smear…

A

BM: giant metamyelocytessmear: oval macro, hyperseg, less PLTsMegalo: big not small Anemia: less

309
Q

Hereditary disease where osmotic fragility and autohemolysis are normal…Hereditary disease where osmotic fragility is increased…

A

elliptocytosisspherocytosis

310
Q

PNH:3 testsPCH:1 test

A

PNH: sugar, sucrose, acidifiedPCH: Donath Landsteiner

311
Q

Most common thallasemia in US

A

beta thall MINOR

312
Q

Disorder with enzyme defect in aerobic glycolysis

A

G6PD

313
Q

Pancytopenia seen in this anemia

A

aplastic

314
Q

Panhyperplasia of BM seen in

A

polycythemia vera

315
Q

Leukemiaviral infectionchemoWBC will be….

A

decreasedleukemia: sick cells push out good cellsviral: HIV chemo: kill

316
Q

euchormatindarker cytonucleolinonspecific granules charasteristic in…

A

immature blood cells*most characteristic of immature is euchromatin

317
Q

Light blue endoplasmic reticulum found in neutrophilsseen in infections, burns, MayHegglin

A

Dohle bodies

318
Q

nonspecific primary granules in…specific secondary granules in…

A

non/primary: promyelocytespecific/secon: myelocyte

319
Q

Order of myeloid…1-6

A

1.)Myeloblast2.)Promyelocyte3.)Myelocyte4.)Metamyelocyte5.)Band6.)Seg

320
Q

WBC NV most to least…

A

Seg 50-70Lymph 20-40Mono 3-10Eos 0-3Baso 0-2

321
Q

Largest leukocyte in blood…Largest cell in BM:

A

monomegakaryo

322
Q

Inclusions of blue black, coarse mucopolysaccharide granulesHurlers/Hunters

A

Alder Reilly

323
Q

Giant PLTs, Dohle bodiesdecreased PLTs

A

May Hegglin

324
Q

giant lysosomal granules, defective PLTs/WBCs,albinism

A

Chediak Higashi

325
Q

Things that can be seen with….are shift to left, vacuolization, Dohle bodies

A

toxic granulation

326
Q

In lupus, what cell phagocytizes the nucleoprotein

A

neutrophil

327
Q

monocyte/histiocyte thats engulfed nuclear material

A

tart cell

328
Q

cell that neutraphil/macrophage engulfed denatured nuclear

A

LE cell

329
Q

cell that is plasma cell with russell bodies

A

Mott cells

330
Q

reactive leukocytosis occurs when absolute granulocyte count is >…

A

7.0 x10^9/L

331
Q

Smudge cells seen in this leukemia but not in this

A

seen in CLL not in acute

Back up cards AAB (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions