Microdeck_14431061 (1) Flashcards

1
Q

TSA w/sheep blood, diff w/hemolysis, most nonfastidious bacteria

A

SBA Sheep blood agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Isolation of Haemophilus and Neisseria, factors X &V, incubated at increased CO2But best for…Neisseria gonnerhea better on…

A

CHOC, chocolate agarBetter for HaemophilusBest for gonnerhea and meningitis is modified thayer martin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CHOC supplies which factors and is incubated with increased what?

A

X, V, increased CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Columbia colistin-nalidixic acid agar, CNAisolates…suppresses…

A

isolates GPsuppresses GN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Phenyl ethyl alcohol agarPEAisolates for … and …inhibits

A

isolates GPC and anaerobic GNRinhibits enteric GNR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PEA

A

Phenyl ethyl alcohol agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Columbia colistin-nalidixic acid agar

A

CNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

EMB

A

eosin methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

EMB, isolates…inhibits….LF are … To … E.coli what kind of color…

A

isolates enteric GNRinhibits GPLF are green-black to purpleE.coli have a green metallic sheen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MACisolates…inhibits…LF color…

A

isolates enteric GNRinhibits GP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

bile salts and crystal violet that inhibit most GP are in what medium

A

MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SMACsorbitol MacConkey isolates……doesn’t ferment sorbitol and are colorless

A

E.coli 0157:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4 medias for isolation of salmonella and shigella

A

SS, HE, XLD, GN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hektoen enteric (HE) isolates these twoinhibits

A

Salmonella and shigellainhibits normal GI flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

XLD

A

xylose lysine deoxycholate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cold loving, optimum temp 15C

A

psychrophiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

moderate temp, 37C most pathogenic organisms

A

mesophiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

heat loving, 50-60C

A

thermophiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

obligate anaerobes are harmed by

A

O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Facultative anaerobes can grow…

A

with or w/out O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

microaerophiles prefer

A

lower O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

capnophiles prefer

A

higher CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Aerotolerant

A

do not need O2, and not hurt by it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Typical incubation CO2% temp/name of ideal temphumidity

A

5-10% CO235-37C/98.6F/optiumum50-70% humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Autoclave lbs, mins, temp

A

15lbs, 15min, 121C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

QC for wet sterilization/autoclave

A

Bacillusstearothermophilus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Two halogens that are disinfectants

A

idoine and chlorine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Process that inactivates or inhibits microbes (not spores)and example

A

disinfectionBleach (1:10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Process that kills all microbes including sporesand examples

A

sterilizationautoclaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Penicillin

A

beta lactaminhibits cell wells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Gram neg anaerobe resistant to peniciilin

A

B.fragilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Two antibiotics best indicators for poor disk storage

A

penicilin and methicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Vancomycin is drug of choice for these two microbes

A

C.difficile and MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Vancomycin is a

A

glycopoeptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Kirby-Bauer Method uses what agar

A

MHMueller-Hinton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

McFarland is what concentration and how many organisms

A

0.510*8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

MIC

A

minimum inhibitory concentrationlowest concentration that prevents growthfirst dilution w/no growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MBC

A

minimum bacteristatic concentrationlowest concentration results in >99.9% killing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

E-test

A

MIC on a stick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Modified Thayer-Martin good for these two

A

N.gonorrhea and N.meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Thayer Martin media is what kind of agar

A

enriched chocolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Difference between TM and Modified

A

MTM has trimethroprim lactate which inhibits swarming of Proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Middlebrook 7H10 and Lowenstein-Jenson good forWhich one best for observing microscopically

A

MycobacteriumMiddlebrook 7H11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Species for QC of dry heat oven

A

B.subtilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

BBE good for

A

B.fragilisBacteroides Bile Esculin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

CCFA Cycloserine-Cefoxitinfor

A

C.difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Regan-Lowe andBordet-Gengou for…which one preferred…

A

B.pertussisRegan-Lowe preferred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

BCYEbuffered charcoal yeast extract for

A

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cystine-Tellurite, Tinsdale and Loefflers Medium

A

C.diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Never refridgerate these 3

A

CSF, anaerobic and GC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Blood culture preped with…draw before…dilution/ml

A

prep with alcohol, iodinedraw before fever spike1:10 dilution, 10mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

2 Stains for acid fast/mycobacteriabest of the two…

A

Kinyoun and Ziehl-NielsonKinyoun

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Calcofluor white stains…KOH is used to…

A

stains yeast/fungiKOH breaks down debris and mucous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Gram stainprimary stain, decolorizer, mordant and counterstain

A

Crystal violetacohol/acetoneiodinesafranin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

JEMBEC plates used to

A

transport and grow N.gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Modified Thayer-Martin, Martin LewisNYC, GC-LECT,JEMBEC isolate

A

N.gonorrhoeae and meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Two species of enterobacteriaceae that are nonmotile

A

shigella and klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Species of enterobacteriaceae that is both motile and nonmotile at diff temps

A

Yersinia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Two genuses that form spore

A

Bacillus and clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Disinfectant for walls/floors that doesn’t kill spores/myco/noneveloped

A

quarternary ammoniums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Phenol

A

disinfectant, doesn’t kill spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

2% aqueous glutaraldehyde

A

used when items can’t be sterlized by heatcold sterlization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sodium polyanethod sulfonate (SPS)

A

used to grow bacteria by preventing clotting, phagocytosis and bactericial effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Urethral contamination of urine is greather than Squamous epis/hpf

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Resistance to penicillin should be tested for

A

beta lactamase production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

beta-lactamase test that uses nitrocefin and there is hydrolysis of the beta lactim ring resulting in red color

A

Chromogenic cephalosporin metodor Nitrocefin test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Tests beta lactamase w/penicillin-pheno red substrate leading to color change from red to yellow to penicilloic acid

A

Acidimetric method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Test for beta lactamase where betalactamse hydroyze penicillin G and reduce iodine, resulting in fading of blue to colorless

A

Iodometric method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Potassium tellurite used to id

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Potassium tellurite inhibits…color of C.diph

A

gp/gn nornal floragray black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Loeffler serum agar enhances these two things for C.diph

A

pleomorphism and metachromatic granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Elek test detects toxin for

A

C.diph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

TCBSthiosulfate citrate bile salts used for

A

Vibrio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

2 kinds of alpha heme

A

s.pneumoviridians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

3 kinds of beta heme

A

Group A, BL.mono

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

1 gamma heme

A

enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

GPC resistant to bacitracin

A

Staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Cause of toxic shock and food poisoning

A

S.aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Staph that is nonheme and common cause of hospital aquired UTI

A

S.epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

staph that is mostly novobiocin sensitive

A

CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Antibiotic disk that diff between CNS and S.saproS.Sapro versus CNS susceptibility

A

NovobiocinAll CNS suspectible to Novobiocinexcept S.sapro is resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Strain of CNS that is resistant to novobiocin

A

S.sapro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Pigmented, high domed large GPC

A

micrococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Test that diff staph versus strep

A

catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Mannitol salt agar, MSA selects for

A

S.aureus, pos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

90% of strep, cause of rheumatic fever, scarlet fever

A

Group A StrepS.pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Strep that is sensitive to BacitracinHow many units on disks

A

Group A strepS.pyogenes0.02-0.04

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Strep NF of female genital and cause of neonatal issues

A

Group B strepS.agalactiaae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Diff Group A from B with what antibiotic…which one is which

A

BacitracinGroup A is sensitiveGroup B is resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Strep that is hippurate poss and CAMP pos (shows arrowhead)

A

group B strepS.agalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

beta Strep that is PYR pos

A

Grp A strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Non heme strep that causes nosocomial UTI and hydrolyzes esculin

A

Group D Strepnonenterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

two examples of Group D strep

A

S.bovis, S.gallolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Used to be called strep, alpha/non heme, hydrolyzes esculin and grows in NaCL

A

enteroccouccus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Two oval GPC organisms that can cause nosocomial UTI, is in GI, and hydrolyze esculin

A

Group D and enterocccocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What diff Group D and enterococci

A

Enterococcus grows in NaCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

GPC lancet shaped, alpha heme, encapsulated normal in uppper respiratory

A

S.pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Strep that is sensitive to Optochin

A

S.pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

P disk is called

A

Optochin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Strep that is sensitive to optochin and is bile soluble

A

S.pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

2 Tests that diff S.pneumo from viridiansWhich one is pos for both

A

optochin and bile solubilityS.pneumo posviridians neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Group F

A

microaerophillicS.milleri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

GPC that has butterscotch odor

A

microaerophillics.milleri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Large GPC that are nonpatho, in environment/skin, pigmented and microdase pos

A

micrococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Antibiotic that will kill MRSA

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Two genera with GN dipplococci and oxidase pos

A

Neisseria, Moraxella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

GNDC coffee bean shaped, oxidase pos,

A

Neisseria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

GNDC that ferments glucose only

A

N.gonn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

GNDC that is uppe respir, ferments both glucose and maltose

A

N.meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

GNDC of upper respiratory in kids, ferments all glucose, maltose and lactose

A

N.lactamica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Organism that causes upper respiratory, otitis media, hockey puck colonies

A

M.cattarhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

GNDC that is neg for sugars, DNase pos, butyrate esterase pos

A

M.catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

3 oxidase pos GNDC

A

N.mening,gonnM.catt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

GNDC needs Co2, 48hrs to grow, ferments glucose only

A

N.gonn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

N.mening transmitted by…seen mostly in…ferments these two sugars…

A

respiratory dropskidsglucose, maltose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

These two test diff M.cat from Neisseria

A

DNase posbutyrate esterase pos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

M.cat seen in…

A

resp infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

spore forming GP rods

A

bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

4 nonspore forming GP rods

A

CLENCorynebacteriumLiseriaErysipelothrixNocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

CLEN acronym for nonspore forming GP rods

A

CorynebacteriumListeriaErysipelothrixNocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Gram variable/pos with clue cells, bacterial vaginosis

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

GPR that appears as chinese letters and has metachromatic granules

A

Corynebaceriumdiphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Which medium will help enhance metachromic granules in C.diphtheriae

A

Loefflers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Which GPR has metachromatic granules on Loefflers

A

C. diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Elek test tests for…in what organism

A

toxin productionC.diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Ingrient in Tinsdale agar and color change due to its hydrolysisorganism diff on this

A

telluriteblackC.diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

GPR with tumbling motility/umbrella motility at RT

A

L.monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

GPR with test tube brush growth in gelatin and cause of occupational infections for fisherman etc

A

Erysipelothrixrhuiopathiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

GPR spores, ground glass

A

Bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Bamboo shoots, medusa head

A

B.anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Bacillus that causes food poisoning due to fried rice toxin

A

B.cereus

132
Q

Most Bacillus are motile except for

A

B.anthracis

133
Q

GPR on skin/mucous, club shaped

A

Corynebacterium

134
Q

GPR grows on Loeffler, has metachromic granules, has TOX gene

A

Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae

135
Q

GPR that is hospital acquired, most commonly isolated diphtheroid

A

C.jeikeium

136
Q

GPR that can cause issues in newborns and food poisoning

A

L.mono

137
Q

GPR causing skin/lung infections and has sulfur granules

A

Nocardia

138
Q

Nocardia that causes skin infectionsq

A

N.brasiliensis

139
Q

Nocardia that causes lung infections

A

N.asteroides

140
Q

What diff L.mono fron diptheroids/corynebacterium

A

motility

141
Q

Another name for metachromatic granules

A

Babes-Ernst granules

142
Q

Potassium tellurite inhibits…

A

normal flora so that C..diph can grow

143
Q

GP to Gvariable cocco bacillius that can be grown in cold enrichment

A

L.mono

144
Q

Diptheroid that is NF in throat

A

C.pseudo-diphtheriticum

145
Q

Two tests to diff L.mono from Corynebacteriumwhich one pos/neg

A

motility and salicinL.mono: motile, salicin +Cory: nonmotile, salicin -

146
Q

What stain does mycobacteria use

A

acid fast, Kinyoun

147
Q

NALC and NaOH do what for mycobacteria

A

NALC liquefyNaOH digest/decontaminate

148
Q

Mycobacteria need to be incubated with…at…

A

with 5% CO2, at 35C

149
Q

Two mediums for mycobacteria, which one clear and can examine microscopically

A

Middlebrook 7H11: clear plateLowenstein-Jensen: green slant

150
Q

Tween 80 test diff and is pos inpos turns…neg is…

A

Myco kansasiipink/redamber

151
Q

What can distinguish M.tb from others

A

Nitrate and niacin

152
Q

Niacin and nitrate can differentiate these two mycobacteria

A

M.tbM.bovis

153
Q

M.tb is nicacin/nitate…M.bovis is niacin/nitrate…

A

tb is posbovis is neg

154
Q

Arylsulfatase test diff what genusArylsulfatase is an enzyme that splits free phenolphthalein from the tripotassium salt of phenolphthalein disulfite. The test for the identification of …. species is performed in a tube containing a substrate of phenolphthalein.

A

mycobacterium

155
Q

3 stains for acid fast

A

KinyounZiehl-NeelsenFluorochrome

156
Q

Primary stain, decolorizer, and counterstain in Kinyoun and Ziehl-Neelsen stains

A

Primary: carbolfuchsinDecolorizer: acid alcoholCounter: Methylene blue

157
Q

Primary stain, decolorizer, and counterstain in Fluorochrome stain for acid fast

A

Primary: Auramine-rhodaminedecolorizer: acid alcoholCounter: potassium permanganate

158
Q

Color of AFB on Kinyoun and Ziehl-Neelsen

A

red rods, blue backgroud

159
Q

Which acid fast stain requires heat

A

Ziehl-Neelson

160
Q

Which acid fast stain requires cold

A

Kinyoun

161
Q

Diagnostic test and source for M.leprae

A

acid fast tissue

162
Q

Hansens disease is also called

A

Leprosy

163
Q

Macrophages w/acid fast bacilli

A

lepra cells

164
Q

Lumpy jaw cause

A

A.israelii

165
Q

Actinomyces israeli is ana or aero

A

anaerobic

166
Q

GNR not NF, swimmers ear, Motile, grape like odorOxidase pos, cat pos

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

167
Q

GNR bacterial diarrhea, seagulls, darting corkskrew motility

A

Campybacterjejuni

168
Q

GNR ulcers, urea breath test

A

Helicobacter pylori

169
Q

GNR TCBS, rice water stools, motile, comma shaped

A

Vibrio cholerae

170
Q

GNCB upper respiratory, CHOC, can have capsules

A

H.influenze

171
Q

Haemophilus pink eye

A

aegyptius

172
Q

Haemophilus STD,chancroid, bipolar, schools of fish

A

ducreyi

173
Q

Haemophilus that require both X and V

A

influenze, aegyptius

174
Q

Haemophilus that requires only X (hemin)

A

ducreyi

175
Q

H.parahaemolyticus and parainfluenzae requires which factor

A

V

176
Q

GNR cause of trench fever, cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella

177
Q

GNCB obligate intracellular parasiteinhalation; with undulant fever, unpasterized milk, animals, bioterrism

A

Brucella

178
Q

GNCB tularemia/rabbit fever, level 3 pathogen

A

Francisella

179
Q

GNR from air conditioners, Pontiact fever, BCYE (needs cytsteine)

A

Legionella

180
Q

GNCB Pasterurella that is caused by bite/scratch, musty odor

A

multocida

181
Q

Legionella that is brown on Feeley-Gorman rion cysteine agar

A

L.pneumophila

182
Q

String test, positive result looks like

A

If the result is positive, the bacterial cells will be lysed by the sodium deoxycholate or Sodium taurocholate, the suspension will lose turbidity, and DNA will be released from the lysed cells causing the mixture to become viscous. A mucoid “string” is formed when an inoculating loop is drawn slowly away from the suspension.

183
Q

String test diff these three genuses and also diff these two species

A

Vibrio spp. from Aeromonas spp. and Plesiomonas shigelloides.Vibrio cholerae (string test positive) from other Vibrio spp. (string test negative).

184
Q

Vibrio that is yellow on TCBS, string test pos

A

Vibrio cholerae

185
Q

Vibrios that are green on TCBS and cause bacteremia

A

parahemolyticus, vulnificus

186
Q

The only Brucella that is basic fuchin pos

A

suis (pigs)

187
Q

suis is fuchin pos

A

Brucella that is fuchin pos

188
Q

The only Brucella that is thionin neg

A

abortus (cow)

189
Q

abortus thionin neg

A

Brucella that is thionin neg

190
Q

The only Brucella that is H2S neg

A

melentensis (goat)

191
Q

melentensis doesn’t H2S

A

Brucella that doesn’t producte H2S

192
Q

Bordetella that is urease positive, oxidase positive

A

bronchiseptica

193
Q

GN bipolar, plague, fleas/rats, safety pin

A

Yersenia pestis

194
Q

HACEKMost HACEK are capnophilic, mouth flora, pathogenic in immunocompromised

A

HaemophilusActinobacillusCardiobacterium hominisEikenella corodensKingella kingae

195
Q

Campylobacter is best in what atmospheric condition

A

obligate microaerophilliclikes chickens, 42C

196
Q

obligate microaerophilliccurved GN rodgull wingedlikes monstly N

A

Campy

197
Q

Campy gas mixture %O, CO2, N

A

5% O210% CO285% N2

198
Q

curved GNR nonferment, microaerophillic, nitrate pos

A

C.jejuni

199
Q

How to stain mycoplasma and ureaplasma

A

Dienes stain

200
Q

Two genus of bacteria that are the smallest free living and have no cell wall

A

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

201
Q

Cause of primary atypical pneumonia, walking pneumonia

A

M.pneumoniae

202
Q

Which free living microbe has fried egg appearance

A

M.pneumoniea

203
Q

How to stain and how to visiualize T.pallidum

A

silverdarkfield

204
Q

Cause of syphilis

A

Treponoma pallidum

205
Q

How is leptospira passed to humans

A

via animal urine

206
Q

Borrelia that causes relapsing fever

A

B.reccurentis

207
Q

Cause of Lyme diseasetransmitted by

A

B.burgdorferiIxodes ticks

208
Q

Chlamydiaceae, Rickettsia, Coxiella, and Ehrlichia all are

A

obligate intracellular parasites

209
Q

Chlamydiaceae have no…in their cell walland are stained with…

A

peptidoglycanGiesma

210
Q

Chlamydia species STD

A

trachomatis

211
Q

Chlamydia with parrot fever

A

psittaci

212
Q

Chlamydia ass. w/Guillian Barre and grown on HELA cells

A

pneumoniae

213
Q

Test that uses Proteus OX antigens to detech rickettsial antibody

A

Weil Felix

214
Q

5 Rickettsiae conditions

A

Rickettsial poxRocky Mt. Spotted FeverQ and murine fever Typhus fever

215
Q

Q Fever is actually caused by this rickettsiael organism

A

Coxiella burnetti

216
Q

PRAS

A

pre reduced anaerobically sterilizedmedia

217
Q

Classic principle of anaerobic culture

A

Jar tech, palladium pelletsH2/CO2 w/waterindicators

218
Q

GPR with double zone of beta, box car, gas gangrene, food

A

Clostridium perfringens

219
Q

Clostridium that doesn’t usually have spores

A

C.perfringens

220
Q

Naegler test on egg yolk agar used for

A

C.perfringens

221
Q

Molar tooth, lumpy jaw GPR anarobe

A

Actinomyces israelii

222
Q

Acceptable Anaerobic specimens

A

BF, Blood, Bile, BMasipirate, woundBiopsy, tissue

223
Q

Unacceptable anaerobic specimens

A

swabssputum, washings, gastricvoided, catheterized urinefeces

224
Q

Anaerobe that forms black, dark halos on BBE due to esculin hydrolysis

A

Bacteroides fragilis

225
Q

Ideal atmosphere for anaerobes

A

80-90% N10% CO25%H

226
Q

QC for anaerobes

A

O2 is color, white colorless no O2

227
Q

Finegoldia magna, Peptostreptococcus, Peptoniphilus all are what kind of microbes

A

anaerobic GPC

228
Q

Anaerobic GPR with molar tooth, affects brain/facw

A

Actinomyces

229
Q

Two clostridium that have oval subterminal spores

A

botulinumdifficile

230
Q

Clostridium doesn’t have spores

A

perfringens

231
Q

Clostridium with round terminal spore

A

ramosum

232
Q

Anaerobic GPR antibiotic ass. diarrhea

A

C.difficile

233
Q

Anaerobic GPR NF skin, acne

A

Propionibacterium

234
Q

Anaerobic GPR NF mouth/female genital, lactic acid/pH

A

Lactobacillus

235
Q

Anaerobic GNCNF upper, red flouresnce

A

Veillonella

236
Q

Anaerobic GNR lung infection, tapered, fluoresence chartreuse/green yellow

A

Fusobacterium

237
Q

Anaerobic GNR head,neck flurousence brick red

A

Prevotella

238
Q

3 nonmotile

A

Shigella, KlebsiellaB.antracis (rest bacillus are motile)

239
Q

Tuft of flagela at polar end

A

Lophitrichous

240
Q

Uniform flagella over body

A

Petitrichous

241
Q

Amphitrichous

A

Flagella at both poles

242
Q

Have capsules: Most are respiratory CKSHN

A

Crypto neoKleb pneumoS.pneumoH.influN.memin

243
Q

3 stains for metachromatic granules, best oneMAN

A

Methylene blue bestAlbertNeisser

244
Q

Forms of sterilization

A

Autoclave 121, 15, 15Filtration Boiling Fractionalization Dry heatEthylene oxide gas

245
Q

Gram stain ingredients

A

Crystal violetIodineEthyl alcohol Safranin

246
Q

Ziel/kinyoun stain ingredients

A

Carbol fushin/phenolHCl/alcoholMethylene blue

247
Q

Naso swabs used for these two

A

H.influN.mening

248
Q

Urine cultureProcess time…Loop size, multiply by…Sig CFU…

A

1hr, 24hr fridge0.001ml, x1000>100,000 sig

249
Q

Sputum stain, best sample req

A

Gram<10 epi, >25 PMN/lpf

250
Q

ChromagarOxacillin, Cefoxitin used for

A

MRSA

251
Q

Diff microccous from Strep

A

CatalaseMicrococcus cat pos

252
Q

Staph epi from s.sapro

A

Novobiocin susceptible

253
Q

Bacitracin susceptible PYR pos

A

GAS

254
Q

Oxiase positive PVNM-CH

A

PseudomonasVibrio chNeisseriaM.cattCampyHeli,Haemo

255
Q

Genital cultureTransport with these 2, AtCulture w/in, on

A

Transport modified Stuart’s or Amies charcoal at RTCulture with in 12hrs on JEMBEC

256
Q

Agar melts at, solidify at

A

Melts 100Solidify 45-50

257
Q

Four ingredients in modified TMVCN, TL

A

VancomycinColistinNystatinTrimethoprim Lactate

258
Q

Nitrocefin is a…Used to detect…Turns..

A

Chromogenic cephalosporinDetect cleavage of beta lactam ringRed

259
Q

X factorV factor

A

X Hemin V NAD

260
Q

Needs X,Vsatelitte phenomkidsmeningitis,epiglotitis

A

H.influe

261
Q

Diff L.mono from GrpB strep

A

L.mono is motile and catalase pos

262
Q

Two microbes that are CAMP and hippyrate pos

A

GrpBL.mono

263
Q

Salicin used to diff these two.. which one pos

A

L.mono from Corynebacterium L.mono salicin pos

264
Q

GPR partially acid fast, beaded, branching, filamentous. Urease positive

A

Nocardia

265
Q

Curved Gram negative rod, gull winged MicroaerophillicNeeds increased Nitrogen42C

A

Campylobacter

266
Q

Campy reqAtmosphere, temp

A

Microaerophillic 85 N10 Co25 O42C

267
Q

Aspects of enteriobacteriace

A

GNROxidase negativeCatalase posNitrate to nitriteMotile except for kleb,shig,yer Ferments glucose, acid

268
Q

Selective media for S&S with bromthymol blue and acid fuchsin as indicators

A

HE

269
Q

GPR, spores, nonmotileString of pearls w/penicillin, Medusa

A

B.anthracis

270
Q

Urease +PUNCH

A

ProteusUreaplasmaNocardiaCrytoneo,CorynebacHelipylori

271
Q

Media where Mercury droplets can be seen in B.pertussis

A

Bordet gengou

272
Q

E.Coli IMViC

A

++–

273
Q

Kleb IMViC

A

–++

274
Q

Most common cause of UTI females

A

Ecoli

275
Q

Selects with Crystal violet, bile salts….diff with lactose

A

MAC

276
Q

Selects with eosin Y, methylene blue…diff w/sucrose and lactose

A

EMB

277
Q

Selects with bile salts, diff lactose/sucrose/salicin and has H2S indicator

A

HE

278
Q

What are clear and colorless on HE? What is clear with black dot?

A

Shigella clearsalmonella clear w/black dot

279
Q

What color are NF from the intestine on HE

A

orange/pink

280
Q

What is the H2S indicator in He, SS, and XLD

A

Sodium thisulfate

281
Q

selects with brilliant green, biles salts and diff with lactose and H2S

A

SS

282
Q

Selects witih bile salts, diff with lactose/surcrose/xylose and H2S

A

XLD

283
Q

Two enterobact that produce H2S

A

Salmonella and proteus

284
Q

Enterobactero DNase pos and red

A

Serratia

285
Q

Deaminase pos and Rapid urease posPPM

A

ProteusProvidenciaMoroganella

286
Q

PPM are all pos/have these two enzymesProteusProvidenciaMoroganella

A

deaminase, urease

287
Q

Typhoid fever caused by

A

Salmonella typhi

288
Q

Positive nitrate test is…confirm with…

A

Clearzinc powder

289
Q

TSI yellow butt

A

glucose

290
Q

Yellow slant

A

lactose or sucrose

291
Q

A/A which sugars

A

slant: lactose and/or sucrosebutt: glucose

292
Q

K/A

A

butt: glucose only

293
Q

K/K

A

none

294
Q

black butt

A

H2S

295
Q

Which test needs trytophan and is called Kovacs reagent

A

Indole

296
Q

Citrate tests for microbes that

A

use citrate for their sole source of carbon

297
Q

Kleb is citrate…

A

posIMViC –++

298
Q

E.coli is citrate

A

negIMViC++–

299
Q

Indicator that tests the ability of microbes to make glucose and drop the pH

A

methyl red

300
Q

EMB selects and diff these group of microbes

A

enterobactericae

301
Q

EMB has lactose to diff, what color is E.colicolor of NLF

A

green, LFclear

302
Q

Test that tests microbes ability to make acetone from glucose

A

Voges Proskauer

303
Q

Voges Proskauer2 pos: K/E2 Neg: E.cY

A

Pos: Kleb, EnterobacNeg: E.coli, Yer

304
Q

In PPA, phenylalanine is deaminated to…three PPA pos…PPM

A

phenylpyruvid acidProteusProvidenciaMorganella

305
Q

Enzyme that breaks down aminos to amines (alkaline) w/limited glucosefirst ph turns yellowwhen decarboxylized alkaline amine turns purple

A

Decarboxylase

306
Q

Aminos used in decarboxylase test

A

LysineArginineOrthinine

307
Q

Positive nitrate reduction test changes what color and inidicates…

A

positive changes red, indicates has only nitrate reductase

308
Q

Initial no color in negative nitrate reduction test indicates

A

No color may mean microbe has both or neither enzymes nitrate/nitrite reductase

309
Q

How to confirm no color reaction in nitrate reduction test….red..no color..

A

add powered zinc, will catalyze nitrate to nitritered…has neither enzymeclear…has both nitrite/nitrate

310
Q

To ferment lactose need these two enzymes

A

permease: brings into cellB-galactosidase: breaks down lactose

311
Q

What are microbes called that lack permease but have B-galactosidase

A

slow lactose fermenters

312
Q

Which test detects B-galactosidaseWhat does pos look like

A

ONPGit resembles lactosepos=yellow

313
Q

Sodium deoxycholate is used in

A

String test for vibrio choloera

314
Q

Test/medium that uses low peptone to allow visible acid production by oxidizers

A

OFoxidition fermentation medium

315
Q

With OF medium, what color is fermenters…where is the color for oxidizers…

A

acid, yellowoxidziers only on top due to needing oxygen

316
Q

What is the indicator in OF media

A

bromthymol blue

317
Q

Clostridium spores:oval/sub: bot,diffround: ramnone: perf

A

Clostridium spores:oval/sub: bot,diffround: ramnone: perf

318
Q

Obligate intracellular parasite w/anthropod vectorGNCB that resemble bacteriaWeil-Felix (proteus ag)PCR lab titer

A

Rickettsia

319
Q

Coxiella Burretii

A

obligate intracellular parasiteQ feveraerosol from birth of infectedbioterrism

320
Q

Two genus that have intracellular morulae in cells and transmitted by ticks

A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis:mono/neuAnaplasma phagocytophilum:grans

321
Q

Lyme disease, bulls eye rashIxodes damminiserological

A

Borelia burgedorferi

322
Q

obligate intra parasiteSTD:parrots:PCR

A

Chlamydiatrachomatispsittaci

323
Q

D test

A

double diffusionD appearance due to flattened zone of inhibition, resistant to clindamycin

324
Q

Disk diffusion req

A

agar 4.0mmMH 150mmno more than 12 disksno CO2pH 7.2-7.4Ca/Mg

325
Q

Ingredient in McFarland

A

Barium Chloride