Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Back up cards AAB > AABHemeCoagBook2.6.24 > Flashcards

AABHemeCoagBook2.6.24 Flashcards

1
Q

3 main sites of hematopoesis during conception and early fetal months

A

yolk sac, liver, spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adult Bones Hematopoesis, acrynom

A

SSPRVSkull, SternumPelvis, Ribs, Vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Heme needs these two things

A

iron and protoporhyrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Protein that transports Fe

A

transferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Major storage form of iron

A

Ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Long term storage of insoluble Fe

A

Hemosiderin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Enzyme def w/build up of heme precursors is called

A

porhyrias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

While in the DELTA, POR UR COP PRONTO a cup of HEME

A

Heme Precursors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hmg F % in newborns versus adults

A

newborn 60-90adults 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hmg A in adultsversus newborns

A

adults 97newborns 10-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hmg A2 in both adults and newborns

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gower I/II, Portland Hmg in…Hmg F in…Hmg S in…

A

embryonicboth newborn and adultnot normal, sickle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In Hmg oxy diss curve, oxygen is released or not released in a shift to the left

A

not releasedNo, won’t let go

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In Hmg oxy diss curve, oxygen is released or not released in a shift to the right

A

releasedwon’t hold tight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

To determine Hmg, the oxidation of hmg to methmg is done with these two reagents

A

K-CN and K-Ferric-CNCyanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HCT % NVMale Female

A

Female 37-47Male 42-52

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diluent used for WBC/PLT CT

A

1% Ammonium Oxalate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MCV formula

A

HCT/RBC x 10volume/cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MCV NV

A

80-100fL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MCH formula

A

HGB/RBC x 10hmg/cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MCH NV

A

27-31pg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MCHC formula

A

HGB/HCT x 100concentration=always smaller number at top and percentagehmg/volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MCHC NV

A

32-36 g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

RDW NV

A

11.5-14.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

RBC reffemalemale

A

female 3.8-5.2male 4.5-6.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Seg ref

A

45-70About 1/2-2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Lymp ref

A

20-40About a quarter almost 2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

mono ref

A

3-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

baso

A

0-2, least

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

eos

A

0-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

plt ref

A

150-400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Romanowsky stain also called

A

Wright stain, Giesma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

4 things in wrights stain

A

-methanol-phosphate buffer-eosin, methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Calculation of absolute values

A

Relative% x total cell ct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TB, Syphilis, Malignancies associated with what kind of cell

A

monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils ass with what kind of anemia

A

megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hyposegmented neu ass with

A

pelger huet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

bacterial infections, burns, chemo ass with what 2 white cell morphologies

A

toxic granulation and vaculoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bacterial infections, burns, and May Hegglin ass with what white cell morph

A

Dohle bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Varient lymphs ass with

A

IM, viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

WBC correct calculation for NRBCS

A

wbc x100/100 + nrbcs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Abetalipoproteinemia and severe liver disease ass with what rbc shape

A

acanthocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

uremia and artifacts cause what kind of rbc shape

A

echinocyte, burr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

DIC causes what rbc shape

A

shisto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HJ bodies composed of

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Baso stip composed of

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pappenheimber bodies made of

A

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Heinz bodies made of

A

denatured precipitated hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

cabot ring made of

A

left over mitotic spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which rbc inclusion is not seen with wright stain

A

Heinz bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Heinz bodies and bite cells ass with what deficiency

A

G6PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Kind of rbc inclusion with thall and lead

A

baso stip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Rule of 3

A

RBC x 3=Hmgx3=Hct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Increased MCV/MCHC and decreased RBC are ass with

A

cold agg disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What replaces glutamic acid in the 6th position of the beta chain in Hmg C

A

Lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What replaces glutamic acid in the 6th position of the beta chain in Hmg S

A

Valine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hmg A1 chains

A

2 alpha2 beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hmg A2 chains

A

2 alpha2 delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Hmg F chains

A

2 alpha2 gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Order from fastest to slowest in cellulose acetate at pH 8.4 (as opposed to citrate 6.2)

A

A, F, S, C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Two reagents usedin solubility test of Hmg S

A

saponin and sodium dithionite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

ESR Female

A

0-20mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ESR male

A

0-15mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ESR show increase in these two plasma proteins

A

fibrinogen and globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

decrease temp, old, excess EDTA ESR…

A

decrease ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

supravital Stain for retic ct

A

new methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Retic ct monitors

A

etrythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Retic ct % calculation

A

retics/10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Absolute retic

A

RBCs x retic%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

corrected retic ct (corrects for HCT)

A

retic % x PT HCT/45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

retic ref

A

0.5-1.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

RPI calculation

A

corrected retic/maturation time of 2need retic # and HCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

M:E ratio

A

3:1-4:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Stain for bone marrow

A

romanowsky, same for wrights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Cellulose acetate ph8.6, cathode/slowest to fastest/anode

A

-C, S, F, A+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Cellulose acetate ph8.6, anode/fastest to slowest/cathode

A

+A, F, S, C-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Citrate agar ph6.2 anode to cathode

A

+C,S,A,F-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Hmg D seen in what race, migrates with

A

East indian, S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Hmg E seen with what race, migrates with

A

Southeast asian, C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Hmg G seen with what race, migrates with

A

African, S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Reducing agent in qualitative screen for Sickle Dex, solubility test

A

sodium di-thionite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

In solubility test, what is added to lyse the RBC to release the hmg…what is added to reduce the hmg…

A

saponin lysessodium dithionite reduces it to become deoxygenated and insoluble; will precipitate out of phosphate buffer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What confirms s positive sickle screen

A

hmg electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which electrophoresis separates S

A

citrate agar ph6.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Lead and Thall trait are what kind of anemias

A

microcytic/hypochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

IDA and later phase of anemia of Chronic disease what kind of anemia

A

micro/hypoInitially anemia of chronic is normal,normo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

In IDA, all Iron studies are low except for

A

TIBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Three causes of macrocytic anemia

A

B12 def, folate defliver disease/alcholism (B12, folate def)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does G6PD have that PK doesn’t

A

Heinz bodiesPossibly bite cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

G6PD def and HbH uses this stain/prep

A

Heinz body prepUse as a nonspecific screen for hemolysis due to drugs/toxins, enzyme deficiencies, thalassemias, and unstable hemoglobins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Test for PCH, IgG, Anti-P Biphasic

A

Donath Landsteiner TEst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Condition with large Azurophilic granules, mucooplysaccharies (Hunter, Hurler)

A

Alder ReilyA=azurophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Condition with large lysosomes/fushion of primary granules

A

Chediak-Higashi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Condition with large PLTs, decreased PLTS, Dohle bodies in seg/mono/lymph

A

MayHegglin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Condition with hyposegmented polys

A

PelgerHuet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Dry tap is seen in which condition

A

primary myelofibrosismyeloid metaplasia: is a disorder in which normal bone marrow tissue is gradually replaced with a fibrous scar-like material. Over time, this leads to progressive bone marrow failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Decreased LAP, Ph chromosome in what condition

A

CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

JAK2 seen in what condition

A

Polycythemia Vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which reaction has toxic granules and Dohle bodies

A

Leukemoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

WHO acute leukemia how many blasts in BMFAB

A

WHO >20%FAB >30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Leukemia seen with soccer ball nucleus lymphs

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Lymphoma associated with EBV, HIV

A

BurkittBurkitt lymphoma (BL) is an aggressive non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Lymphoma associated with Reed Sternberg cell

A

Hodgkin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Myeloma with bone involvement, IgG and Bence Jones in urine

A

Multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Condition with IgM, increased serum viscosity and normal bone

A

Waldenstrom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Prussion blue stains

A

iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

LAP in CML

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

LAP in Leukamoid rxn

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

TRAP tartrate-resistant ACID PHOSPHATASE for what condition

A

Hairy cell leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Auer rods in

A

AMLacute myeloid leukemiaA=Auer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

BM macrophages have wrinkled/striated cyto with accumulation of glucocerebrosidease

A

GaucherG=glucocerebrosideaseGaucher is wrinkled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

BM macrophages w/globular or foamy cyto, sea-blue histiocytes with sphingomyelinase is a disease in which excess material is stored inside cells (metabolic storage disease). These cells are referred to as foam cells because of their foamy or soap-suds appearance

A

Niemann-PickNiemann is foamy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Stain for AML, myelogenous cells for nonspecific/specific granules/fats…

A

Sudan black BOil red O stains neutral lipids and is replacing SSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Stain for glycogen deposits in liver, fungi, and blasts in ALL, stains lymphoblasts not myeloblasts

A

PASperiodic acid-Schiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is added to stabilize WBC when there’s smudge cells causing WBC cts to not match

A

22% bovine albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

DF of PLT CT with sodium citrate

A

1.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Which inclusion isn’t stained with WRights

A

Heinz bodies, uses NMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Peroxidase stains which cell lines..not…

A

Myelogenous: myelos, monosNot lymphs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

NASDA/Naf used for which leukemiaaddition of Naf makes monos become negative

A

AMMLacute myelol, mono

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

PAS pos in

A

ALLacute not chronic lymphoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

TRAP pos for whic leukemia

A

hairy cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

3 names for NRBCs, last nucleated rbc

A

metarubricyteOrthochromic normoblastOrthochromic erythroblast NRBC is not Polychromotaphilic, it’s Orthochromatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

2 names for retic

A

reticulocytepolychromatophilic erythrocyteRetic is Polychromotaphilic due to RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

1.)Rubriblast2.)Pro-rubricyte3.)Rubricyte4.)Meta-rubricyte/NRBC5.)Reticulocyte6.)RBC

A

1.)Pro-2.)Basophilic-3.)Polychromatophilic-4.)Orthochromic- -normoblast5.)Polychromatophillic erythrocyte6.)RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Male Hmg

A

14-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

female hmg

A

12-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

neonate hmg

A

19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

toddler hmg

A

11-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

IDAiron, ferritin…TIBC/transferrin…size, color…

A

iron lowferritin lowTIBC/transferin highmicro, hypo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Anemia of chroniciron, TIBC…ferritin…size, color…

A

iron/TIBC lowferritin highNormo, normo at firstmicro, hypo later on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

5 micro, hypo anemias

A

IDA, anemia of chronic(can become)sidero, leadthall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

4 macrocytic anemia

A

B12, folateliver, alcoholism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

2 names for target

A

codocyte, leptocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Target, baso stip, tears in

A

thallasemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

sugar water test, sucrose hemolysis, and acidified serum test associated with

A

PNHParoxysmal nocturnalNot PCH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Smudge cells seen in which leukemia

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

increased sml, mature lymphs and smudge what leukemia

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Condition with giant, bizarre PLTs, NRBCs, teardrop, pancytopenia It causes scarring of the bone marrow which makes it more difficult to produce blood cells causing pancytopenia.It is one of a group of conditions called myeloproliferative neoplasms or myeloproliferative disorders.

A

myelofibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Condition that’s a subtype of AML, PLTs and WBC decreasedA subtype of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) that is distinguished by erythroblastic proliferation. Patients usually present with nonspecific signs and symptoms from the anemia, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia resulting from the replacement of bone marrow by leukemic cells

A

erythroleukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Sydrome where decrease in alpha granules and there is a release in proteins that cause myelofibrosisAn inherited bleeding disorder characterized by macro-thrombocytopenia and absence of platelet α-granules resulting in typical gray platelets on peripheral smears. It is associated with a bleeding tendency, myelofibrosis, and splenomegaly

A

gray PLT syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Factor 12 actived by

A

subendothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Vik K dependent factors and what group

A

2,7,9,10 Prothrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Factors in fibrinogen group

A

1,3,5,8-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Factors in contact group

A

11,12PK,HMWK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Factors?Serine proteases form a large family of protein-cleaving enzymes that play an essential role in processes like blood coagulation, apoptosis and inflammation.-are vit K dependent -include two factors from contact group

A

2,7, 9,10 (vit K dep)and11,12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

70% of PLTs are in the…30% PLTs are stored in the…

A

70 % blood30 % in spleenMost in blood, rest in spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Adhesion requires what factor

A

VWF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

is a platelet agonist that causes platelet shape change and aggregation

A

Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What links the PLTs together after being stimulated by ADP

A

fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What inhibits active plasmin

A

alpha 2 plasmin inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Action of plasmin on fibrin. Breaks… Into these 4…

A

cleaves fibrin into X, Y, D, E fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

3 clot busters

A

streptkinaseurokinaseTPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

WB:anticoag ratio

A

9:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Screen for extrinsic/common, monifors oral anticoag like warfarin/coumarin

A

PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

PT ref…INR ref goal…

A

<13 secINR. 2.0-3.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Screen for intrinsic,commonmonitors heparin

A

APTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

APTT ref range

A

20-40sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Fibrinogen factor and ref range

A

Factor 1200-400 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Coag test that doesn’t measure intrinsic/extrinsic but is affected by decreased fibrinogen levels and heparin

A

TT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

TT ref

A

<20sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Coag test that measures PLT fnc/#s

A

BT

162
Q

PFA measures PLT fnc with theses three aggregating agents

A

collagen, ADP, epi

163
Q

Rapid dissolution of clot indicates increased fibrinolytic activity in this condition

A

DIC

164
Q

Aspirin inhibits 2ndary wave of aggregation by destroying….

A

cyclooxygenase

165
Q

Two adhesion disorders that have abnormal ristocetin agg

A

BSvWD

166
Q

BS is differentiated from vWD by these two things related to PLTs

A

BS has decreased PLTS and giant PLTS

167
Q

PLT disorder with normal PLT #/morph but abnormal aggregation and abnormal with all aggregating agents

A

Glanzmann

168
Q

DRVVT activates factor… and is prolonged in presence of this anticoagluant

A

Factor 10Lupus anticoag

169
Q

Assay that monitors LMWH

A

anti-factor 10a

170
Q

Test similar to TT, uses snke venom enzyme,and is not inhibited by heparin

A

Reptilase time

171
Q

Repitilase time ref

A

18-22sec

172
Q

Another name for primary myelofibrosis

A

myeloid metaplasia

173
Q

Myeloid metaplasia can have increased… and thus have…Primary myelofibrosis/myeloid metaplasia (MF) is a chronic blood cancer in which excessive scar tissue forms in the bone marrow and impairs its ability to produce normal blood cells

A

increased uric acid and have gout

174
Q

BM condition where theres increased IgM, B clonal cells, marked roleaux, and relative/absolute lymphocytosis

A

WMWaldenstroms macrobulemia

175
Q

Kind of leukemia with B cell neoplasms, increase in small/mature lymphs, and smudge cells

A

CLLchronic lymphocytic leukemia

176
Q

Leukemia with no peroxidase activity and positive PAS

A

ALL

177
Q

Leukemia with increased baso/eos in early stages

A

CML

178
Q

Xa-Vaphospholipid-Ca complex is called what

A

prothrombinase complex

179
Q

What cleaves fibrin into soluble fragments X/Y,D/E

A

plasmin

180
Q

Which protein inhibitor inactivates/degrades F5,8?

A

Protein C

181
Q

Which protein is a cofactor and accelerates Protein C

A

Protein S

182
Q

Which factors are inactivated by Protein C

A

Factor 5,8

183
Q

Which protein is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system and inhibits plasmin

A

alpha 2 antiplasmin

184
Q

What is the principal inhibitor that neuralizes thrombin, F10, and all serine proteases?

A

antithrombin III

185
Q

Most frequently acquired inherited inhibitor leading to factor deficiency?

A

anti-8APTT mixing study to testusually w/Hem A/B therapy

186
Q

Which inhibitor inactivates coag factors thru phospholipids

A

lupus like anticoaglupus anticoagprolong APTT, no factor def or bleeding

187
Q

What is the cause of 25yr old male who has a normal PT and INR, but an increased APTT thats not corrected by a mixing study

A

circulating anticoagulant possibly lupus anticoag

188
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder with decreased F9/vWF, prolonged APTT, and normal PLT CT

A

vWDissue isn’t with number of PLT but can’t adhere to collagen

189
Q

DDAVP and cryo used to treat

A

vWD

190
Q

Trauma, prego issues, liver disease/hepatitis, cancer/leukemia, sepsis, drugs all can cause

A

DIC

191
Q

PT/INR, PTT, D-dimer all increased and fibrinogen decreased in

A

DIC

192
Q

PT/INR, PTT slight increase with slight decrease in fibrinogen is

A

liver disease

193
Q

2 labile coag factors

A

5,8

194
Q

plasma fibrinogen nv

A

200-400mg/dl

195
Q

Xmas factor

A

9IX

196
Q

hereditary condition with decreased PLT production and Dohle bodies

A

May Hegglin anomaly

197
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura has less PLTs due to…

A

PLT destruction

198
Q

VWD, Glanzmann, aspirin all have what kind of PLT counts

A

normal

199
Q

BS has what kind of PLT CT

A

decreased

200
Q

vWD and BS are what kind of PLT issue

A

adhesion

201
Q

Glanzmann and aspirin cause what kind of PLT issue

A

aggregation

202
Q

F7 def test

A

PT, extrinsic

203
Q

What tests 1,2,5,8,9,10,11,12

A

APTT

204
Q

Test monitors heparin, FSP, fibrinogen issues

A

TT

205
Q

Hemo associated w/F11 and Jews

A

Hemo C

206
Q

Hemo ass. w/8, men

A

Hemo A

207
Q

Hemo ass. w/9, men

A

Hemo B

208
Q

Factor def detected with 5M urea test

A

F13

209
Q

Most common specific factor inhibitor, APTT mixing studies

A

F8 inhibitor

210
Q

Mutant Factor V, resists action of protein c/s

A

factor v leiden

211
Q

drug that blocks ADP receptor(P2Y12)

A

PlavixClopidogrel

212
Q

Drug that inhibits VitK, monitored w/PT/INR

A

Wafarin

213
Q

Drug that inhibits serine protease via AT, monitored with APTT

A

Heparin unfractionated

214
Q

Drug that targets F10a, doesn’t require monitoring

A

LMWH

215
Q

Chains in Gower 1

A

2 zeta, 2 epsilon

216
Q

Chain in Gower 2

A

2 alpha, 2 epsilon

217
Q

Portland chains

A

2 zeta, 2 gamma

218
Q

RBC count calc if 5 square…

A

RBCxDF/(0.04)(5)(0.1)1sq=0.04

219
Q

Volume of single RBC square

A

0.04

220
Q

Total volume of 5 RBC squares

A

0.20.2x0.2=0.04x5

221
Q

Depth of hemocytometer

A

0.1

222
Q

4 things affect hmg/cause falsely high

A

LipemicIctericHigh WBC Lyse resistant hmg SS, CCaffects the absorption of hmg

223
Q

Hmg composed of…heme, iron, globin

A

4 globulins, 4 heme inside with 4 iron

224
Q

Defect in heme synthesis leads to

A

porphyria

225
Q

1.)disorder in amino structure2.)disorder in # globulin chains3.)disorder of heme synthesis

A

1.)amino sub: hmg-pathy2.)# globulin chains: thall3.)heme: porphyria

226
Q

methmg-cytochrome C reductase keeps…

A

iron the ferrous statekeeps it reduced

227
Q

when iron in hmg is oxidized to the ferric state, it becomes…

A

methmg

228
Q

hmg with 200x affinity for oxygen than hmg has

A

carboxyhmg (carbon monoxide)

229
Q

type of hmg that carries iron in ferrous/reduced state

A

oxyhmgcan carry oxygen

230
Q

type of hmg that can’t transport oxygen; irreversible oxidation by drugs

A

sulfhmg

231
Q

type of hmg that is in ferric state, cannot bind oxygen, but is reversible

A

met hmg

232
Q

Ferric state of iron is in this hmg

A

methmg

233
Q

cyanmethmg used to

A

measure hmgcyanmethmg w/K cyanide, ferricyanide

234
Q

Of these three, which on is irreversible…carboxyhmg, methmg, sulfhmg

A

sulfhmg

235
Q

Hmg that becomes insoluble under lowered oxygen tension

A

Hmg Sit sickles

236
Q

In hmg C, what replaces glutamic acid…what position…what chain…shape of crystal in hmg C…

A

lysine6th position of beta chainrod shaped, washington monument

237
Q

what kind of RBC inclusion seen in lead and thall

A

basophillic stippling

238
Q

what kind of inclusion in rbc seen in G6PD def…What kind of rbc abnormality…

A

Heinz bodiesBite cell

239
Q

Hmg F made of 2…2…

A

2 alpha, 2 gamma

240
Q

Hmg A1 made of 2..2…

A

2 alpha, 2 beta

241
Q

Hmg A2 made of 2…2..

A

2 alpha, 2 delta

242
Q

Gower 2 made of 2…2…

A

2 alpha, 2 epsilon

243
Q

Gower 1 made of 2..2…

A

2 zeta, 2 epsilon

244
Q

Portland made of 2…2..

A

2 zeta, 2 gamma

245
Q

Hmg resistant to alkali denaturation

A

Hmg F

246
Q

Kleihauer Betke screens for what hmg…Can differentiate between…and….

A

hmg FA1 from Fadult from fetal

247
Q

Hmg D seen in what race…migrates with…

A

East Indianmigrates with S

248
Q

D can be separated from S with … … at ph…

A

cellulose acetate at ph 8.6

249
Q

Only hmg not measured by cyanmethmg

A

sulfhmg

250
Q

Drabkins sln is used to determine…in the …..method

A

hmg in cyanmethmg methodf

251
Q

Hmg in WB..Hmg in plasma..

A

WB 14-16 g/dLplasma 2-3 mg/dL

252
Q

Free hmg binds to…

A

haptoglobin

253
Q

In HA:RBC, hmg, hct are…haptoglobin is…indirect bili is…

A

RBC,hmg,hct are decreasedhaptoglobin is decreased/used upindirect bili is increased, increased hmg but doesn’t get to liver

254
Q

HA is what kind of anemia

A

normo, normosudden, doesn’t have enough time to affect size/color yet

255
Q

What reagent do you saturate specimen with to separate myoglobin from hmg

A

ammonium sulfate

256
Q

PACKED rbc VOLUME is also called

A

hematocritVolume of packed cells

257
Q

3 factors that influence degree of packing during centrifugation

A

radius, speed, time

258
Q

WBC are found in what part of spun hematocrit…where is the packed rbc % read from….

A

wbc buffy coatread packed rbc below buffy

259
Q

How do these affect ESR/rate:acute infectionsrouleauxmacrocytesMM,Waldstrom Manemia vibrations/tilting/increased temp

A

all increase, make fall faster, rate/mm is biggerbigger cells=fall fasteranemia=less cells, fall fasterproteins/ab fall faster

260
Q

How do these affect ESR/rate:microcytes, sperocytessickle cellspolycythemiaold specimen, decreased temp, EDTA increased

A

all decrease, fall less, smaller rate/mm

261
Q

RBC cell count calculation

A

RBCs x DF/total vol sq x depth(0.1)ie. 5 small squareseach square is 0.2x0.2=0.4,x5 squares=0.2

262
Q

CSF has 285 rbc in 5 squares, dilute 1:100cell ct

A

285 x 100/0.2 x 0.1 =28500/0.021,425,000

263
Q

method where cells pass thru aperture increasing resistance of electrical flow between electrodes making a pulse

A

electrical impedance

264
Q

Name of principle that uses laminar flow and hydrodynamic focusing to characterize cells based on granularity and reflectivity

A

laser light scatterlaser is focused at angles

265
Q

3 things used to created scatter plots, one that isnt

A

scatter, volume, conductivityfluorsence isn’t used for the scatter plot

266
Q

NRBC and lrg PLTs will increase

A

WBCgranularity counted as WBC

267
Q

Shistocytes will…rbc # but …PLTs #

A

decrease rbc, increase PLT ctcounted as PLTs instead of RBC

268
Q

WBC 6.5RBC 1.69HGB 9.1HCT 22.8MCV 135.0MCH 53.8MCHC 39.9what is cause

A

cold agg,RBC/HCT decreasedMCV, MCH, MCHC increased

269
Q

DF for PLT ct when using sodium citrate instead of EDTA

A

1.1

270
Q

Adding 22% bovine albumin to hematology specimen will prevent…cells by…WBCs

A

will prevent smudge cells by stabilizing WBC

271
Q

Action if cryoglobulin or cold agg cause issues

A

incubate 37C 15min

272
Q

manual WBC ct on hemacytometer can help count …WBC from… ….. leukemia patients

A

count fragiles WBCs from pseudoleukopenic patients

273
Q

lipemic specin, can perform a .. …

A

saline replacement

274
Q

hyperglycemia:MCV is…red cell color is…

A

MCV is normalcolor is hypochromic, absorb less iron

275
Q

WBC ct calc

A

WBC x DF/vol sq x depth 0.1Each sq 1mm

276
Q

WBC ct 50, 8squares, 1:100 dil

A

50x 100/(8x1)x0.16250

277
Q

Wright stain:fixative…adjust color by adusting… of ….

A

methanolcolor change with ph of buffer

278
Q

Giesma can stain which organism

A

malarial parasites

279
Q

Cannot be stained with wrights, needs to use NMB

A

Heinz bodies

280
Q

Stain that stains both nonspecific and specific granules in myelogenous cells

A

SBBsudan black Bmyeloblasts, not lymphoblasts

281
Q

Stain for granulocytes, monocytes but not lymphs

A

MPOmyelo-peroxidase

282
Q

leptocyte is also these two

A

Target, codocyte

283
Q

Most immature RBC, 3 names

A

RubriblastPro-erythroblast/normoblast

284
Q

2nd RBC after most immature, 3 names

A

ProrubricyteBasophilic- erythroblast/normoblast

285
Q

Rubricyte, comes after…Two other names…

A

Comes after ProrubricyteRubricyte is also calledpolychromatic- erythroblast/normoblast

286
Q

Last stage RBC with nucleus, 3 names

A

MetarubricyteOrthochromic -erythroblast/normoblast

287
Q

NASDA 3+, NaF 1+ what leukemia

A

AMMLacute myelo mono

288
Q

Leukemia where blasts stain PAS pos

A

ALLlymphoblasticlymphs not myelo, acute not chronic

289
Q

Best stain for neutral lipids

A

Oil red Obetter than sudan black b as it is more red/visible

290
Q

LAP stands for…differentiates these two…which is incresed, decreased…

A

leukocyte alkaline phosphataseleukomoid increasedCML decreased

291
Q

stain that is positive in hairy cell leukemia

A

TRAPtarte resistantacid phosphatase (not alkaline phosphatase)

292
Q

MOST reliable criterion for cells age

A

nuclear chromatin

293
Q

Last cell to retain nucleus before becoming erythrocyte/NRBC two names

A

metarubricyte, orthochromatic normoblast

294
Q

toddler hmg range…female…male range…Neonate hmg range…

A

toddler has the least: 10-12female: 12-15male: 14-18neonate has the most: 16-22

295
Q

anemia based off three things

A

rbc, hmg, hct

296
Q

reticulocytosis is….due to…

A

polychromatophillic due to residual RNA

297
Q

3 things seen in IDA:size, color, shape

A

micro,hypopoikilocytosis

298
Q

low ferritin/ironhigh TIBC/transferrin

A

IDA

299
Q

high ferrtinlow iron/TIBC/transferrin

A

anemia of chronic

300
Q

cell seen in:-thallasemia-liver disease-postsplenectomy

A

targetTarget cells are erythryoctes with an increased cell membrane-to-volume ratio, due either to gain of membrane lipids or to a reduction in cell volume. Liver disease: Decreased enzymatic activity increases the cholesterol to phospholipid ratio, producing an absolute increase in surface area of the red blood cell membranes or may be increased red cell membrane fluidity.Post splenectomy: altered erythrocytes will not be removed from the circulation efficiently. Therefore, increased numbers of target cells may be observed.

301
Q

aggregated RNA in RBC causes

A

basophilic stippling

302
Q

best supravital stain for RNA remnants

A

NMB

303
Q

RBC iron stained granules stained with PB..stained with wrights…

A

siderocytespappemheimer

304
Q

increased iron in the mitochondria of normoblasts is seen in what anemia

A

sideroblastic anemia

305
Q

3 cells seen in thallasemia

A

targets, tearsbasophilic stipplingTear drop cells appear in the peripheral blood as a response to red cell alterations by thalassemia when red cell inclusions are expelled by a stripping process through splenic cords.

306
Q

3 main causes of macrocytic anemia

A

B12/folate def (d.latum, taperworm B12)liver/alcoholism

307
Q

4 main causes of micro,hypo anemia

A

IDA, anemia of chronic in later stagessideroblastic, lead

308
Q

Megaloblastic anemia:WBC seen in BM…3 things seen in smear…

A

BM: giant metamyelocytessmear: oval macro, hyperseg, less PLTsMegalo: big not small Anemia: less

309
Q

Hereditary disease where osmotic fragility and autohemolysis are normal…Hereditary disease where osmotic fragility is increased…

A

elliptocytosisspherocytosis

310
Q

PNH:3 testsPCH:1 test

A

PNH: sugar, sucrose, acidifiedPCH: Donath Landsteiner

311
Q

Most common thallasemia in US

A

beta thall MINOR

312
Q

Disorder with enzyme defect in aerobic glycolysis

A

G6PD

313
Q

Pancytopenia seen in this anemia

A

aplastic

314
Q

Panhyperplasia of BM seen in

A

polycythemia vera

315
Q

Leukemiaviral infectionchemoWBC will be….

A

decreasedleukemia: sick cells push out good cellsviral: HIV chemo: kill

316
Q

euchormatindarker cytonucleolinonspecific granules charasteristic in…

A

immature blood cells*most characteristic of immature is euchromatin

317
Q

Light blue endoplasmic reticulum found in neutrophilsseen in infections, burns, MayHegglin

A

Dohle bodies

318
Q

nonspecific primary granules in…specific secondary granules in…

A

non/primary: promyelocytespecific/secon: myelocyte

319
Q

Order of myeloid…1-6

A

1.)Myeloblast2.)Promyelocyte3.)Myelocyte4.)Metamyelocyte5.)Band6.)Seg

320
Q

WBC NV most to least…

A

Seg 50-70Lymph 20-40Mono 3-10Eos 0-3Baso 0-2

321
Q

Largest leukocyte in blood…Largest cell in BM:

A

monomegakaryo

322
Q

Inclusions of blue black, coarse mucopolysaccharide granulesHurlers/Hunters

A

Alder Reilly

323
Q

Giant PLTs, Dohle bodiesdecreased PLTs

A

May Hegglin

324
Q

giant lysosomal granules, defective PLTs/WBCs,albinism

A

Chediak Higashi

325
Q

Things that can be seen with…. …are shift to left, vacuolization, Dohle bodies

A

toxic granulation

326
Q

In lupus, what cell phagocytizes the nucleoprotein

A

neutrophil

327
Q

monocyte/histiocyte thats engulfed nuclear materialsimilar to LE but no diagnositic value

A

tart cell

328
Q

cell that neutraphil/macrophage engulfed denatured nuclearlupus erythromatosus

A

LE cell

329
Q

cell that is plasma cell with cytoplasmic inclusions called russell bodies packed with immunoglobulinsconstipated plasma cell

A

Mott cells

330
Q

reactive leukocytosis occurs when absolute granulocyte count is >…

A

7.0 x10^9/LGranulocytes not all WBC

331
Q

Smudge cells seen in this leukemia but not in this

A

seen in CLL not in acute

332
Q

Use as a nonspecific screen for hemolysis due to drugs/toxins, enzyme deficiencies, thalassemias, and unstable hemoglobins.

A

Heinz body prep Heinz, hmgH

333
Q

Cyanide can be used to oxidize … To…

A

Hmg to methmg

334
Q

Hmg to methmg iron becomes…to…Methmg to hmg iron becomes…to…

A

Hmg to methmg, iron becomes oxidized to ferricMethmg to hmg, iron becomes reduced to ferrous

335
Q

Eosinophilia and basophilia associated with what leukemia

A

CML

336
Q

Smudge cells seen in this leukemia

A

CLLchronic not acute

337
Q

L1 kids, homo, high N/CL2 adults, hetero, nucleoliL3 Burkitts, vacuolization, abundant cyto

A

FAB classifications of acute lymphocytic leukemia

338
Q

ALL L1 3 main characteristics

A

homgenoushigh N/Ckids

339
Q

ALL L2 3 main characteristics

A

heteroadultsnucleoli

340
Q

ALL L3 2 main characteristics

A

vacuolization, abundant cyto

341
Q

FAB ALL classification for mostly homo, high N/C ratio

A

L1

342
Q

FAB ALL prominent cytoplasmic vacuolization

A

L3also abundant cyto

343
Q

FAB ALL hetero, nucleoli, seen in more adults

A

L2

344
Q

FAB AML,M2/type 2 has … … …as compared to M1/type 1 that has… and ….

A

M2/type 2 has few cytoplasmic granulesM1/type 1 has granules

345
Q

FAB AML that has no cytoplasmic granules

A

M0

346
Q

M0 no granulesM1 granulesM2 traces of primary/fewM3 intense granules, DIC

A

This is stupid

347
Q

Auer rods seen in which leukemia

A

AML

348
Q

DIC ass with what AML class

A

M3

349
Q

Stain to differentiate AML from ALL

A

MPO

350
Q

Leukemia with Philadephia chromosome and increased baso/eos in early stages

A

CML

351
Q

Condition with increased LAP, toxic granulation, dohle bodies

A

Leukomoid

352
Q

DIC seen in what leukemia

A

AML

353
Q

BM of this condition has increased plasma cells, IgM, rouleaux, lymphocytosis

A

Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia

354
Q

giant bizarre PLTsNRBCsTears seen in…

A

myelofibrosis

355
Q

Hereditary with decreased alpha granules resulting in tiny, decreased PLTs

A

gray PLT syndrome

356
Q

Prothrombinase complex (acts on prothrombin)

A

10a+5a phospholipid+Ca

357
Q

1.)C will degrade 5,82.)S cofactor acclerates

A

…

358
Q

Which protein degrades factor Va and 8a…

A

C

359
Q

Which protein is a cofactor of C and helps accelerate the degradation of Va/VIIIa

A

S

360
Q

Primary inhibitor of fibrinolytic system; stops this from breaking down fibrin

A

alpha 2antiplasmin

361
Q

What is the principal inhibitor of thrombin and factor Xa

A

anti-thrombin IIIalso neutralizes serum proteases

362
Q

Most ACQUIRED inhibitor in hereditery deficiencies(acquire during treatment of this hereditary deficiency)

A

anti 8usually acquired from HemA(8) therapy

363
Q

acquired inhibitor against phospholipoproteins inactivating coagulation factors prolonging aPTT

A

lupus like anticoag

364
Q

disease with:-abnormal adhesion to collagen-decreased VIII:C, VIIIR:Co-increased BT, aPTT-normal PLT ct

A

vWD

365
Q

Condition with slightly increased PT,INR, PTT but low fibrinogen

A

liver disease

366
Q

Severe liver disease monitor these two factors

A

I, 5

367
Q

Factor 5 Leiden

A

Helps make clots, Protein C supposed to slow 5 down,Most common cause of hypercoaguable State, thromboembolism

368
Q

Protein S And C roles

A

StopClotsCleave 5,8

369
Q

Anemia with inhibition of DNA, -decreased megakaryocytes, -decreased PLTs-giant metamyelocytes in BM-oval macrocytes-hypersegmented segs

A

Megaloblastic anemia

370
Q

Hereditary red cell membrane deformation with >25% cells deformed, normal osmotic fragility, and most people are asymptomatic and few have HA

A

Hereditary elliptocytosis

371
Q

Most common thallasemi

A

beta thall minor

372
Q

Cooleys anemia, increased A2, decreased A1

A

beta thall major

373
Q

Thall with 2 of 4 alpha deleted, micro/hypo

A

alpha thall minor

374
Q

hydrops fetalis, thall with no normal Hmg, all 4 alpha deleted

A

alpha thall major

375
Q

Enzyme def that is x linked, oxidative stress leads to RBCs breaking down/HA, aerobic glycolysis ineffective

A

G6PD

376
Q

Dohle body is seen in which cell

A

neutrophil

377
Q

Primary granules in…Secondary granules in…

A

Primary: promyelocyteSecondary: myelocyte

378
Q

Infections you will see toxic granulation in neutrophils and these three things…

A

shift to leftDohle bodiesvacuolizations

379
Q

Neutrophil that phagocytizes/engulfs nuclear material/nucleoprotein in lupus

A

LE cellnot a tart (mono/histiocyte)

380
Q

Only heterogenous cell Acute leukemia FAB classification

A

L2

381
Q

L3 ALL has prominent

A

vacuoles

382
Q

L1 has high…with…cells

A

high N/Chomogenous cells

383
Q

L2 has …cells

A

heterogenous

384
Q

FAB AML that is hypergranular and related to DIC

A

M3

385
Q

FAB AML with no granules

A

M0

386
Q

Monocytic FAB classfications

A

M4/5

387
Q

M2 has …granules

A

few

388
Q

Best stain that differentiates AML from ALL

A

MPOas opposed to SBB

389
Q

chronic lymphocytic leukemias are usually neoplasms of what cell

A

B cells

390
Q

Hemostasis 3 processes

A

vasoCONSTRICTIONadhesionaggregation

391
Q

Two PLT disorders with decreased and giant PLTs

A

May Hegglin, BS

392
Q

WASP issue in males, small/decreased PLTS, impaired immune, increase in IgA/E

A

Wiskott Aldrich anomaly

393
Q

PLT disorder where ab attack own PLTs, leads to increased PLT destructioncause not known

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpuraITP

394
Q

vWD, Glazmann, and aspirin all have …PLT cts but abnormal…time

A

normalabnormal BT

395
Q

PLTdisorder with abnormal-primary agg…-secondary agg..

A

primary agg: Glanzmannsecondary agg: Wiskott

396
Q

PLT disorders with adhesion issues

A

BS, VWD

397
Q

Condition where BM makes too many PLTs and is ass with polycythemia vera

A

Thrombocy-themia

398
Q

How many PLTs/1000x is normal

A

8-20

399
Q

BT increased in destruction of PLTs, decreased PLTs, blood vessel damage,-qualitative,quantitative PLT disorder-primary vascular abBUT not affected in…

A

autoimmune thrombocytopeniawho knows why, stupid AAB

400
Q

Test that monitors heparin, FSP, and fibrinogen ab

A

TT

Back up cards AAB (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions