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Back up cards AAB > 1.10.24basic > Flashcards

1.10.24basic Flashcards

1
Q

Centrifugal force depends on 3 variables…and separates based on…

A

mass, speed, radiusdensity

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2
Q

speed expressed as…force generated express as…or…angular velocity value…r=

A

revolutions/min(rpm)relative centrifugal force/RCF or gravity (g)1.118x10*-5r=radius in cm from center of axis to bottom

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3
Q

Equation for speed of centrifuge related to RCF/RCF=

A

1.118x10-5 x r x (rpm)’210 to neg 5*2=squared

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4
Q

CLSI

A

clinical and lab standards institute

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5
Q

CLSI recommend blood be centrifuged at an RCF of…or…for…min

A

1,000-1200xgOR3500 rpm for 10-15 min

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6
Q

…or… centrifuge where tubes are horizontal position when spinning and in a vertical position when stopped

A

Horizontal head or swinging bucket

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7
Q

…or…centrifuge where tubes are at angle in sample bucket, allowing small particles to sediment faster

A

fixed angle or angle head

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8
Q

Centrifuges that separate small liquid samples of <=2mL in plastic conical shaped containers w/integral snap cap

A

microcentrifuges

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9
Q

High speed centrifuge up to 150,000rpm to separate chylomicrons from serum

A

ultracentrifuge

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10
Q

strobe light determines…

A

speed

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11
Q

Check speed of centrifuge with…or….every…

A

tachometer or strobe light, every 6mths

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12
Q

NIST

A

national institute of standards and technology

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13
Q

Check time with…timer, every…

A

NIST traceable timer, 6mths

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14
Q

centrifuge used to sediment small particles faster

A

fixed angle/angle head

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15
Q

centrifuge used to separate chylomicrons from serum

A

ultra

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16
Q

Glassware/plasticware must fall into class…or….Institute that recommends tolerance limits…Preferred glassware class…Usually made of… …

A

Class A, BNIST recommendedPreferred is A and made of borosilicate glass

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17
Q

Pipette that is electronic, prepare multiple samples…Pipette that are handheld, disposable tips w/air displacement or positive displacement

A

Automatic pipettesemi-automated pipette

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18
Q

Mechanism of action which relies on a piston for creating suction to draw the sample into a disposable tip that’s changed after useA certain volume of air remains between the piston and the liquid.

A

air displacementie. pipettes used in lab

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19
Q

Mechanism of action which has a moving piston in pipepette tip or barrel much like a hypodermic syringe, doens’t require a different tip and is used as a dispenser.The piston is in direct contact with the liquid.

A

Positive displacmentie. osmo pipette

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20
Q

Which pipete requires recalibration…how often per year…Two methods used to calibrate…

A

automatic pipettes, 4x/yrgravimetric and volumetric

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21
Q

Calibration that verifies accuracy by the amt of water dispensed by pipette. Weight of water is proportional to the volume dispensed.Weight=volume

A

Gravimetric

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22
Q

Calibration that verifies accuracy of amt of dye thats pipetted into a specific volume of water and is read spectrophotometrically.absorbance=amount

A

volumetric

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23
Q

Which class of glassware doesn’t need to be recalibrated

A

A

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24
Q

Handheld that require bulb to apply suction

A

manual

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25
Q

…or… is glass pipette that has a bulb in the middle w/tapered delivery tipaccuracy is 1:….

A

transfer or volumetric1:1000

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26
Q

..or…Pipette thats uniform in diameter w/tapered delivery tip

A

measuring or graduated

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27
Q

Pipettte with two frosted bands

A

Last drop blown outb after pipette drains

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28
Q

Pipete must be rinsed w/solvent after first liquid has drained

A

To contain, TC

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29
Q

Pipette filled and allowed to drain by gravity. Held vertically, tip placed against side of vessel

A

To deliver, TD

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30
Q

Pipette filled, drained and remaining fluid in tip blown out, has two frosted bands at top

A

blow out

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31
Q

Pipette held in vertical position w/tip against vessel and drained by gravity

A

self draining, ie. TD

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32
Q

Organization that maintains standards for temps

A

NISTnational institute of standards and tech

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33
Q

Thermistor probe is also called

A

an electronic probe

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34
Q

3 types of thermometers

A

mercury/liquid in glassdigitalelectronic/themistor probes

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35
Q

Gold/platinum thermometer calibrated on international temp scale w/lead wires and sheath

A

NIST Standard ref material(SRM)

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36
Q

All NIST certified thermometers come with a…NIST traceable thermometers come with

A

NIST cert of calibrationNIST cert of traceability.certificate issued by manufacturer

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37
Q

Temp for incubators, heat blocks, water baths

A

36-38C

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38
Q

RT

A

20-24C

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39
Q

Lab fridge…BB fridge…

A

lab 2-8CBB 1-6C

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40
Q

Lab freezer…BB freezer…

A

lab <= -20CBB <=-65C

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41
Q

Sln can use as alternative to lens sln…sln not to use…

A

can use methanol, not xylene

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42
Q

Most common microscope, white light illuminates sample from below…limitation…

A

brightfieldlow contrast of biological samples

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43
Q

Microscopy improves contrast of unstained, transparent. Quantity of unscatted light/directly transmitted is minimized collecting only light scattered by sample… the field around the specimen (i.e., where there is no specimen to scatter the beam) is generally dark.Good to view…

A

Darkfieldspirochetes

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44
Q

Uses electrons to illuminate and creates enlarged image. Creates higher resolving power and higher magnification.Uses electrostatic and electromagnetic lenses. Focuses on a specific plane…Good to view…or… …

A

Electrontissue or tumor markers

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45
Q

Uses fluorescense. High energy light illuminates, emits light of lower frequency. Dyes used to stain structures…Good to view…

A

FluorescentANA

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46
Q

Small phase shifts in the light passing thru transparent specimen showing differences in refractive index as diff in contrast…An optical microscopy technique that converts phase shifts in light passing through a transparent specimen to brightness changes in the image. Phase shifts themselves are invisible, but become visible when shown as brightness variations.Good to view…

A

phase contrastmanual PLT cts

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47
Q

Only transmits polarized lightgood to view…

A

polarizedcrystals

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48
Q

Gives 3D image. brightfield can be modified into this. Two split beams of light are polarized and recombined by objective prism.Recombination gives 3D

A

Differential interference contrastDifferential Interference Contrast (DIC) is a phase contrast technique that allows transparent structures to be visualized by exploiting changes in refractive index. In contrast to conventional phase contrast techniques, which are based on changes in optical path length, DIC is based on the gradient of the optical path length (rate of change in wavefront shear). Steep gradients produce the high contrast and 3-D relief effect that is characteristic of DIC.

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49
Q

Magnification of:eyepiece..low power objective…high power objective…oil immersion objective…

A

eyepiece: 10Xlow: 10xhigh:40xoil: 100x

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50
Q

Knob to move slide right and left…knob to move stage forward and backward…

A

slide right/left: x axis motion knobstage forward/backward: y axis

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51
Q

Rotating disk under stage to vary intensity/size of cone of light

A

iris diaphram

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52
Q

Focuses light onto specimen

A

condenser lens

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53
Q

part that connects the eyepiece to the revolving nosepiece/lenses

A

tube

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54
Q

holds objective lenses

A

nosepiece

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55
Q

focuses light onto specimen, can move up and down

A

condenser lens

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56
Q

English units of measurement3 for length..1 mass..4 for volume…

A

length: inch,foot, yardmass: lbvolume: cup, pint, quart, gallon

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57
Q

Metric system is based on decimal system, multiples of tenlength…mass..volume…

A

length: metermass: gramvolume: liter

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58
Q

luminous intensity in SI

A

candela

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59
Q

International System of Units/SI worldwide standardized system, recommended by CLSILength:Mass:Time:amt sub:temp: electric current: luminous intensity:

A

Length: meterMass: kgTime: secamt sub: moletemp: Kelvinelectric current: ampereluminous intensity: candela

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60
Q

Deka

A

Deka…10*1

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61
Q

Hecto

A

Hecto…10*2

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62
Q

Kilo….

A

Kilo….10*3

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63
Q

Mega..

A

mega: 10 *6

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64
Q

giga

A

giga 10*9

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65
Q

Deci

A

Deci: 10*-1

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66
Q

centi..

A

Centi:10*-2

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67
Q

milli

A

milli: 10*-3

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68
Q

micro

A

micro: 10*-6

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69
Q

Nano:

A

Nano: 10*-9

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70
Q

pico

A

pico: 10*-12

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71
Q

femto

A

femto: 10*-15

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72
Q

Celcius from farenheit

A

5/9x (F-32)

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73
Q

Farenheit from Celcius

A

(9/5)C +32

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74
Q

Kelvin from Celsius

A

C+273

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75
Q

95F to C

A

5/9x(95-32)=35C

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76
Q

95C to F

A

(9/5x95)+32=203F

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77
Q

95C to Kelvin

A

95+273=368K

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78
Q

BUN/Creatinine ratioBUN 24.0Creatinine 2.4Give ratio

A

10:1

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79
Q

CHOL/HDL ratioTC 200HDL 40

A

5:1

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80
Q

Which cell lines aren’t included in the Myeloid part of M:E calculationWhich cell line is included in Erythroid ratio

A

Lymphs and MonosNormoblasts

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81
Q

Write fraction, 1 pt solute to 1 part diluent

A

1/22 is total volume

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82
Q

pt:pt is

A

pt analyze + total parts (including diluent)

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83
Q

1:1 dilution=1:21:5

A

1 pt serum+0 pt diluent1:2 1 pt serum + 1 pt diluent1:5 1 pt serum + 4 pt diluent

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84
Q

1:2, 1:4, 1:8 etc is a 1:5, 1:25, 1:125 is a 1:10, 1:100 is a

A

two fold, x2five fold, x5ten fold x 10

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85
Q

5% w/w sln equals how much solute to total solutionHow much diluent is added

A

5g solute per 100g total solution95g diluent added to 5g making 100g sln

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86
Q

Make 100g of 5% w/w sln of NaCl

A

5g/100g is 5% w/w,5/100x 100g wanted=need 5g NaCl to 95g diluent to make a total of 100g sln

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87
Q

10% w/v sln equals how much solute to total sln

A

10g of solute to 100mL of total sln

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88
Q

Make 1,000 ml of 10% w/v of NaOH

A

10% w/v = 10g/100mlx 1000mL= 100g of NaOH to add to 900ml diluent to get 1000mL total

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89
Q

2% v/v equals how much solute to sln

A

2ml/100ml

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90
Q

Make 50mL of a 2% v/v of HCl

A

2% v/v = 2ml/100mlx50ml=1ml of HCl added to 49ml diluent equals total of 50ml

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91
Q

Molarity/M

A

Have g/L, covert to mole/L by get gmwg/L x mole/L= M

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92
Q

40g NaOH/L, what is molarity?

A

1 mole NaOH is 40 GMW,40g/L x 1 mole/40 =1mol/L=1M

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93
Q

Nomality (N)

A

N=Equivalent/L1 Equivalent=gmw/valenceValence is # of H

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94
Q

Osmolality=mOsmol/kg of H2ONormal range…calculation…

A

Normal range 275-295 mOsm/kg1.86(NA) + GLU/18 + BUN/2.8

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95
Q

Osmolality of NA 150Glu 180BUN 14

A

294 mOsmol/kg H2)

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96
Q

Osmolar gap

A

measured-calculated

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97
Q

Concentrated SlnsC1V1=C2V21 is, 2 is

A

1 is known2 is unknown

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98
Q

PT has 350 PLT ct, how many mL of it needed to get 7mL of with concentration of 250

A

350x?mL=250x7=5mL

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99
Q

Ratio of SD of a distribution to its arithmetic mean.Used to express precision and reproducibility of an assay

A

Coefficient of Variation, CV

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100
Q

Coefficient of Variation, CV used to express…and…Acceptable CV is…

A

Used to express precision and reproducibility of an assayLess than 5% for most analytical systems

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101
Q

/X is

A

mean

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102
Q

CV formulaMean is 200, SD is 5, calculate CV

A

SD/Mean x 1005/200 x 100 =2.5%

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103
Q

Gives an estimated degree of uncertainty. Probability of estimated range…expressed as..

A

Confidence intervalpercentage

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104
Q

Mean +- 1 SD=Mean +- 2 SD=Mean +- 3 SD=

A

1SD 68%2SD 95%3SD 99%

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105
Q

Given mean (/X) is 9.8, 1 SD is 0.2, calculate 95% confidence limits for control run with mean +- 2SD

A

1SD= 9.8 +- 0.22SD=9.8 +- 0.4, 9.4-10.2

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106
Q

pH formula

A

pH=pKa +log (base)(acid) (salt)(acid) (HCO3)(H2CO3)

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107
Q

Diff between cations and anions…cations..anions…calculation

A

anion gapcations: Na, K anions: Cl, CO2Na+K - Cl+CO2

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108
Q

Law that states concentration of sub is directly proportional to amt of radiant energy absorbed or inversely proportional to the logarithm of the transmitted radiant energy2 formulas:proportional to absorbedversusindirectly proportional to transmitted…

A

Beers LawA=abcA=2-log%T

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109
Q

Formula for known/unknown absorbance…

A

Concentration of unknown=AbsUn/AbsStd x ConcenStd

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110
Q

Abs of 6.0g std is 0.40, abs of unknown is 0.350, concentration of unknown?

A

0.350/0.40 x 6.05.25g

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111
Q

Chain of custody things needed…

A

PT consent, security seal, to addresee onlystore in locked area

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112
Q

Examples of chain of custody

A

alcohol levels for DUIDOT drug testingpaternity, DNARapeMedical examiner

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113
Q

Digital version of patient medical history/date

A

EMRelectronic medical record

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114
Q

Series of computer network that interconnects computers in a limited area like hospital, using network media

A

LANlocal area network

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115
Q

A computer network that interconnects computers in a broad area such as international, using private or public network trainsports

A

WANwide area network

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116
Q

Comprehenstive integrated info system to manage medical, admin, financial, and legal aspects of a hospital/services

A

HISHospital info system

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117
Q

Computer software providing services to software apps beyond those available to the operating systemSoftware that lies between an operating system and the applications running on it. Essentially functioning as hidden translation layer, enables communication and data management for distributed applications.

A

Middleware

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118
Q

Computerized process for healthcare providers to electronically enter and order medical procedures/lab tests based on predetermined logarithm

A

CPOEcomputerized provider order entry

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119
Q

CLIA stands for

A

clinical laboratory improvement amendments

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120
Q

CDC stands for

A

centers for disease control

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121
Q

CMS stands for

A

centers for medicare/medicaid services

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122
Q

Program that establishes quality standards for all labs…Published by…and…

A

CLIAplublished by CDC and CMS

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123
Q

Organization that categorizes and grades testing based on the complexityof testing

A

FDA

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124
Q

Two criteria to be waived test

A

cleared by FDA for home usesimple/accurate as to pose no reasonable risk if performed incorrectly

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125
Q

Examples of waived

A

blood glucose/cholesterolurine prego, dipstick/tablet urinalysisovulationnonautomated ESRspun HCTHmg copper sulfateHmg by single analyze instruments

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126
Q

Who determines if a test meets criteria for being a waived test

A

HHSDept of Health and Human Services

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127
Q

Complexity?-manual procedures w/limited steps-microscopy of urine sediment-automated heme w/out diff-primary culture set up-urine culture/colony ct kits-gram

A

moderate

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128
Q

To be categorized as PPM, provider performed microscopy, must meet criteria

A

-physician, supervised midlevel practioner, dentist-moderately complex-main instrument is a microscope-control materials not available-specimen is labile, delay would affect results-need limited handling/processing

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129
Q

Examples of PPM tests

A

-direct wet mt preps, qualitative semen-KOH preps-pinworm, fern-postcoital direct, qualitative-urine sediment-nasal smears wbc, fecal wbc

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130
Q

3 criteria for high complexicity

A

-any modified FDA cleared test-lab developed test/LDT-cytology

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131
Q

Complexity?-serogrouping/typing-manual procecures w/multiple steps/reagent prep-concentration/diff staining-antimicrobial testing-gel immunochemical -electrophoresis, flow-pap smear

A

high

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132
Q

These two can conduct an inspection of any accredited lab that’s issued a certificate of accreditation…How often CLIA requires…

A

CMS, dept of HHS2yrs

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133
Q

External quality control to verify accuracy of lab test methods

A

PTproficiency testing

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134
Q

Proficiency testing is required by… under…Usually done …times per yearNot required for…

A

CMS, under CLIA3 times per yearnot required for waived tests

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135
Q

Approves the PT program that must be enrolled in

A

HHS

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136
Q

Must maintain copy of PT related forms for minimum of….from the date of PT event

A

2 yrs

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137
Q

Satisfactory performance on PT testing is…for each analyzeexcept with immunoheme, some are..

A

80%100%

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138
Q

Unsatisfactory PT

A

same analyte in 2 consecutiveOR2 out of 3 testing events

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139
Q

Alternate/Split sample testing can be done for PT if…

A

approved PT isn’t availableSPLIT SAMPLES w/other or ref lab, established in house method, clinical validation by chart review, participation in ungraded/educational PT program

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140
Q

Examples of pre analytical testing

A

lab req, id, collection, storage, transportation, specimen adequacy, aliquoting, centrifugation

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141
Q

Oral requests can be made if…and within…

A

followed by written authorizationwithin 30 days

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142
Q

Standard that requires the use of at least 2 pt ids…3 examples of ids

A

Joint CommisionNational Patient Safety Standard-name, bday, med rec

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143
Q

How long keep records of test reqs/authorizations (can be patients chart/medical record)…Who may request records…

A

2 yrsHHS

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144
Q

Examples of analytical testing

A

reagents, calibration, QC, tempsrecording resultsverify normal rangecompetency of personell

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145
Q

Process of testing and adjusting an instrument/kit to provide a known relationship between the measurement response and the value of the substance being measured by the test

A

calibration

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146
Q

Records of patient testing kept for at least…BB records kept for…Blood/products…Pathology kept for..

A

-PT 2yrs-BB 5yrs-Blood/products: 5yrs or 6mths after exp which ever is later-path 10yrs

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147
Q

How long must a copy of each procedure w/dates and initial use/discontinuance be kept

A

2 yrs after discontinuence

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148
Q

Post analytic examples

A

verifying calculationsreporting resultsID/notify panic filingdata retrieval

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149
Q

Most errors occur in what two phases…

A

pre and post

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150
Q

percentage of error:pre…analytical..post…

A

pre 46%analytical 8%post 47%

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151
Q

Term used to describe monitoring/evaluating all aspects of testing and all phases.Uses the QC data and conducted over a period of time

A

QA

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152
Q

Term that is one component of QA, involves mostly the analytical phase, ensures accuracy, and performed daily

A

QC

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153
Q

standard that where concentration is determined by dissolving weighted amt of std in solvent and diluting to a stated volume/mass.Accuracy based on purity of std/solvent not analytical method.

A

primary calibration std

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154
Q

Standard where concentration is determined by an analytical method of stated reliability. Prepared from pure substances of known composition.

A

Secondary std

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155
Q

Process that sets the instrument to a specific parameter, also called standards

A

calibration

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156
Q

Substances that are patient like used to validate run after calibration and tests the accuracy and precision of the methodCan use sera/BF thats stable for at least…

A

controlsa year

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157
Q

Control reqs

A

should be pt likerun at lease 2 levelsstablenever used to calibrate

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158
Q

Term that is the agreement between the measured quanitity and its true valueHow close the value is to the true value

A

accuracy

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159
Q

Material prepared/purchased w/stated or expected value

A

assay control

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160
Q

Material whose value is not known except when assayed w/in lab by repeated testing

A

unassayed control

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161
Q

Aggrement among replicate measurements. How close the single values are to one another. The repeatability or reproducibility

A

precision

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162
Q

The more precise the method, the…the SD among replicate results

A

smaller

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163
Q

Actual middle value

A

median

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164
Q

value that occurs the greatest frequency

A

mode

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165
Q

average of all values, included in control material, represented by /x

A

mean

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166
Q

dispersion of control values about the mean.repeatability, reproducibility, precision

A

SD

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167
Q

If data have a normal distrubution, the mean/mode/median are…

A

about the same

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168
Q

Difference between highest and lowest values

A

range

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169
Q

average squared distance of data points from the mean

A

variance

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170
Q

square root of the variance

A

SD

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171
Q

SD expressed as percentage of the mean

A

CVcoefficient of variation

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172
Q

CV formula….acceptable CV is less than…% for most analytical systems

A

SD/mean x 100

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173
Q

1SD…% will fall to the right and left of the mean, so…% of all data fall within 1SD

A

34.1% fall to right and left68.2% of all data fall within 1SD

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174
Q

2SD…% of all data will fall between 2 SD

A

95.5% of all data fall within 2SD

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175
Q

3SD…% of all data will fall within 3SD

A

99.6% of all data fall within 3SD

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176
Q

The lab normally runs within …or…% confidence limit to be considered accurate and precise

A

2SD, 95%

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177
Q

A chart with a normal distrubution curve on its side. Used to determine if a run is acceptable/quality of run.Values within…on each side are accepted as being accurate and preciseAccurate test results fall w/in acceptable limits of +/-…SDs….% of the time

A

Levey Jennings chart2SD

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178
Q

Signal of errors…consecutive results fall on…side of mean…consecutive results fall outside……result falls outside….

A

5 consecutive results fall on 1 side of mean2 consecutive results fall outside 2SD1 result falls outside 3SD

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179
Q

6 steps in finding source of signal errors

A
  1. clerical2. reagent3. procedural/maintainence4. retest ctrl5. recalibrate instrument/new ctrl6. call tech
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180
Q

Error thats unpredicable, no obvious pattern and almost always preventable.Large deviation from mean.

A

Random error

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181
Q

3 Random error causes…Remedy…

A

operator error (pipetting etc)electronic fluctuation in instrumentinterfering substancesRemedy: repeat test with fresh reagents, good working pipettes

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182
Q

Error that happens over a period of time, data points are not evenly distributed about the mean.This can be described as…or….

A

Systemetic errorshift or trends

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183
Q

Error where data pts gradually drift from the mean.Gradual loss of reliability.

A

trend

184
Q

Error with abrubt change in data pts from mean.

A

Shift

185
Q

2 causes of trend

A

-deterioration/aging of reagents, ctrl, light -accumulation of debris cuvette window

186
Q

4 causes of shift

A

-change in reagent lot/without calibration-failure of calibration-instrument maintence-change in room temp

187
Q

Set of rules/decision criteria to decided whether an analytical run is in control or out of control..

A

Westgard Multirules

188
Q

A…is an interval w/in which the accuracy and precision of testing system are expected to be stable but cannot be greater than 24hrs or less the frequency stated by m2anufacturer.

A

run

189
Q

Multirule where you accept the run/is a warning1 ctrl exceeds mean by +/-2SD

A

1-2S

190
Q

Multirule where you reject, 1 ctrl exceeds mean by +/-3SD

A

1-3S

191
Q

Rule where you rejct, 2 consecutive exceeds mean by +-2SD.May be beginning of systemic error

A

2-2S

192
Q

Rule where you reject, two consecutive is greater than +/- 4SDMay be due to random error

A

R-4S

193
Q

Rule where you reject, 4 consecutive exceed by +/-1SD in the same direction.May be systematic error

A

4-1S

194
Q

Rule where you reject, 10 consecutive exceed in same direction.May be systematic

A

10x

195
Q

Normal range, normal value, ref range also called…Refer to a normal grp of individuals free from disease and represent…% of the population

A

reference interval95%

196
Q

If no existing analyze or methodology exists to do comparative studies, need ….to… peopleIf method already in place, ref interval is validated by using method comparision.Most common ref interval study used in lab is as few as…test subjects

A

120-70040

197
Q

Parameters categorized as sensitivity, specificity and predicitive value are broadly defined as…

A

diagnostic efficiency

198
Q

A predicitive value of a methods ability to detect patients with a disease is called the…Probability of correctly classifying diseased patient as disease

A

sensitivity of a test

199
Q

the test that has 100% sensitivity can detect the disease in question in every patient who has the disease is called

A

true positive

200
Q

Diagnostic sensitivity formulas

A

diseased w/+ result/total diseased x100%ortrue pos/# true pos + # false neg x 100%

201
Q

The abilty to predict the value of a method to exclude a patient without disease is called…Correctly classifying a nondiseased person as nondiseased

A

specificity

202
Q

The test that has 100% specificity will always be negative, and a patient who tests negative does not have the disease

A

true negative rate

203
Q

Diagnositic specificity formulas

A

nondiseased w/neg result/total #nondiseased x 100%ortrue neg/# true neg + # false pos x100%

204
Q

positive predictive value formula…% of the time a positive test will be true

A

true pos/#true pos +#false pos x100%

205
Q

negative predictive value formula…% of the time a negative test will be true

A

true neg/#true neg+#false neg x100%

206
Q

Differences between repeated and successive test results…

A

delta check

207
Q

Delta check can be usesd as a form of …

A

quality assurance

208
Q

4 parameters delta checks can be based on…

A

-current result minus previous-current-previousx100%/previous-delta diff/delta time-delta % change/delta time

209
Q

Any test performed at the time a rapid decision can be made that leads to treatment w/immediate pt outcome

A

POCTpoint of care testing

210
Q

5 POCT classifications

A

-off site-alternate sit-physican office-near patient-beside

211
Q

POCT devices have these characteristics

A

-portable-easy to use, mininal steps-results w/in mins-flexible test menus-reagent at RT-built in cal/QC

212
Q

Ensures the electronics of the device are performing as expected

A

internal QC

213
Q

Tests the system in the same manner as a patient sample

A

external QC

214
Q

Tests the system and its operators blindly by providing unknown samples

A

PT

215
Q

Examples of POC device principles

A

-reflectance-electrochem/impedance-spectrophotometry-fluorescen-PCR

216
Q

Most POCT classified as…POCT is… …. than conventional lab testing

A

moderate complexicity testsmore expensive

217
Q

Testing personell req…

A

-On/B4 April 1995 highschool, clinical training-Until Sep 1997 high school, clinical exp-After 1997 AS-AS or equivalent education/training-licensed physician (doctor,master,bacherlor in chem/phy/bio, or CLS/MT accredited)

218
Q

CLIA reg to evaluate/document performance for high complexicity testing at least…during the first year, then at least….

A

semiannually the first year then annually

219
Q

Lab must document/assess problems during quality assurance reviews and take corrective action to prevent reoccurance

A

performance improvement projects

220
Q

Lab must keep docs of quality assurance activities for….

A

2 yrs

221
Q

Incidents which involves risk of injury or actual injury must be reported to risk management within

A

48hrs

222
Q

Event which facility personell could exercise control and which is associated in whole or in part with the facility’s intervention, rather than the condition for which such intervention occured.An event in which care resulted in an undesirable clinical outcome-an outcome not caused by underlying disease-that prolonged the patient stay, caused permanent patient harm, required life-saving intervention, or contributed to death.

A

adverse incident

223
Q

Name of term where risk management must report serious adverse incidients to the state within 15 days

A

code 15

224
Q

an occurence that results in unanticipated death or major loss of functions not related to the natural course of patients illness or underlying condition.

A

sentinel eventA sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk thereof. Serious injury specifically includes loss of limb or function. The phrase “or the risk thereof” includes any process variation for which a recurrence would carry a significant chance of a serious adverse outcome. Such events are called “sentinel” because they signal the need for immediate investigation and response. The terms “sentinel event” and “medical error” are not synonymous; not all sentinel events occur because of an error and not all errors result in sentinel events.

225
Q

Process variation for which a recurrence carries a significant chance of serious adverse event

A

near missA near miss is something that you instinctively recognize at the moment. It usually comes with a surge of adrenaline and relief. We also know it as a “close call,” a “narrow escape,” or a “near accident.”In fact, “near accident” is probably the best general definition of “near miss.”

226
Q

In depth analysis of an occurence by a multidisciplinary team of involved employees.It is a structured facilitated team process to identify root causes of an event that resulted in an undesired outcome and develop corrective actions.

A

root cause anaysis

227
Q

OSHA..is part of…and a…agency

A

occupational safety and health adminthe US dept of laborfederal agency

228
Q

Fed agency that issues regulations to ensure employee workplace safety with employers with 1+ employees

A

OSHA

229
Q

In addition to having id, severity of hazard, nature/degree, and recommended measures to minimize adverse effects,label of hazardous materials should have these 3 things

A

-name-address-phone of manufacterer

230
Q

Standard that requires pictograms on labels to alert users of chemical hazards

A

hazard communication standard

231
Q

6 chemical hazard classifications for pictogram labels

A

-carcinogen-corrossive-flammable-irritant-toxic

232
Q

Pictogram with skull and crossbones for what 1 hazard

A

acute toxicity

233
Q

Pictogram of environment for what 1 hazard

A

aquatic toxicity

234
Q

Pictogram of flame over circle for what 1 hazard

A

oxidizers

235
Q

Pictogram of exploding bomb for what 3 hazards

A

-explosives-self reactivesSelf reactive substances are thermally unstable liquids or solids liable to undergo a strongly exothermic thermal decomposition even without participation of oxygen (air). -organic perioxides: organic peroxides supply both the oxygen and the fuel source.

236
Q

Pictogram of corrosion (test tubes dripping on hand)for what 3 hazards

A

-skin corrosion/burn-corrosive to metals-eye damage

237
Q

Pictogram of gas cylinder for what 1 hazard

A

gases under pressure

238
Q

Pictogram of exclamation mark for what 6 hazards

A

-irritant(skin, eye)-skin sensitizer-respiratory tract irritant-acute toxicity-narcotic effects-hazardous to ozone layer

239
Q

Pictogram of flame for what 6 hazards

A

-flammables-pyrophorics: Pyrophoric materials are substances that ignite instantly upon exposure to oxygen. -self heating-emits flammable gas-self reactives-organic peroxides

240
Q

Pictogram of health hazard(person) of what 6 hazards

A

-carcinogen-mutageniticity-reproductive toxicity-target organ toxicity-aspiration toxicity-respiratory sensitizer

241
Q

Safety training required by…every…kept for…

A

OSHA, year3yrs

242
Q

A written program to set forth procedures, equipment, PPE, and work practices to help protect employees from health hazards by hazardous chemicals

A

Chemical hygiene plan

243
Q

Plan required by OSHA concerning bloodborrne pathogens that describes potential risks and measures taken to protect/if exposed

A

exposure control plan

244
Q

Term that all samples are infectious and also contaminated w/HIV, HBV and all sharps are contaminated

A

Universal precautions/Standard Precautions

245
Q

Common sources of HIV, HepB,C include blood and body fluids such as these…

A

-semen, vaginal secretions-CSF, snynovial, pleural, peritoneal, amniotic-saliva in dental settings-unfixed tissues/organs-cell, tissue organ cultre

246
Q

Primary transmission modes for HIV, HBV, HCV are these 3

A

-puncture wound contaminated objects-skin contact with infectious fluid/tissue thru broken skin-mucous membrane contact (eye, nose, mouth)

247
Q

Hepatitis that is fecal oral,foodborne, vaccine available

A

Hep A

248
Q

Hep A labelevated…and…two ab and correlation…done with…

A

elevated ALT, biliIgM=diseaseIgG=immunitydone with EIA

249
Q

Hep B transmitted thru these 3

A

-sex-needs/IV drug-transfusion

250
Q

Hep B incubation period…95% are…or…5% are..

A

asymptomatic or acutechronic

251
Q

Order of apperance of HepB markers

A

-HBV DNA-HBsAg-HBeAg-anti-HBc-anti-HBe-anti-HBs

252
Q

First detectable Hep B marker…detected using…

A

HBV DNANAT

253
Q

Two Hep B antigens in acute phase, very infectious

A

HBsAgHBeAg

254
Q

Hep B marker indicating viral replication and most infectious

A

HBeAg

255
Q

Marker that is marker for previous infection and is in recovery phase and remains throughout persons life

A

anti-HBc

256
Q

Marker where infection is resolving and patient is immune; is protective against future

A

Anti-HBs

257
Q

Marker due to immunity due to vaccination

A

anti-HBs

258
Q

Two Hepatitis with vaccines

A

Hep A and B

259
Q

Hep similar to Hep B, sex/iv use/trans;7-8wk incubation;elevated ALT

A

Hep C

260
Q

Hep C tests:EIA for…RT-PCR for…

A

EIA: antibody to HCVRT PCR: HCV RNA

261
Q

Hep virus that needs HBV, IV drug/hemophiliacs

A

Hep D

262
Q

Hepatitis thats cause of epidemic and sporadic heptatis in developing countries;resemebles Hep A, fecal oral

A

Hep E

263
Q

HIV spreads thru…or….It infects…

A

sex, IV drugCD4+ T cells

264
Q

Opportunisitc pathogens in HIV:3 Parasites…4 viruses…2 fungi…1 bacteria….

A

Parasites-crytosporidium-pneumocystis-toxoplasmaviral-HBV, CMV, EBV, HSVFungal-candida-CryptococcusBacteria-mycobacterium

265
Q

Two types of HIV…Dominant one worldwide…which one is slower…

A

HIV1,2Dominant HIV1Slower HIV2

266
Q

Groups in HIV1

A

M,N,O

267
Q

Incubation period for HIV…full blown AIDS when CD4 drows below…

A

18mths200 cell/microL

268
Q

Reversal of T Helper to suppresor CD4:CD8,what is normal ratio, ratio in HIV

A

normal >1.5HIV <0.5

269
Q

Name of therapy that interferes with any aspect of HIV rep/spread

A

HAARThightly active antiretroviral therapy

270
Q

Technique used for qualitative detection of antibodies and antigens to both HIV1,2

A

ELISA

271
Q

No further testing for HIV is required for…on the…immunoassay

A

nonreactive on initial

272
Q

Specimens with reactive ag/ab or repeatedly reactive should do a test that….from…

A

differentiates HIV1 ab from HIV2 ab

273
Q

Specimens reactive at initial and nonreactive on HIV1/2 ab differentiation should be tested using

A

HIV1 NAT

274
Q

High risk tasks

A

needles, shaprs usageinvasive procedures w/bleedinglarge amount of bloodspill,splatter, splashes

275
Q

Plan name that establishes procedures and utilizes appropriate materials and equipment to minimize exposure to bloodborne pathogens

A

exposure control plan

276
Q

Enginerring controls

A

hand wash, sharps containers, leakproof containers, protective shields

277
Q

Work practice controls

A

-hand wash-handle needles appropriatly, no double handed recap, not overfilled, no hands in sharp container-leaking/puntured in second container-closed b4 disposed of-no mouth pipette-no food etc in lab

278
Q

Labels not required if .. .. or … .. are used

A

red bags or red containers

279
Q

Hep B vaccine must be made available within…days of initial employment

A

10 days

280
Q

OSHA requires exposed person be tested after initial exposure then at…,…, and…months. If person refuses testing, blood should be drawn and saved for…days

A

3, 6, 12 months90 days

281
Q

How often does OSHA require blood borne pathogen training

A

yearly

282
Q

When there’s potential to generate aerosols of M.tb or large concentrations used BSC class…

A

2

283
Q

BSC class that allows unsterlized room air into cabinet and around area/material and only sterilizing the air that is exhausted outside by… …

A

BSC class 1negative pressure

284
Q

BSC class with a sash that sterilizes the air that flows over the infectious material as well as the air that is exhausted.

A

BSC class 2

285
Q

BSC class 2 also called

A

laminar flow BSC

286
Q

Category/Subcategory of BSC… which is self contained and 70% of air is recirculated by passing thru HEPA filter

A

BSC 2A

287
Q

Category/Subcategory of BSC…used by radioisotopes, toxic chemicals, or carcinogens

A

BSC 2B

288
Q

BSC completely enclosed and has negative pressure. Most protection. Air is sterilized while infectious material is handled with gloves.

A

BSC 3

289
Q

Most clinical micro labs use class…BCSsCertified once installed, then…..

A

BSC 2Aannually

290
Q

Code 15

A

Name of term where risk management must report serious adverse incidients to the state within 15 days

291
Q

Markers in convalescent/recovery phase of hepB

A

AntiHBc, antiHBe

292
Q

Marker for previous infection hepb

A

AntiHBc

293
Q

% of the time a positive test will be true

A

positive predictive value

294
Q

% of the time a negative test will be true

A

negative predictive value

295
Q

BSL not known to consistently cause disease in humans and used in standard micro practicesexamples are nonpathogenic ie. Ecoli, B.subtilis

A

BSL 1

296
Q

BSL with agents associated with human disease aquired thru percutaneous injury,ingestion, or mucous membrane.BSL 1 practice and limited access, biohazard warnings, sharps precausingsie. S.aureus, E.coli 157, K.pneumo, HBV, HIV

A

BSL 2

297
Q

BSL with indigenous agents may cause serious or lethal disease thru inhalation.BSL2 practice and controlled access, decontaminationM.tb, B.abortus, Y.pestis. B.antracis, C.immitis

A

BSL 3

298
Q

BSL with dangerous agents which cause individual risk of aerosol transmitted lab infections, fatal, no vaccines/treatmentBSL3 practice and clothing change, shower, decontaminationEbola, Lassa, Marburg

A

BSL 4

299
Q

BSL used with most standard microbiological practices not known to cause issues

A

BSL 1

300
Q

BSL used thats most fatal, no vaccine/treatment, risk of aerosol

A

BSL 4

301
Q

BSL used with limited access, biohard signs, and sharps precaustions, most common pathological pathogens seen

A

BSL 2

302
Q

BSL used for agents that are generally inhaled and lethal, decontamination

A

BSL 3

303
Q

B.subtilis, E.coli used BSL

A

1

304
Q

ebola, lassa, marburg use BSL

A

4

305
Q

m.tb, B.aborus, Y.pestis, B.anthracis, C.immitis use BSL

A

3

306
Q

S.aureas, E.coli 157, K.pneumo, HBV, HIV use BSL

A

2

307
Q

3 types of gas stored in cylinders…and examples

A

liquefied: chlorine, propane, CO2nonliquefied: helium, nitrogendissolved gases: acetylene

308
Q

…is lowest temp which vapor of a flammable liquid can be ignited in air

A

Flashpoint

309
Q

A flammable liquid is any liquid with a flashpoint below …F/CStored in…

A

100F/37Cflammable liquid safety cabinet

310
Q

Safety color coding:red means 3 things…yellow means…orange means..fluorescent orange…Color is contrasted with…

A

red: fire, danger, stopyellow: cautionorange: warningfluorescent orange: bio hazardblack

311
Q

Fire pull alarms, bio med waste containers, and emergency stop are color…

A

red

312
Q

Radiation signs are

A

yellow

313
Q

Color biological hazard signs used to signify potential prescence of biohazardous infectious agent posing potential risk is color

A

fluorescent orange

314
Q

Organization that sets color coded scheme for hazards

A

NFPAnational fire protection agency

315
Q

Blue diamond…0-4…

A

health hazardnormal to deadly

316
Q

Red diamond…0-4…

A

fire hazardwon’t burn to flash pt below 73F

317
Q

White diamond…6 specific hazards…

A

specific hazard-ACID-ALK (alkali)-COR (corrosive)-OXY (oxidizer)-radioactive symbol-W crossed out: don’t use water

318
Q

Yellow diamond

A

reactivity0-4stable, may detonate

319
Q

Fire with ordinary combustible material…Such as…

A

Class Apaper, wood, clothsome rubber, plastic

320
Q

Fire w/flammable or combustible liquid….Such as…

A

Class Bgasses, greasessome rubber, plastic

321
Q

Fire w/energized electric equipment

A

Class C

322
Q

Fire w/combustible metal…such as…

A

Class Dmag,sodium,lithium, potassium

323
Q

Class extinguisher ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, cloth

A

Class A

324
Q

Class extinguisher flammable or combustible liquid such as acetone, ethanol etc

A

Class B

325
Q

Class extinguisher w/energized electrical

A

Class C

326
Q

Class extinguisher w/combustible metal

A

Class D

327
Q

Fire acrynom

A

Remove people from dangerActivate alarm, callConfine fireExtinguish or evacuate

328
Q

Extinguisher acroynym

A

Pull pinAim at baseSqueeze handleSweep side to side

329
Q

Electrical safety checked… … and then…

A

upon install, annually

330
Q

Requirements for radiation safety 4 reqs

A

-employee gets motoring equiment to monitor exposure-records and checkins annually-post sign radition caution symbol, caution, radiation area-keep radiation as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) per NRC

331
Q

NRC, ALARA

A

Nuclear regulatory commisionas low as reasonably achievable

332
Q

Federal agency regulates disposal of toxic/bio hazardous waste

A

EPAenvironmental protection agency

333
Q

Act that gives EPA authority to control hazardous waste such as generation, trans, treatment, storage, disposal

A

RCRAresouce conservation and recovery act

334
Q

Hazardous waste def…RCRA def…

A

any waste w/properties that make it dangerous or potentially harmful to environment or public healthRCRA: waste that appears on one of the four hazardous waste lists or exhibits at least 1 of 4 characteristics (ignitablity,corrosivity,reactivity,toxicity)

335
Q

Fed agency regulates packing, labeling, trans of hazardous.National safety by air/rail/highway/water

A

DOTdept of trans

336
Q

IATA..purpose…

A

international air transport associationregulate packing,shipping by air

337
Q

DOT training req within… and every…

A

90 days3yrs

338
Q

DOT HMR…requires…

A

Hazardous material regulationsshipper to adhere to pretrans reqs

339
Q

DOT requires markings on hazardous with these 4

A

-shipping name-UN id #-inhalation hazard if necessary-name/address cosignee

340
Q

DOT Hazard has how many classes

A

9 stupid classes I won’t remember

341
Q

ICAOIMO

A

international civil aviation organizationinstructions for safe transport by airinternational maritime organizationby water

342
Q

DOTs HMR has two categories… and ……capable of causing permanent disability/fatal…not in a form to generally be capable of permanent disability or fatal…which category does clinical lab specimens fall

A

Category A, BA: harmB: not generally harmful, most lab specimens

343
Q

Not subject to packing and shipping reqs…

A

-blood/plasma from uninfected-dried blood spots, fecal occult blood on material-PT samples for research,diag,investigational

344
Q

Category B is triple packaged….,…., and …

A

primary receptaclesecondary packagingouter packaging

345
Q

LAW that prohibits discrimination of disabilities either presently,past, perceived to, or associated with someone

A

ADAamerican disablities act

346
Q

Def of ADA disability…Def of qualified employee…

A

physical or mentallimits major life activitycan perform the essential functions of the job or without a reasonable accommodaiton

347
Q

FEDREAL AGENCY enforces employment , discrimination laws, protects from discrimination such as age, disability, equal pay, race, religion,sex,etc

A

EEOCequal employment opportunitycommission

348
Q

EEOC

A

equal employment opportunitycommission

349
Q

Federal law that defines min wage, overtime, how to be paid…classfied into…and…

A

FLSAfair labor standards actnonexempt: hourlyexempt: salaried

350
Q

FLSA

A

fair labor standards act

351
Q

ACT of 1963 prohibiting discrimnation on race,color,creed,religion,sex etc which now includes disabilities, veterans, 40-70

A

title 7 civil rights act

352
Q

Form of insurance providing compensation medical care who are injured on job in exchange for mandatory relinquishment of right to sue, also called compensation bargain

A

workmans comp

353
Q

Payments made by goverment to unemployed; proportional to their previous earned salary

A

unemployment comp

354
Q

Requires employers with more than 50 employees up to …weeks of unpaid job proteced leave in any…mth period to care for baby,kid,spouse,parent or serious healthcan also leave intermittently or reduced schedule when medically necessary without employee permission, can still get benefits and right to return

A

FMLA12 weeks unpaid job leave in 12mth period

355
Q

FMLA

A

family and medical leave act

356
Q

Act that provide health insurance for…or…mths after retiring,resigning,laid off, full time to part time, or discharged except for… ….

A

COBRAconsolidated omnibus budget reconcilation act18 or 36mthsexpect for gross misconduct

357
Q

Act that -enables workers to keep health insurance protection when changing jobs-establishes electronic healthcare trans standards for HHS-maintain privacy etc health info

A

HIPAA

358
Q

HIPAA

A

health insurance portability and accountability act

359
Q

PHIexamples

A

protected health infomed recappt schedulebillingmed list

360
Q

eval of tecnicial skills..done…

A

competency evalannually

361
Q

eval of knowledge, skills, attitudes and beliefs…done…

A

performance evalanually

362
Q

voluntary process non government grants recognition to an individual who has met certain education reqs and has entry level competency by examination

A

certification

363
Q

mandatory process some states grant permission to engage in an occupaiton

A

licensure

364
Q

voluntary process non government agency grants recognition to an organization that achieved a set predetermined standards

A

accreditation

365
Q

Budget items such as salaries and benefits changed based on previous years budget, based on # of tests

A

forecast budget

366
Q

Budget with fixed amount of money granted for fixed period of time, 1-2yrs.Usually government bodies

A

Appropriation budget

367
Q

Budget with fixed(overhead) and variable expenses(reagents) are itemilzed.Usefull when test volume subject to change, thus able to adjust variable portion

A

Flexible budget

368
Q

Budget used for continuous managment of ogranization used by lab managers

A

operational budget

369
Q

Budget designed for purchase of equipment, expansion of program or remodeling

A

capital budget

370
Q

Budget where historical budget is disregarded and new costs/items are made.Eliminates dead wood

A

Zero based budget

371
Q

Budget prepared quarterly and more accurate than annual

A

Rolling quarter budget

372
Q

Budget made monthly to anticipate cash flow, received/spent. Predicts timing/amt of cash flow

A

Cash budget

373
Q

Cost directly assigned to production of product, billable test, consumables, labor

A

direct

374
Q

costs not directly involved in production, personell costs, supervisor,phleb

A

indirect costs

375
Q

costs that change with production volume, ie reagents

A

variable costs

376
Q

costs that don’t change with production volume, lease on equipement, techs needed

A

fixed

377
Q

Fringe benefits can be …% to …%examples

A

20-25% of salarySS tax,FICAunemployment, workmans comphealth/life/disability insuranceretirement,vacationsick,maternity

378
Q

Standardized descriptions of 5 character, alpha numeric codes w/text descriptercoders/billers use to report healthcare services/procedures for reimbursement

A

CPTcurrent procedural terminology

379
Q

CPT

A

current procedural terminology

380
Q

Category of CPT describes procedure/service with 5 digits

A

Category 1 CPT

381
Q

Category of CPT supplemental tracking for performance measurement

A

Category II CPT

382
Q

Category of CPT that is temporary tracking for new and emerging technologies

A

Category III CPT

383
Q

Term when procedure was modified but code/def was not changedexamples

A

CPT code modifierserum electrophoPLT aggBF crystalsie. 91 repeat clinical diag lab test

384
Q

ICDICD-10-CM

A

international classificaition of diseasesclinical modifications

385
Q

Oldest method of tracking diseases and mortality in the world. Tabular list with disease code #s, index of disease entries, classification system for proceduresie. R31.0 asymptomatic hematuria

A

ICD, International Classification of DiseasesICD-10-CM

386
Q

HCPCS codes

A

healthcare common procedure coding system

387
Q

Standard HIPAA code set for reporting supplies, orthotic/prostetic devices, durable med equip.Report healthcare provider and services.ie.G0001 routine venipuncture for collection of blood

A

HCPCShealthcare common procedurecoding system

388
Q

Acquisition or improvement of work related skills by people already in the workforce. Keeps people up to date on skills etc.

A

CEcontinuing education

389
Q

Old name for CLSI that develop accredited consensus clin lab standards

A

NCCLSnational committee for clinical lab standards

390
Q

Accredits labs under CMS, proficiency testing, and is member based physician organization

A

CAPcollege of american pathologists

391
Q

Agency that approves new test methodologies/instruments/reagents before consumers can use

A

FDA

392
Q

Biosafety hoods inspected…

A

annually

393
Q

Federal legislation that regulates most labs

A

CLIA

394
Q

Nonprofit that accredits healthcare organizations and programs in the US

A

JCAHOjoint commision on accreditation of healthcare organization

395
Q

Labs must have inspections every…Required by..

A

2yrsCLIA

396
Q

Proficiency testing that doesn’t meet CLIA is

A

failed SAME analyze in two consecutive PT events or 2 out of 3 testing events

397
Q

4 examples of alternate PT testing

A

-split samples sent to other lab or ref lab-split sample w/established in house method, assayed material or regional pool-clinical validation by chart review-participation in ungraded/educational PT program

398
Q

Split sample

A

Split sample comparison is performed by splitting a single sample into two aliquots. One aliquot is tested using the primary test method while the second aliquot is tested on by the same or an alternate test method at another acceptable laboratory.

399
Q

transcription error entering manual result is an example of

A

post analytical

400
Q

Most common analytical error

A

not checking specimen integrity, HIL

401
Q

Most common post analytical error

A

clerical error

402
Q

review procedure…and…

A

upon implementation and substantial revisians

403
Q

thermometers must be check against NIST …

A

annually

404
Q

Centrifuge speed, timers checked

A

every 6 mths

405
Q

Check quarterly

A

automatic pippetes 4x/yr

406
Q

CTRL outside 3SD due to

A

random error

407
Q

CTRL with 2 consecutive outside 4SD due to

A

random error

408
Q

If only one CTRL is out of 2SD/95% what do you do

A

repeat same CTRL

409
Q

4 docs req to keep in employee file

A

-job competency training checklist-annual peformance appraise-CE docs-remedial action docs

410
Q

CEUs are…by CAP

A

not mandated

411
Q

CEUs 3 facts

A

-required by some states/organizations-help learn about new stuff-help with networking

412
Q

-customer complaints-monitoring trends for corrected reports are part of

A

QA

413
Q

Federal law that requires competency of lab to be documented

A

CLIA

414
Q

OSHA reqs safety training at…and then…

A

orientation, annually

415
Q

3 OSHA TB plan req

A

-must get PPD skin tests-pos PPD must have annual chest xray-any PT contact must get fit for respirators

416
Q

fire protocol

A

RescueAlarm, call operatorContainExtinguish/evacuate

417
Q

agency regulate disposal of biohazard waste

A

EPA

418
Q

Fed agency regulates facilities that use radioisotopes

A

NRCnuclear regulatory commisson

419
Q

Federal law defines min wage and OT

A

FLSAfair labor standards act

420
Q

Agency enforces equal pay for equal work

A

EEOCequal employmentopportunity commision

421
Q

Title VII, prohibits discrimination in this labor law

A

civil rights act

422
Q

HIPAA law requires….to establish standards for PHI

A

dept of HHS

423
Q

molecules in solution=undissolved moleculesA homogeneous mixture in which the dissolved substance (solute) is in dynamic equilibrium with its undissolved form. A…solution contains the maximum concentration of its solute. This maximum concentration is the solute’s solubility limit.

A

saturated

424
Q

Another term for analytical precision and repeatability

A

Coefficiant of variation

425
Q

QC is a measure of…

A

reliability

426
Q

Random due to these two

A

CTRL outside 3SDCTRL with 2 consecutive outside 4SD

427
Q

99.95% purified chemical that can be measured directly

A

primary standard

428
Q

derived from the primary and is less pure

A

Secondary standard

429
Q

NCCLS

A

NCCLSnational committee for clinical lab standards

430
Q

COBRA

A

COBRAconsolidated omnibus budget reconcilation act

431
Q

laminar flow BSC is BSC #

A

2

432
Q

What hazard communication pictogram defines a skin irritant?

A

Exclamation mark

433
Q

What hazard communication pictogram defines a skin irritant?

A

Exclamation mark

434
Q

What hazard communication pictogram defines a skin/eye and respiratory irritant?

A

Exclamation mark

435
Q

Semi automated calibrated with

A

GravimetricAccuracy of volume is dispensed and adjusted accordingly to the weight

436
Q

OSHA safety training…Records kept..

A

Training annuallyRecords kept 3yrs

437
Q

Water ph

A

7.0

438
Q

Coefficient of variation tests for…QC tests for…

A

CV: analytical precisionQC: reliability

439
Q

60g NaOH in 1L, normality? 1 Equivalent=40gmw for every 1 valence

A

60g/L x 1 Equivalent/40g =1.5N

440
Q

Used as external QC, test accuracy of test methods

A

Proficiency testing

441
Q

Under CLIA these two monitor proficiency testing, one requires

A

CMS requires Joint commission monitors also

442
Q

4 Common causes of failed proficiency testing

A

Clerical errors, instrument/method codes, calibration bias, not returning on time

443
Q

An alternative performance assessment to determine reliability of analytical testing.

A

Split sample testing, alternate proficiency testing

444
Q

What hazard communication pictogram defines oxidizers

A

Flame over circle

445
Q

What hazard communication pictogram defines aquatic toxicity

A

Environment

446
Q

What 2 hazard communication pictograms defines acute toxicity

A

Skull and cross bonesExclamation mark

447
Q

What hazard communication pictogram defines explosives, self reactives, organic peroxides

A

Exploding bomb

448
Q

What hazard communication pictogram defines eye damage

A

Corrosion

449
Q

What hazard communication pictogram defines gases under pressure

A

Gas cylinder

450
Q

What hazard communication pictogram defines narcotic effects and hazardous to ozone layer

A

Exclamation mark

451
Q

What 2 hazard communication pictogram defines self reactives and organic peroxides

A

FlameExploding bomb

452
Q

What hazard communication pictogram defines aspiration/target organ/reproductive toxicity

A

Health hazard

453
Q

BSL, how many levels

A

Biosafety levels, 4

454
Q

BSL1: doesn’t cause disease, most micro practicesBSL 2: disease thru cut, ingest, mucous mem BSL 3: lethal, serious they inhalation BSL 4: right of aerosol, fatal, no vaccines

A

BSL 1: standard micro practices BSL2: standard plus signs, precautions, manualBSL 3: BSL 2 plus controled access and decontamination BSL 4: BSL 3 plus change clothes, shower, decontamination

455
Q

A: paper, wood, clothB: combustible liquidC: energized electricalD: combustible metals

A

…

456
Q

Category of CPT codes:I: procedure or service II: supplemental tracking performance measurement III: temp set of tracking new and emerging technology

A

ICD codes: tracking diseases, mortality, R##.#HCPCS: reporting supplies, orthotic/prosthetic medical equipmentG####

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