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Aviation Basics > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

Aerodrome

A

Any area that is used for the arrival, departure, movement, or servicing of aircraft

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2
Q

Airport

A

An aerodrome that has an airport certificate in force

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3
Q

Maneuvering area

A

Used for take off & landing, include runways and taxiway, not apron

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4
Q

Movement area

A

Maneuvering area plus the apron

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5
Q

Ground traffic

A

All traffic other than aircraft (ex. vehicles, equipment, personnel)

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6
Q

Flight service specialists have the authority to issue instructions to …

A

Vehicles but not aircraft

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7
Q

Air traffic controllers have the authority to issue instructions to …

A

Vehicles and aircraft

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8
Q

According to CAR 602.96 (3), the pilot pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating at or in the vicinity of an aerodrome shall: (name all 7)

A

a) Observe aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding a collision.
b) Conform to or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operation.
c) Make all turns to the left when operating within the aerodrome traffic circuit, except where right turns are specified by the Minister in the Canada Flight Supplement or where otherwise authorized by the appropriate air traffic control unit.
d) If the aerodrome is an airport or heliport, comply with any operating restrictions specified by the Minister in the Canada Flight Supplement.
e) Where practicable, land and take off into the wind unless otherwise authorized by the appropriate air traffic control unit.
f) Maintain a continuous listening watch on the appropriate frequency for aerodrome control communications or, if this is not possible and an air traffic control unit is in operation at the aerodrome, keep a watch for such instructions as they may be issued by visual means by the air traffic control unit.
g) Where the aerodrome is a controlled aerodrome, obtain from the appropriate air traffic control unit, either by radio communication or by visual signal, clearance to taxi, take off from or land at the aerodrome.

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9
Q

Name the 6 parts of a circuit.

A

Downwind leg
Base leg
Final approach leg
Crosswind leg
Departure & overshoot path
Upwind side

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10
Q

Downwind leg

A

A flight path parallel to the landing runway in the direction opposite to landing. Extends between the crosswind leg and the base leg.

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11
Q

Base leg

A

A flight path extending from the end of the downwind leg to the extended centreline of the approach end of the landing runway (or landing path).

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12
Q

Final approach leg

A

A flight path extending from the end of the base leg in the direction of landing to and along the extended centreline of the runway (or landing path) to the threshold of the landing runway (or landing path).

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13
Q

Crosswind leg

A

This is most commonly the path joining the departure leg to the downwind leg, but it can also be the path joining the upwind side to the downwind leg.

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14
Q

Departure and overshoot path

A

The path that extends from the departure end of the runway along the extended centreline to the point where the aircraft reaches 500 feet AGL and begins the crosswind leg.

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15
Q

Upwind side

A

The area on the opposite side of the landing runway from the downwind leg.

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16
Q

Clearance limit

A

Point (in the circuit or a physical landmark familiar to the pilot) to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance.

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17
Q

According to CAR 602.105, no person shall operate an aircraft at or in the vicinity of an aerodrome except in accordance with the applicable noise abatement procedures and requirements relating to: (name 10)

A

a) Preferential runways
b) Minimum noise routes
c) Hours when aircraft operations are prohibited or restricted
d) Arrival procedures
e) Departure procedures
f) Duration of flights
g) The prohibition or restriction of training flights
h) VFR or visual approaches
i) Simulated approach procedures
j) The minimum altitude for the operation of aircraft in the vicinity of the aerodrome

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18
Q

Services provided by ATS personnel

A

Information services
Advisory services
Control services
Alerting services

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19
Q

Services provided by flight information centre

A
  • Conduct pilot briefings
  • Accept and process flight plans
  • Communicate in-flight information
  • Relay ATC clearances
  • Assist aircraft in emergency situations
  • Provide alerting services and search for VFR aircraft
  • Monitor navigational aids (NAVAIDs)
  • Issue notices to pilots on airport conditions, NAVAID serviceability, and surface weather reports
  • Perform surface weather observations (at some locations)
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20
Q

FIC is identified as ____ when communicating on a frequency.

A

Radio

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21
Q

Services provided by flight service station.

A
  • Provide AAS and RAAS
  • Control vehicles
  • Accept and process flight plans
  • Relay ATC clearances
  • Assist aircraft in emergency situations
  • Provide alerting services and search for VFR aircraft
  • Monitor NAVAIDs
  • Perform surface weather observations
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22
Q

Flight service specialist is identified as ____ when communicating on a frequency.

A

Radio

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23
Q

Responsibilities of apron advisory.

A

Assign gates
Issue pushback instructions
Provide advisory information

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24
Q

Apron advisory service is identified as _____ when communicating on a radio frequency.

A

APRON

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25
Q

Responsibility of clearance delivery

A
  • Issue IFR clearances for IFR aircraft
  • Provide IFR and VFR pilots with the pertinent airport information
  • Create, amend, and delete FDE strips
  • Forward the FDE to the ground controller to provide them with the aircraft’s flight information
  • Answer or initiate phone calls
  • Coordinate with various agencies
  • Perform various clerical tasks
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26
Q

Clearance delivery is identified as ____ when communicating on a radio

A

Clearance delivery

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27
Q

Responsibility of ground controllers:

A
  • Provide services normally performed by clearance delivery
  • Issue airport information to aircraft
  • Issue taxi authorizations to aircraft
  • Issue authorizations for vehicle movements
  • Coordinate with tower controllers
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28
Q

Ground control position is identified as ____ when communicating on a radio frequency.

A

Ground

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29
Q

Responsibilities of a tower controller.

A
  • Issue take-off and landing clearances
  • Pass traffic
  • Ensure separation between aircraft
  • Coordinate with the ground controller and the ACC controller (this could be a terminal controller or an enroute controller depending on the location)
  • Provide information services
  • Provide alerting services
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30
Q

Tower control is identified as ____ on a radio frequency.

A

Tower

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31
Q

Terminal control positions

A

Departure control
Arrival control
Terminal surveillance

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32
Q

Departure control is identified as ____ when communicating on a radio frequency.

A

Departure

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33
Q

Arrival control is identified as ____ when communicating on a radio frequency.

A

Arrival

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34
Q

Combined arrival and departure control is identified as ______ when communicated on a radio frequency.

A

Terminal

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35
Q

Terminal surveillance controllers control _____ aircrafts.

A

all VFR aircraft.

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36
Q

Enroute control position is identified as ____ when communicating on a radio frequency.

A

Centre

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37
Q

Minimum visual condition requirements for VFR flights in controlled airspace:

A
  • The aircraft must be operated with visual reference to the surface.
  • Flight visibility must be at least 3 miles.
  • The aircraft’s distance from any cloud must be at least 500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.
  • When the aircraft is operated in a control zone:
    o Ground visibility must be at least 3 miles.
    o The aircraft must be at least 500 feet above the ground, except during takeoff or landing.
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38
Q

IMC

A

Instrument meteorological conditions

Visual conditions that require pilots to fly using IFR rather than visual check points.

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39
Q

IMC refers to visibility of ______.

A

Less than 1 mile

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40
Q

SVFR

A

Special VFR flights

Conditions below minimum visual requirements for VFR flights but above IMC

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41
Q

Aircraft may be operated in special VFR flight (SVFR) within a control zone if:

A
  • Flight visibility is 1 mile or greater, for aircraft other than helicopters
  • Flight visibility is 1/2 mile or greater, for helicopters
  • The aircraft is operated clear of clouds and with visual reference to the surface at all times
  • When reported, ground visibility is not less than 1 mile for fixed-wing aircraft or ½ mile for helicopters

For aircraft other than helicopters, nighttime SVFR operations are limited to landings only.

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42
Q

VFROTT

A

VFR over the top

When pilots encounter clouds that prevent them from having visual reference to the ground

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43
Q

Rules for VFR OTT Flight

A

Aircraft may be operated in VFR OTT flight during the day in the cruise portion of the flight if:
* It is operated at a vertical distance of at least 1000 feet from any cloud
* The vertical distance between cloud layers is at least 5000 feet when the aircraft is between two cloud layers
* Flight visibility at cruising altitude is at least 5 miles
* An aerodrome forecast (TAF) for the period from 1 hour before to 2 hours after the estimated time of arrival indicates
o No broken, overcast, or obscured layer lower than 3000 feet above the planned flight altitude; and
o Scattered cloud or clear sky; and
o Ground visibility of at least 5 miles with no precipitation, fog, thunderstorms, or blowing snow

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44
Q

CARs for minimum altitudes of flight, including near or over built-up areas and open-air assemblies of people: Airplanes

A

Airplanes must be 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 2000 feet.

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45
Q

CARs for minimum altitudes of flight, including near or over built-up areas and open-air assemblies of people: Balloons

A

Balloons must be 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 500 feet.

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46
Q

CARs for minimum altitudes of flight, including near or over built-up areas and open-air assemblies of people: Other aircraft

A

Other aircraft must be 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 500 feet.

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47
Q

A pilot may fly below these minimum distance requirements near or over built-up areas and open-air assemblies of people for the purpose of:

A
  • A police operation conducted in the service of the police authority
  • Saving human life
  • Firefighting or air ambulance operations
  • Administration of the Fisheries Act or the Coastal Fisheries Protection Act
  • Administration of the national or provincial parks
  • Flight inspection
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48
Q

In areas that are not built up and do not contain assemblies of people, airplanes, balloons and other aircraft must be at least ____ feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

A

500

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49
Q

Canadian Domestic Airspace is divided into:

A

Norther Domestic Airspace (NDA)
Southern Domestic Airspace (SDA)
High-level airspace
Low-level airspace

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50
Q

High-level airspace is divided into:

A

Arctic Control Area (ACA)
Northern Control Area (NCA)
Southern Control Area (SCA)

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51
Q

ACA is within _____

A

NDA at FL270 and above

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52
Q

NCA is within ______

A

NDA at FL230 and above

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53
Q

SCA is within _______

A

SDA at 18 000ft ASL and above

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54
Q

Define Class A airspace

A

Altitude 18 000ft ASL or above (IFR only)

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55
Q

Flight rules of class A airspace:

A
  • Only IFR aircraft are permitted (VFR aircraft are not permitted)
  • All aircraft are subject to ATC clearance and instruction
  • ATC separation is provided to all aircraft
  • Aircraft must be equipped with a transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment (e.g., an altimeter)
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56
Q

Define Class B airspace

A

Below 18 000ft ASL, but above 12 500ft

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57
Q

Flight rules of Class B airspace:

A
  • Primarily for IFR, but VFR flights are permitted
  • All aircraft are subject to ATC clearance and instructions
  • ATC separation is provided to all aircraft
  • VFR aircraft must have specific equipment on board
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58
Q

Flight rules of Class C airspace

A
  • Both IFR and VFR flights are permitted
  • VFR flights require ATC clearance to enter Class C airspace
  • ATC separation is provided to all IFR aircraft
  • All aircraft are provided with air traffic information (position and intended route of other air traffic in proximity)
  • ATC will provide conflict resolution between IFR and VFR flights as necessary, and between VFR flights upon request, after traffic information has been provided
  • VFR aircraft must have specific equipment on board
  • Class C airspace becomes Class E airspace if the appropriate ATC unit is not in operation
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59
Q

Flight rules of Class D airspace

A
  • Both IFR and VFR flights are permitted
  • VFR flights do not require ATC clearance to enter Class D airspace provided they have required equipment
  • All aircraft, including VFR aircraft, must be equipped with a transponder and automatic pressure altitude equipment in areas designated transponder airspace
  • VFR flights must establish two-way communication with the appropriate ATC agency prior to entering Class D airspace
  • ATC separation is provided to all IFR aircraft
  • All aircraft are provided with air traffic information
  • ATC provides conflict resolution between IFR and VFR flights, and between VFR flights upon request (equipment permitting)
  • Class D airspace becomes Class E airspace if the appropriate ATC unit is not in operation
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60
Q

Flight rules for Class E airspace

A
  • Both IFR and VFR aircraft are permitted
  • ATC separation is provided only to IFR aircraft
  • All aircraft, including VFR aircraft, must be equipped with a transponder and automatic pressure altitude equipment in areas designated as transponder airspace
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61
Q

Define Class C airspace

A

Clearance required

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62
Q

Define Class D airspace

A

Dialogue required

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63
Q

Define Class E airspace

A

Where there is an operational need for controlled airspace, but the requirements for Class A/B/C/D are not met.

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64
Q

Define Class E airspace

A

Where there is an operational need for controlled airspace, but the requirements for Class A/B/C/D are not met.

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65
Q

Define Class F airspace

A

Special use airspace

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66
Q

Class F airspace: Advisory

A

Potentially hazardous activities may be taking place

Aircraft flying VFR should avoid these areas, if possible.

IFR flights are not permitted to enter Class F airspace unless the pilot has obtained permission.

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67
Q

Define Class G airspace

A

Uncontrolled airspace

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68
Q

Flight rules of Class G

A
  • No ATC services are provided; ATC has neither the authority nor responsibility for control over air traffic in Class G airspace
  • Flight information services (like weather updates) and alerting services are provided
  • There are no special requirements for VFR flights
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69
Q

Class F airspace: Restricted

A

Activities occurring in this airspace pose serious safety and security risks

Aircraft are kept clear of restricted areas by the appropriate lateral or vertical minimum.

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70
Q

Class F airspace: danger

A

airspace of defined dimensions, above international waters, within which activities dangerous to other aircraft might be taking place at specified times.

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71
Q

Airway vs air routes

A

Airways are paths used by aircraft in controlled airspace.
Air routes are paths used by aircraft in uncontrolled airspace.

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72
Q

VHF/UHF airways dimensions

A

4 NM on either side of the airway centreline to a distance of 51 NM from the VOR, then within lines that diverge at 4.5 degrees from the VOR until they meet similar lines from the adjacent NAVAID

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73
Q

LF/MF airways dimensions

A

4.34 NM on either side of the airway centreline to a distance of 50 NM from the NDB, and then within lines that diverge at 5 degrees from the NDB until they meet similar lines from the adjacent NAVAID.

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74
Q

Combination VHF/UHF and LF/MF airways dimensions

A

4.34 NM on either side of the airway centreline to a distance of 50 NM from the NDB/ VOR, and then within lines that diverge at 5 degrees from the NDB/VOR until they meet similar lines from the adjacent NAVAID.

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75
Q

What is a low-level VHF/UHF airways is called ____ and is indicated by the letter ____ on aeronautical charts.

A

Victory airways
V

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76
Q

What is a T-route

A

Low-level controlled RNAV route that requires GNSS and RNAV systems for use.

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77
Q

T-route dimensioins

A

10 NM on either side of the centreline

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78
Q

What is a L-route

A

Uncontrolled fixed RNAV routes that require GNSS and RNAV system for use.

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79
Q

What is a high-level airway is called ____ and is indicated by the letter ____ on aeronautical charts.

A

Jet airways
J

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80
Q

Control zones

A

designated areas around certain aerodromes

Purpose is to keep IFR aircraft within controlled airspace during approaches and to facilitate the control of VFR and IFR traffic

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81
Q

Dimensions of control zone

A
  • If there is a civilian control tower within a terminal control area, the radius of a control zone is 7 NM.
  • If not, the radius will typically be 5 NM.
  • Control zones are usually capped at 3000 feet above aerodrome elevation (AAE) unless otherwise specified.
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82
Q

Terminal control areas (TCA)

A

exist at high-volume airports to provide ATC service to arriving, departing, and enroute aircraft

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83
Q

Dimensions of TCA

A
  • Inner circle: 12 NM radius based at 1200 feet AGL
  • Intermediate circle: 35 NM radius based at 2200 feet AGL
  • Outer limit: 45 NM radius from the aerodrome geographic coordinates based at 9500 feet AGL
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84
Q

Control area extensions (CAEs)

A

established at some busy airports where controlled airspace is insufficient to permit required separation between IFR arrivals and departures

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85
Q

Dimensions of CAEs

A

extend from 2200 feet AGL (unless otherwise specified) up to, but not including, 18 000 feet ASL.

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86
Q

Transition areas

A

established when it is considered advantageous or necessary to provide additional controlled airspace for the containment of IFR operations

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87
Q

Dimensions of transition areas

A
  • Transition areas extend from 700 feet AGL (unless otherwise specified) to the base of overlying controlled airspace.
  • The radius is usually 15 NM from the aerodrome coordinates, but it must be large enough to contain all of the aerodrome-published instrument approach procedures.
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88
Q

MOCA
(decode & define)

A

Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude

altitude above sea level (ASL) between specified fixes on airways or air routes; it provides IFR obstacle clearance

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89
Q

MEA
(decode & define)

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude

altitude above sea level (ASL) between specified fixes on airways or air routes that allows reception of an acceptable navigational signal from a NAVAID and provides terrain clearance

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90
Q

MSA
(decode & define)

A

Minimum sector altitude

lowest altitude that provides a minimum clearance of 1000 feet under conditions of standard temperature and pressure above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of a circle with a 25 NM radius

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91
Q

MVA
(decode & define)

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude

lowest altitude for vectoring aircraft by ATC that meets obstacle clearance and radio coverage requirements

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92
Q

Safe altitude 100 NM

A

Lowest altitude that provide a minimum clearance of 1000ft above all obstacles within 100NM of an aerodrome

93
Q

AMA
(decode & define)

A

Area Minimum Altitude

lowest altitude that provides a minimum vertical clearance of 1000 feet above all obstacles located in the area specified

94
Q

MRA
(decode & define)

A

Minimum Reception Altitude

lowest altitude above sea level (ASL) at which acceptable navigational signal coverage is received

95
Q

Name 3 VFR aeronautical charts

A
  • VTA (VFR terminal area charts)
  • VNC (VFR navigation charts)
  • WAC (World aeronautical charts)
96
Q

VTAs
(decode & define)

A

VFR terminal area charts

provide detailed information to VFR pilots operating in busy terminal areas

97
Q

VNCs
(decode & define)

A

VFR Navigation charts

to provide navigation information to pilots during the enroute portion of a VFR flight

98
Q

WACs
(decode & define)

A

World Aeronautical Charts

used for flight planning and in-flight navigation on extended cross-country flights at low-to-medium altitudes and medium-to-high airspeed

99
Q

LO charts provide the following information:

A
  • Airways and route data, minimum altitudes, headings, and distances
  • Flight information boundaries
  • Limited airport information
  • Radio aids and frequencies
  • Reporting points
  • Special use airspace dimensions
100
Q

Name the document containing aircraft type designators

A

ICAO 8643

101
Q

Appropriate altitude for IFR aircraft flying East.

A

Odd altitude in thousands
(ex. 1000/ 25000)

102
Q

Appropriate altitude for IFR aircraft flying West.

A

Even altitude in thousands
(ex. 2000/12000)

103
Q

Appropriate altitude for VFR aircraft flying East.

A

Odd altitude in 500
(ex. 3500/15500)

104
Q

Appropriate altitude for VFR aircraft flying West

A

Even altitude in 500
(ex. 4500/14500)

105
Q

Where is the altimeter setting region?
What is the altimeter setting?

A

all low-level airspace (below FL180) within the Southern Domestic Airspace (SDA)

Pilot obtains the altimeter setting from the nearest station

106
Q

Where is the altimeter setting region?
What is the altimeter setting?

A

all low-level airspace (below FL180) within the Southern Domestic Airspace (SDA)

altimeter setting of the station nearest to the aircraft

107
Q

Where is the standard pressure region?
What is the altimeter setting?

A

All of the NDA and high level airspace of SDA (FL180 and above)

Altimeter 29.92

Altitude is express as FL instead of altitude

108
Q

How to set altimeter when transitioning from altimeter setting region into standard pressure region?

A

Pilot will set the altimeter to 29.92 inches of mercury immediately after leaving the altimeter setting region.

109
Q

How to set altimeter when transitioning from standard pressure region into altimeter setting region?

A

Pilot will obtain the current altimeter setting from the nearest station along the flight route and will set the altimeter immediately prior to entering the altimeter setting region

110
Q

What is defined in CAR 602.34, regarding appropriate altitudes of flight?

A

Pilot of an aircraft must ensure that the aircraft operates at a cruising altitude or flight level appropriate to the aircraft track, unless the pilot is assigned another altitude or flight level by an air traffic control unit

111
Q

What are the phases of flight?

A
  • Departure
  • Enroute
  • Arrival
112
Q

What are the subphases of depature?

A

Pre-flight
Takeoff
Initial climb

113
Q

What are the steps of pre-flight?

A

Standing
Pushback
Taxi

114
Q

Top of descent

A

Point where an aircraft begin a descent from cruise altitude to the final approach fix

115
Q

Which sector will a pilot be communicating with at the top of descent?

A

Enroute

116
Q

Stratiform cloud vs cumuliform cloud

A

Stratiform clouds appear in horizontal layers, have very small vertical motions associated, can cover a large area

Cumuliform clouds have a more prominent vertical formation and usually do not cover a large area. They are the result of rising air currents and have significant updrafts and downdrafts

117
Q

What are the 4 basic types of cumuliform clouds?

A

Cumulus (CU)
Towering cumulus (TCU)
Cumulonimbus (CB)
Altocumulus castellanus (ACC)

117
Q

What are the 4 basic types of cumuliform clouds?

A

Cumulus (CU)
Towering cumulus (TCU)
Cumulonimbus (CB)
Altocumulus castellanus (ACC)

118
Q

Characteristics of CU

A
  • Develop vertically in the form of rising mounds, domes, or towers
  • Have a bulging upper part
  • Appear detached from other clouds
  • Are generally dense with sharp or ragged outlines
  • Are mostly brilliant white at the top and their bases are relatively dark and nearly horizontal
119
Q

Characteristics of TCU

A
  • Made up of a rapidly growing cumulus or individual dome-shaped cloud.
  • The height of a TCU exceeds the width
120
Q

Characteristics of CB

A
  • Contain thunderstorm activity.
  • Appear heavy and dense with a considerable vertical extent in the form of a mountain or a huge tower
121
Q

Characteristics of ACC

A
  • white, grey, or both white and grey, contain patches, sheets, or layers of cloud, generally with shading
  • Composed of laminae, rounded masses and rolls, which are sometimes partly fibrous or diffuse and which may or may not be merged
122
Q

What is a high-pressure area?
Which way does the air circulate?

A

Region where the atmospheric pressure is greater than its surrounding environment

Clockwise

123
Q

What is a low-pressure area?
Which way does the air circulate?

A

Region where the atmospheric pressure is lower than its surrounding environment

Counter-clockwise

124
Q

Name 5 lifting agents

A
  • Convection
  • Orographic lift
  • Frontal lift
  • Mechanical turbulence
  • Convergence
125
Q

Convection

A

Air is heated from below by contact with the Earth’s surface

126
Q

Orographic lift

A

Air is forced up sloping terrain by the wind

127
Q

Frontal lift

A

Air is forced to rise by a wedge of colder and denser air

128
Q

Mechanical turbulence

A

Friction between the air and ground causes the air to be stirred up into a series of areas of swirling motion known as eddies

129
Q

Convergence

A

Occurs at the centre of low-pressure systems,
air converges at this point and is forced to rise

130
Q

How does change in altitude affect wind?

A

Friction decreases with increase in altitude therefore wind veers and the speed increases

131
Q

How does friction affect wind?

A

At surface to up to ~3000ft
* Slow down
* Flow into a low-pressure area
* Flow out of a high-pressure area

132
Q

Cold front

A

Transition zone between advancing cold air and warm air

Identified by arrowhead (triangle)

133
Q

Warm front

A

Transition zone between warm air and retreating cold air

Identified by half circle

134
Q

Stationary front

A

Transition zone between two air masses that are not moving

Identified by alternating arrowhead and half circle

135
Q

What happens at a cold front?

A
  • Sudden decrease of surface temperature, may be a long time before temperature drop to true value of cold air mass
  • Dew point decrease
  • Visibility ahead of cold front is good, close to the front, visibility may be reduced, after passage of the front, there will usually be improvement in visibility
  • Pressure will rise
  • May have severe frontal turbulence
136
Q

What happens at a warm front?

A
  • Increase in temperature that may begin before the front reaches the station
  • Dew point increases
  • Visibility can be reduced well in advance of warm fronts, passage of the front may bring potentially more severe weather typically just ahead of the front due to low clouds, fog, and precipitation
  • Pressure drops
  • Not likely to have frontal turbulence
137
Q

Thunderstorm is produced by _____ cloud

A

Cumulonimbus (CB)

138
Q

Thunderstorms are always accompanied by ________ and are usually accompanied by _________.

A

thunder and lightning

strong gusts of wind and heavy rain

139
Q

All thunderstorms require:

A
  • Unstable air
  • Lifting action to get air moving upward
  • High moisture content in the air
140
Q

Stages of thunderstorm:

A
  • Cumulus stage
  • Mature stage
  • Dissipating stage
141
Q

Cumulus stage is characterized by:

A
  • Formation of a cumulus cloud that gradually builds up into a towering cumulus
  • Has updrafts
  • No precipitation occurs
142
Q

Mature stage of the thunderstorm is characterized by:

A
  • Onset of precipitation and is where the highest incidence of precipitation occurs
  • Lightning, microbursts, gust fronts, hail, and tornadoes can also occur
  • Violent turbulence is associated with strong updrafts and downdrafts
143
Q

Dissipating stage of the thunderstorm is characterized by:

A
  • Onset of precipitation during the mature stage causes thunderstorms to dissipate
  • Precipitation cools lower part of cloud, breaks the updraft
  • Top of cloud spreads out into an anvil form
144
Q

Name 10 areas of concern when flying in or near a thunderstorm:

A
  • Turbulence
  • Hail
  • Lightning
  • Icing
  • Squall lines
  • Tornadoes
  • Low ceiling & visibility
  • Microbursts
  • Gust fronts
  • Heavy rain
145
Q

Turbulence

A
  • Irregular motion of the air resulting from the formation of eddies or vertical currents in the air
146
Q

Main causes of turbulence:

A
  • Convective (or thermal currents)
  • Mechanical disturbances
  • Wind shear
  • Wake turbulence
147
Q

Wind shear

A

Drastic change in wind speed or direction over a relatively short distance

148
Q

Types of turbulence

A
  • Mechanical turbulence
  • Shear turbulence
  • Frontal turbulence
  • Daytime convection turbulence
  • Cold air advection turbulence
149
Q

Clear air turbulence (CAT)

A
  • Violent turbulence cause by wind entering/ leaving jet streams
  • characterized by a rapid change of wind direction over a short distance.
  • It occurs in patches.
  • Its area is elongated by the wind.
  • It usually occurs at altitudes of 20 000 feet to 40 000 feet, but can be encountered at altitudes as low as 15 000 feet.
  • It is associated with a marked change in speed over a short distance in the vertical (vertical shear) or in the horizontal (horizontal shear).
  • There are no clouds present at the altitudes at which it occurs.
  • It is transitory.
  • It occurs most frequently during winter and least frequently during summer.
150
Q

Wake turbulence

A

Turbulent air behind an aircraft that occurs due to various causes, including wingtip vortices

151
Q

Microburst vs macroburst

A

Microburst is a downburst of less than 4 km (2.2 NM) in diameter, typically less than 5 min

Macroburst is a large downburst with a horizontal diameter of 4 km (2.2 NM) or more, can last 5-20 min

152
Q

Virga

A

Precipitation falling but not reaching the ground

153
Q

Types of wind shear:

A

Directional shear
Speed shear

154
Q

In flight, wind shear is found…

A
  • In the lower 3000 feet (due to changes that result from less friction)
  • At frontal surfaces
  • Around jet streams
155
Q

Near the ground, wind shear is found…

A
  • At frontal shear
  • With thunderstorms
  • When there are temperature inversions
  • Around physical obstructions like buildings and hills
156
Q

Information included in turbulence report from pilots:

A
  • Position
  • Time
  • Altitude
  • Type of aircraft
  • Type of turbulence (turbulence, chop, CAT) and intensity (light, moderate or severe)
157
Q

Variables that determine where and how much ice an aircraft will pick up

A
  • Speed of the aircraft
  • Shape of the airfoil
  • Type of cloud encountered
  • Type of ice encountered
  • Length of time in the icing conditions

high-performance aircraft collect more ice than low-performance aircraft in the same amount of time because they have thin wing profiles

158
Q

Types of icing:

A
  • Hoar frost
  • Clear ice
  • Rime Ice
  • Mixed ice
159
Q

Hoar frost

A
  • Greyish-white, feathery, crystalline formation that can cover the entire surface of an aircraft
  • Very thin, easily removed
160
Q

Clear ice

A
  • Clear, glassy, hard ice that forms on the leading edges of the wings and spreads back over
  • Most difficult to remiove
  • Form between 0˚C and -10˚C
161
Q

Rime ice

A
  • Opaque, whitish, pebbly, granular type of ice that forms on the leading edges of the wings but does not spread back over the wing surfaces
  • Not as difficult to remove as clear ice
  • Form between -15˚C and -20˚C
  • Same as ice in freezer
162
Q

Mixed ice

A
  • Mixture of clear and rime ice
  • Weaker than clear ice, strong3r than rime ice
  • Form between -10°C and -15°C
163
Q

Intensities of icing:

A

Trace
Light
Moderate
Severe

164
Q

Trace icing

A
  • Ice first becomes noticeable
  • Accumulation rate is less than ¼ inch per hour on the outer wing
  • Not a problem for aircraft
  • Pilot should consider exiting icing before it worsens
165
Q

Light icining

A
  • Accumulation rate is ¼ to 1 inch per hour
  • Occasional cycling of manual de-icing systems to minimize ice accretion on airframe
  • Not normally a problem unless the aircraft is exposed for a lengthy period of time
  • Pilot should consider exiting icing
166
Q

Moderate icing

A
  • Accumulation rate is 1 to 3 inches per hour
  • May lead to a potentially hazardous icing situation
  • Pilot should consider exiting icing as soon as possible
  • Diversion might be required to get out of the icing situation
167
Q

Severe icing

A
  • Accumulation of more than 3 inches per hour
  • Occurs when the rate of accumulation is not reduced or controlled by anti-icing and de-icing systems
  • Ice accumulates in locations not normally prone to icing
  • Immediate exit from icing is necessary by means of a change in heading or altitude
168
Q

Conditions that produce icing:

A
  • Aircraft must be flying through visible water in the form of rain or cloud droplets
  • When the water droplets strike a surface, their temperature or the temperature of the surface must be 0°C or below
169
Q

The heaviest icing usually occurs in the range from:

A

-10°C to 0°C

170
Q

The amount of icing is directly related to:

A

the size of the water droplets

The faster the vertical movement of the supercooled droplets, the more collisions between them and the larger their size, therefore more serious icing

171
Q

Which clouds produce the heaviest icing?

A

CU
TCU
CB

172
Q

Which clouds produce the most frequent icing?

A

Stratocumulus

173
Q

The most dangerous types of icing are encountered in …

A

dense clouds composed of heavy accumulations of large, supercooled water droplets, and in freezing rain

174
Q

The _____ the cloud, the greater the icing potential

A

thicker

175
Q

Carburetor icing is especially dangerous because …

A

it can form in clear air when the humidity is high and the outside air temperatures are well above freezing

176
Q

What causes carburetor icing?

A
  • Vaporization of fuel, combined with the expansion of air as it passes through the carburetor, can cause a sudden cooling of the mixture
  • if the temperature in the carburetor reaches 0°C or below, the moisture is deposited as frost or ice inside the carburetor passage
177
Q

How does icing affect aircraft performance?

A
  • Lift is decreased
  • Drag is increased
  • Propeller efficiency is decreased
  • Airflow to the engine is reduced
178
Q

How does ice affect the function of many components on an aircraft?

A
  • Icing on the wings and control surfaces alters the aerodynamic properties of the aircraft airframe, resulting in loss of lift and increased drag.
  • Icing on propellers results reduction of thrust.
  • Ice formation on windshield restricts a pilot’s vision.
  • When pitot tubes and static vents become clogged with ice, connected instruments such as airspeed indicators and altimeters become inaccurate or inoperative
  • Accumulation of ice on radio antennas and masts may cause them to vibrate and breaks, also reduces communications efficiency.
  • When carburetors and air intakes become iced, the airflow to the engine is reduced, causing a reduction in power, and in some cases, engine failure.
  • Ice build-up on the intake cowlings, rotor, and stator blades can result in damage to, or failure of, turbine engines.
  • Icing destroys the smooth airflow due to turbulent eddies from ice-covered airframe affecting normal operation of elevators and rudders.
179
Q

Impact of icing on operations on the ground:

A
  • There is an increased potential for aircraft icing during long delays prior to takeoff
  • Icing on the runways may cause delays
  • Aircraft may need to be de-iced just prior to entering the runway, delaying aircraft behind them
180
Q

Impact of icing on operations in the air, aircraft may:

A
  • Delay descent through an icing area
  • Request to hold above the icing area and wait for improvement
  • Make a rapid climb or descent through an icing area
  • Request priority for approach
  • Request to divert to another airport
  • Request to reroute to avoid the area
181
Q

Pilots must include six items when reporting icing conditions:

A
  • Position
  • Time
  • Altitude
  • Type of aircraft
  • Type of ice and intensity
  • Whether the icing is experience in precipitation (such as freezing rain to wet snow)
182
Q

You must take any report of clear ice formation seriously and pass it on to:

A
  • The appropriate Flight Information Centre (FIC)
  • All concerned aircraft
  • The unit designated for disseminating weather information, if applicable
  • Other concerned sectors or units if the weather is of significance
183
Q

% types of cloud cover reported in METAR:

A
  • SKC (clear/ 0 oktas)
  • FEW (few/ 2 or less oktas)
  • SCT (scattered/ 3-4 oktas)
  • BKN (broken/ 5-7 oktas)
  • OVC (overcast/ 8 oktas)
184
Q

GFA

A

Graphical area forcasts

Provide a description of forecast weather for a broad area in visual format

185
Q

GFA charts contain the following information:

A
  • Cloud bases and tops
  • Weather systems
  • Icing
  • Turbulence
  • Precipitation
  • Visibility (always included)
  • Wind (included only if greater than 20 knots or with gusts of 30 knots or more)
186
Q

Two types of GFA charts that are used together:

A
  • Clouds and Weather (CLDS, WX)
  • Icing, Turbulence, and Freezing Level (ICG, TURB, and FZLVL)
187
Q

Drift

A

Measure in degrees between the heading of the aircraft and the track of the aircraft

188
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of piston engine:

A

Advantages:
* Lightweight
* Accessible for maintenance
Disadvantages:
* Increase drag
*Block forward visibility (radial)

189
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of turboprop engine:

A

Advantage:
* greater horsepower for less weight (compare to piston engines)
Disadvantage:
* Propeller restricts its altitude (compare to jets)

190
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of jet engine:

A

Advantages:
* Reduced drag from small frontal area (and no propeller)
* Good power-to-weight ratio
Disadvantages
* Consumes excessive amounts of fuel at low altitudes
* Slow to respond to application of power

191
Q

Piston engine characteristics:

A
  • Altitude: Ground - 12000 ft
  • Speed: Up to 250 knots usually 100 - 120 knots
  • Rate of climb: 500 - 1500 FPM
  • Rate of descent: 500 - 1500 FPM
  • Rate of turn: 3 degree per sec/ rate 1
  • Long run up
  • No delay in acceleration
  • Very fuel efficient
  • Does not ingest FOD (propeller can strike)
192
Q

Jet engine characteristics:

A
  • Altitude: 25000 ft + (most efficient: turbojet 36000ft/ turbofan 33000 - 37000ft)
  • Speed: 300 - 500 knots
  • Rate of climb: 1500 - 6000 FPM
  • Rate of descent: 2000 - 6000 FPM
  • Rate of turn: 1.5 degrees per sec (pax aircraft)/ rate 1/2
  • No run up
  • Long delay in acceleration
  • Consumes excessive amount of fuel
  • Ingests FOD
193
Q

Turboprop characteristics:

A
  • Altitude: 13000 - 25000 ft
  • Speed: 200 - 300 knots
  • Rate of climb: 1500 - 3000FPM
  • Rate of descent: 1500 - 4000 FPM
  • Rate of turn: 3 degrees per sec/ rate 1
  • Short run up
  • Slight delay in acceleration
  • Operating below normal altitude causes high fuel consumption
  • Does not ingest FOD (propeller can strike FOD)
194
Q

Lift enhancing flaps:

A

0 degrees
* Permit a steeper climb-out angle, used for cruising speed

195
Q

Drag inducing flaps

A

20 degrees
* Slower approach
* Permit a steeper climb-out angle

196
Q

Lift/ drag flaps

A

40 degrees
* Permit steeper climb-out and slower approach

197
Q

Flaps

A
  • Adjustable, secondary (ancillary) control surfaces situated along the trailing edge of the wing
  • Used to alter the wing’s camber (shape) when desired
198
Q

5 causes of wake turbulence

A
  • Wing-tip vortices
  • Rotor-tip vortices
  • Jet engine thrust stream
  • Rotor downwash
  • Prop wash
199
Q

Wing tip vortices

A
  • Air flows outward from the body of the aircraft to the wing tip, high pressure underneath rotates upward towards low pressure
200
Q

Rotor tip vortices

A
  • Similar to wing-tip vortices, but they’re created by the rotor blades of a helicopter
  • Helicopter’s lower operating speeds produce higher intensity wakes than fixed-wing aircraft of the same size
201
Q

Jet engine thrust stream

A
  • Turbulence created behind an aircraft’s jet engines
  • AKA Jet blast/ jet wash
202
Q

Rotor downwash

A

Downward turbulence created by helicopters hovering or in forward flight.

203
Q

Prop wash

A

Turbulence created by any propeller-driven aircraft

204
Q

Weight categories of aircraft:

A
  • Light: up to 7000kg (15 500bls)
  • Medium: More than 7000kg (15 500lbs) but less than 136 000kg (300 000lbs)
  • Heavy: 136 000kg (300 000lbs) or more
  • Super (ex. A380/ AN225)
205
Q

TCAS

A

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System
* Purpose is to provide collision avoidance capabilities to pilots using airborne equipment

206
Q

2 types of TCAS:

A

TCAS I
TCAS II

207
Q

TA

A

Traffic advisory

Alerts pilot to traffic that may be a conflict

208
Q

RA

A

Resolution advisory

Gives the pilot a means to avoid the conflict

209
Q

TCAS I vs TCAS II

A

TCAS I provides TAs but not RAs

TCAS II provides TA and RA

210
Q

Main components of TCAS II:

A
  • Transponder
  • Computer
  • Display
  • Speaker
211
Q

What happens in the event of TCAS II?

A

RA display Indicates whether the pilot should initiate a climb or a descent

Speaker announces “climb, climb, climb” or “descend, descend, descend”

212
Q

What happens in the event of TCAS I?

A

TA display shows the position of the traffic

Advisory o form of spoken message: “traffic, traffic”

213
Q

What is included in an IFR FDE?

A
  • Aircraft identification
  • Aircraft type
  • Altitude (flight planned, assigned, or both)
  • Speed (flight planned, assigned, or both)
  • Point of departure, route, and destination
214
Q

What is the readability scale for clarity of transmission?

A

1 - Unreadable
2 - Readable now and then
3 - Readable but with difficulty
4 - Readable
5 - Perfectly readable

215
Q

5 rules of equipment operation for ATS personnel:

A
  1. Test all equipment (at the beginning of every shift)
  2. Do not tamper with equipment
  3. Display irregular operating status information
  4. Report malfunction
  5. Do not use malfunctioning equipment
216
Q

Radar

A

Radio detection and ranging

detection system that uses radio waves as an electronic form of echolocation to determine the position of objects

217
Q

PSR

A

Primary surveillance radar

rely on reflected radio waves

218
Q

SSR

A

Secondary surveillance radar

systems use an interrogation-reply system

219
Q

MLAT

A

Multilateration

surveillance technology that uses the measured differences in the times of arrival (TOAs) of energy waves

220
Q

SMGCS

A

Surface Movement Guidance and Control System

Provide highly accurate position information on aircraft and vehicles operating on the surface of the airport

221
Q

ADS-B

A

Automatic dependent surveillance-broadcast

surveillance technology that allows aircraft to determine its position via satellite navigation

Automatic requires no input from pilot
Dependent on data from the aircraft’s navigation system

222
Q

CAATS

A

Canadian Automated Air Traffic System

electronic flight data processing system that stores and correlates flight information (flight plans, airport departure/ arrival information)

223
Q

CSiT

A

CAATS Situational Display

interface between the controller and the CAATS

224
Q

OIDS-R

A

Operational Information Display System—Replacement

gathers, formats, and displays aviation weather

collects hourly weather observations, aerodrome forecasts, SIGMETs, AIRMETs, and PIREPs

225
Q

CVIDS

A

Computerized Video Information Display System

contains graphics files that show useful operational information, such as approach plates and local emergency procedures

226
Q

NARDS

A

NAV CANADA Auxiliary Radar Display System

used for displaying and manipulating surveillance targets and flight plans

227
Q

EXCDS

A

Extended Computer Display System

flight plan manipulation and display system that provides real-time flight plan status information to ATS personnel in different geographic locations

228
Q

VSCS

A

Voice Switch Communications System

primary communication technology used in ATS

Aviation Basics (30 decks)

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