Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

First Aid > Reproductive > Flashcards

Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

Mutation of Sonic Hedgehog gene causes

A

Holoprosencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Wnt-7 gene necessary for

A

Proper organization along dorsal-ventral axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ACE i teratogen

A

Renal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Alkylating agents teratogen

A

Absence of digits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AG teratogen

A

CN 8 toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Carbamazepine teratogen (4)

A
  1. Neural tube defects
  2. Craniofacial defects
  3. Fingernail hypoplasia
  4. Developmental delay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lithium teratogen

A

Ebstein anomaly (atrialized right ventricle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Phenytoin teratogen (5)

A

Fetal hydantoin syndrome:

  1. microcephaly
  2. Dysmorphic craniofacial features
  3. Hypoplastic nails and distal phalanges
  4. Cardiac defect
  5. Intellectual disability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tetracyclines teratogen

A

Discolored teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Thalidomide teratogen

A

Limb defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Valproate teratogen

A

Neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Warfarn teratogen (4)

A
  1. Bone deformities
  2. Fetal hemorrhage
  3. Abortion
  4. Ophthalmologic abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cocaine teratogen (3)

A
  1. Abnormal fetal growth
  2. Fetal addiction
  3. Placenta abruption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

First part of aortic arch develops into

A

Maxillary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Second part of aortic arch develops into

A

Stapedial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Third part of aortic arch develops into (2)

A
  1. Common cartoid
  2. Internal carotid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Left forth aortic arch develops into

A

Aortic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Right forth aortic arch develops into

A

Proximal part of right subclavian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What cartilage is derived from 1st brachial arch (5)

A
  1. Meckel
  2. Mandible
  3. Malleus
  4. Incus
  5. Spheno-mandibular ligament
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What muscles derived from 1st brachial arch (5)

A
  1. Muscles of mastication
  2. Mylohyoid
  3. anterior belly of digastic
  4. Tensor tympani
  5. Tensor veli palatini
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What Nerve is derived from 1st brachial arch

A

CN 52 and53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Treacher collins syndrome is

A

1st-brachial arch neural crest fails to migrate causing mandibular hypoplasia and facial abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cartilage of 2nd brachial arch (4)

A
  1. Stapes
  2. Syloid process
  3. Lesser horn of hyoid
  4. Sylohyoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Muscles of 2nd brachial arch (3)

A
  1. Stapedius
  2. Sylohyoid
  3. Platysma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Nerve of 2nd brachial arch

A

CN7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Congenital phayngo-cutaneous fistula is

A

Persistance of cleft and pouch due to 2nd brachial arch malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Muscles of 3rd brachial arch

A

Stylopharyngeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Nerve of 3rd brachial arch

A

CN9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ear, Tonsils, Bottom-to-top

A

Derivatives of Brachial pouch

  • Ear: 1st
  • Tonsils: 2nd
  • Bottom (inferior parathyroid): 3rd
  • To (thymus): 3rd
  • Top (superior parathyroid): 4th
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Infundibulopelvic ligament (Suspensory ligament of the ovaries) connects

A

Ovaries to lateral pelvic wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cardinal ligament connects

A

Cervix to side wall of pelivs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Round ligament of uterus connects

A

Uterine fundus to labia majora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Broad ligament connects

A

Uterus, fallopian tubes and ovaries to pelvic side wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Broad ligament contains (3)

A
  1. Ovaries
  2. Fallopian tubes
  3. Round ligament of uterus
35
Q

Sperm pathway

SEVENUP

A
  • Seminiferous tubules
  • Epididymis
  • Vas deferens
  • Ejaculatory duct
  • NOTHING
  • Urethra
  • Penis
36
Q

Estriol source

37
Q

Estrone source

A

Adipose tissue

38
Q

LH in females acts on

A

Theca cells to converte cholesterol to andrones

39
Q

FSH in females acts on

A

Granulosa cells to converte Andrones to Estrogen

40
Q

Source of progesterone (4)

A
  1. Corpus luteum
  2. Placenta
  3. Adrenal cortex
  4. Testes
41
Q

Defective androgen receptor lab results

A

Increase testosterone and increase LH

42
Q

Testosterone-secreting tumor or exogenous steroids lab results

A

Increase testosterone

Decrease LH

43
Q

Primary hyogonadism lab results

A

Decrease Testosterone

Increas LH

44
Q

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism lab results

A

Decrease testosterone and LH

45
Q

Severe increase in hCG seen in what type of mole

46
Q

Fetal parts are seen in what type of mole

47
Q

Placenta accreta is

A

Placenta attaches to myometrium

48
Q

Placenta increta is

A

Placenta penetrates into myometrium

49
Q

Placent percreta is

A

Placenta penetrates through the myometrium and into uterine serosa

50
Q

Polyhdramnios associted with (4)

A
  1. Fetal malformations:
    1. Esophagel/dudodenal atresia
    2. anencephaly
    3. Inability to swallow amniotic fluid
  2. Maternal diabetes
  3. Fetal anemia
  4. Multiple gestations
51
Q

Oligohydramnios associated with (4)

A
  1. Placental insufficiency
  2. Bilateral renal agenesis
  3. Posterior urtheral valves (in males)
  4. Cant excrete urine
52
Q

Oligohydramnios can cause

A

Potter sequence

53
Q

Endometritis associated with

A

Retained products of conception following delivery

54
Q

Endometritis treatment

A

Gentamicin and clindamycin with or without ampicillin

55
Q

Endometrioma is

A

Mass arising from growth of ectopic endometrial tissue

56
Q

Endometrioma presents with (3)

A
  1. Pelvic pain
  2. Dysmenorrhea
  3. Dyspareunia
57
Q

Brenner tumor on H&E

A

Coffee bean nuclei

58
Q

Call-Exner bodies seen in

A

Granulosa cell tumor

59
Q

What ovarian neoplasm has Psammoma bodies

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

60
Q

Dysgerminoma tumor markers

61
Q

Schiller-Duval bodies seen in

A

Yolk sac (endodermal sinus) tumor

62
Q

Yolk sac tumor marker

63
Q

Tumors found in the stroma of breat (2)

A
  1. Fibroadenoma
  2. Phyllodes tumor
64
Q

Breast pathology that occur in major duct (3)

A
  1. Fibrocystic change
  2. DCIS
  3. Invasive ductal carcinoma
65
Q

Benign tumor in lactiferous ducts of breast

A

Intraductal papilloma

66
Q

Treat acute mastitis with

A

Dicloxacillin

67
Q

Some Dope Drugs Easily Create Awkward Hairy DD Knockers reason for Gynecomastia

A
  • Spironolactone
  • Dope
  • Digitalis
  • Estrogen
  • Cimetidine
  • Alcohol
  • Heroin
  • Dopamine
  • D2 antagonist
  • Ketoconazole
68
Q

Reinke crystals seen in

A

Leydig cells tumor

69
Q

Leuprolide MOA (2)

A
  1. GnRH analog with agonist properties when used in pulsatile fashion
  2. GnRH analog with antagonist properties when used in continuous fashion
70
Q

Clomiphene MOA

A

Antagonist at estrogen receptors in hypothalamus reventing normal feedback inhibition and increase release of LH and FSH from pituitary

71
Q

Clomiphene used for

A

Treat infertility due to anovulation

72
Q

Tamoxifen MOA (2)

A
  1. Estrogen receptor antagonist on breast tissue
  2. Estrogen receptor agonist on Uterus and Bone
73
Q

Raloxifene MOA (2)

A
  1. Estorgen receptor agonist on bone
  2. Estrogen receptor antagonist at uterus
74
Q

Aromatase inhibitors used in postmenopausal women with breast cancer (2)

A
  1. Anastrozole
  2. Exemestane
75
Q

Mifepristone MOA

A

Competitive inhibitor of pregestins at progesterone receptors

76
Q

Mifepristone used for

A

Termination of pregnancy

77
Q

Mifepristone is administered with

A

Misoprostol (PGE1)

78
Q

Terbutaline MOA

A

β2-agonist that relaxes the uterus used to decrease contraction frequency

79
Q

Danazol MOA

A

Synthetic androgen that acts as partial agonist at androgen receptors

80
Q

Danazol used for

A

Endometriosis and hereditary angioedema

81
Q

Danazol toxicity (7)

A
  1. Weight gain
  2. Edema
  3. Acne
  4. Hirsutism
  5. Masculinization
  6. Decrease HDL
  7. Hepatotoxicity
82
Q

Finasteride MOA

A

5α-reductase inhibitor

83
Q

Flutamide MOA

A

Nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens used in prostate carcinoma

First Aid (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions