Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

First Aid > Hematology > Flashcards

Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Small granules seen in PMN (4)

A
  1. ALP
  2. COllagenase
  3. Lysozyme
  4. Lactoferrin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Large granules in PMN (4)

A
  1. Proteinases
  2. Acid phosphatase
  3. Myeloperoxidase
  4. β-glucuronidase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

NAACP causes Eosinophilia

A
  • Neoplasia
  • Asthma
  • Allergic processes
  • CT disease
  • Parasites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Plasma cell tumor

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antithrombin inhibits activated forms of factors (6)

A
  • 2
  • 7
  • 9
  • 10
  • 11
  • 12
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is released by platelets that is necessary for coagulation cascade

A

ADP and Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What inhibits ADP-induced expression of Gp2b/3a

A

Ticlopidine

Clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What directly inhibits Gp2b/3a

A

Abciximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What directly activates vWF to bind to Gp1b

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Acanthocytes associated with

A

Liver disease

Abetalipoproteinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Basophilic stippling associated with (4)

A
  1. Anemia of chronic disease
  2. Alcohol abuse
  3. Lead poisoning
  4. Thalaseemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Schistocyte (helmet cell) associated with

A
  1. DIC
  2. TTP/HUS
  3. Traumatic hemolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Target cells associated with (4)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Heinz bodies are

A

Oxidation of hemoglobin sulfhydryl group causeing dnatured hemoglobin precipitation and phagocytic damage to RBC membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Heinz bodies seen in

A

G3PD deficiency

α-Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

LEAD poisoning causes

A
  • Lead Lines on gingivae (Burton lines)
  • Encephalopathy and Erythrocyte basophilic stippling
  • Abdominal colic and sideroblastic Anemia
  • Drops: wrist and foot drop
  • Treat with Dimercaprol and EDTA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Folate deficiency findings (6)

A
  1. Megaloblastic anemia
  2. Hypersegmented PMN
  3. Glossitis
  4. Increase homocysteine
  5. Normal methylmalonic acid
  6. No neurological symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

B12 deficiency findings (6)

A
  1. Megaloblastic anemia
  2. Hypersegmented PMN
  3. Glossitis
  4. Increase homocysteine
  5. Increase methylmalonic acid
  6. Neurologic symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Viral agents causing Aplastic anemia

A
  1. B19
  2. EBV
  3. HIV
  4. HCV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HbC defect is due to

A

Gluatamic acid-to-lysine mutation at residue 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

5 P’s of acute intermitten porphyria

A
  1. Painful abdomen
  2. Port wine urine
  3. Polyneuropathy
  4. Psychological distrubaces
  5. Precipitated by drugs, alcohol and starvation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acute intermitten porphyria is a defect in

A

Prophobilinogen deaminase causing a buildup of Porphobilinogen and ALA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bernard-Soulier syndrome is

A

Defect in platelet plug formation due to Decrease Gp1b

Defect in platelet-to-vWF adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Glanzmann throbasthenia is

A
  • Defect in platelet plug formation
  • Decrease in Gp2b/3a
  • Defect in Platelet-to-Platelet aggregation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Immune thrombocytopenia defect is

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Thrombotic thromboyctopenic purpura is

A

Inhibition or deficiency of ADAMTS 13 (vWF metalloprotease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of lymphoma do you see Reed-Sternberg cells (Owel-eye)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Burkitt lymphoma genetics

A

t(8;14) of c-myc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma genetics

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma genetics

A

t(11;14) oc cyclin D1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Follicular lymphoma genetics

A

t(14;18) of bcl-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Neoplasms of adult B cells (4)

A
  1. Burkitt
  2. Diffuse large B cell
  3. Mantle cell
  4. Follicular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Neoplasia of mature T cells (2)

A
  1. Adult T-cell lymphoma
  2. Mycosis fungoides/Sézary Syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In multiple myeloma thing CRAB

A
  • HyperCalcemia
  • Renal insufficiency
  • Anemia
  • Bone lytic lesions/Back pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Multiple myeloma produces large amounts of

A

IgG and IgA

36
Q

Multiple Myeloma associated with

A
  1. Increased infections
  2. Primary AL
  3. Punched-out lytic bone lesions
  4. M spike
  5. Ig light chains in urine (Bence Jones protein)
  6. Rouleaux formation
37
Q

Waldenström macroglobulinemia is

A
38
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome is

A

Stem cell disorders involving ineffective hematopoiesis leading to defect in cell maturation of all non-lymphoid lineages

39
Q

Pseudo-Pelger-Huet anomaly is

A

PMN with bilobed nuclei seen after chemotherapy

40
Q

ALL associated with

A
41
Q

ALL marker

A

TdT

CD10 (pre-Bcells only)

42
Q

Translocation with good ALL prognosis

A
43
Q

Smudge cells found in

A

CLL/SLL

44
Q

SLL/CLL markers

A

CD20

CD5

45
Q

Hairy cell leukemia treatment

A

Cladridine (2-CDA)

Adenosine analog

46
Q

Auer rods seen in

A

AML

47
Q

M3 AML translocation

A

t(15;17)

48
Q

Polycythemia vera is a mutation in

A

JAK2 gene

49
Q
A
50
Q

What is monitored in Heparin therapy

A
51
Q

-xaban mechanism of action

A

Direct factor 10a inhibitors

52
Q

-xaban used for

A

Treatment and profphylaxis of DVT and PE

Stroke prophylaxis

53
Q

-teplase are

A

Thrombolytics

54
Q

Treat -teplase toxicity with

A

Aminocaproic acid

55
Q

ADP receptor inhibitors

A

Clopidogrel

Ticlopidine

56
Q

ADP receptor inhibitor toxicity

A

Neurtopenia (ticlopidine)

TTP/HUS

57
Q

Cilostazol mechanism of action

A

Phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitor causing an inrease of cAMP in platelets thus inhibiting Platelet aggregation

58
Q

Dipyridamole mechanism of action

A

Phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitor causing an inrease of cAMP in platelets thus inhibiting Platelet aggregation

59
Q

GP2b/3a inhibitors (3)

A
  1. Abciximab
  2. Eptifibatide
  3. Tirofiban
60
Q

What inhibits nucleotide synthesis (3)

A
  1. MTX
  2. 5-FU
  3. 6-MP
61
Q

Agents that cross-link DNA

A

Alkylating agents

Cisplatin

62
Q

Agents that are DNA intercalators

A

Dactinomycin

Doxocrubicin

63
Q

Agents that inhibit topoisomerase 2

A

Etoposide

64
Q

Agents that inhibit microtuule formation

A

Vinca alkaloids

65
Q

Agents that inhibit microtubule disassembly

A

Paclitaxel

66
Q

Myelosuppression caused by Methotrexate reversible with

A

Leucovorin

67
Q

5-FU overdose rescue with

A

Uridine

68
Q

Cytarabine is

A

Pyrimidine analog causes inhibition of DNA polymerase

69
Q

Cytarabine toxicity

A
  1. Leukopenia
  2. Thrombocytopenia
  3. Megaloblastic anemia
  4. Pancytopenia
70
Q

Antitumor antiboitics (3)

A
  1. Dactinomycin
  2. Doxorubicin
  3. Bleomycin
71
Q

Which antitumor antibiotic generates free radicals

A

Bleomycin

Doxorubicn

72
Q

Doxorubicin toxicity

A

Cardiotoxicity

73
Q

What is given to Doxorubicin to prevent cardiotoxicity

A

Dextrazoxane

74
Q

Alkylating agents (3)

A
  1. Cyclophsphamide (-amide)
  2. Nitrosoureas (-stine)
  3. Busulfan
75
Q

Alkylating agents MOA

A

Covalently cross links DNA

76
Q

What to you give with Clycophasphamide to inhibit hemorrhagic cystitis

A

MESNA

77
Q

Cisplatin (-platin) MOA

A

Cross-link DNA

78
Q

Cisplatin toxicity

A

Nephrotoxicity

Acoustic N damage

79
Q

What do you administer with Cisplatin to prevent nephrotoxicity

A

Amifostine

80
Q

Etoposide (-poside) MOA

A

Inhibits topoisomerase 2 leading to increased DNA degradation

81
Q

Irinotecan (-tecan) MOA

A

Inhibit topoisomerase 1 and prevent DNA unwinding and replication

82
Q

Prednisone toxicity

A

Cushing-like syndrome

83
Q

Trastuzumab (Herceptin) MOA

A

AB against HER-2

84
Q

Trastuzumab toxicity

A

Cardiotoxic

85
Q

Imatinib MOA

A

Inhibitor of bcr-able and c-kit

86
Q

Rituximab MOA

A

AB against CD20

First Aid (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions