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First Aid > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

1
Q

Where is Lipoteichoic acid found

A

Cell wall/cell membrane

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2
Q

Lipoteichoic acid induces

A

TNF and IL-1

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3
Q

What is found in the outer membrane (Gram -)

A

Endotoxins (LPS)

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4
Q

Lipd A induces

A

TNF and IL-1

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5
Q

Periplasm is

A

Space between the cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in Gram- bacteria

Site of Lacatmase

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6
Q

What part of cell wall is unique to Gram+

A

Lipoteichoic acid

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7
Q

What part of cell wall is unique to Gram-

A

LPS

Periplasm

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8
Q

These Microbes May Lack Real Color are bugs that don’t stain well

A
  • Treponema (too thin)
  • Mycobacteria (High lipid content)
  • Mycoplasma (no cell wall)
  • Legionella (Intracellular)
  • Rickettsia (Intracellular)
  • Chlamydia (Intracellular)
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9
Q

Dark field and fluorescent antibody staining used for

A

Treponema

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10
Q

Silver stain used for

A
  1. Legionella
  2. Fungi
  3. H. Pylori
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11
Q

Giemsa stains what

A
  1. Chlamydia
  2. Borrelia
  3. Rickettsiae
  4. Trypanosomes
  5. Plasmodium
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12
Q

PAS stains what

A

Glycogen

Mucopolysaccharides

used for Whipple

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13
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stains

A

Acid-fast organisms

  1. Nocardia
  2. Mycobacterium
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14
Q

Inida ink stains

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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15
Q

Chocolate agar with factor 5 and 10 used to grow

A

H. influenzae

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16
Q

Thayer-Martin media has VPN

A

Vancomycin

Polymyxin

Nystatin

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17
Q

Thayer-Martin media grows

A

Neisseria

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18
Q

Bordet-Genou agar grows

A

B. pertussis

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19
Q

What does C. diphtheriae grow on

A

Tellurite agar

Löffler medium

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20
Q

Löwenstein-Jensen agar grows

A

M. tuberculosis

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21
Q

Eaton agar grows

A

M. pneumoniae because it requires cholesterol

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22
Q

Charcol yeast extract agar grows

A

Legionella

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23
Q

Fungi grow on

A

Sabouraud agar

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24
Q

Nagging Pests Must Breathe need oxygen to grow

A

Nocardia

Pseudomonas

MycoBacterium tuberculosis

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25
Q

Anaerobes that Can’t Breathe Air or will die

A

Clostridium

Bacteroides

Actinomyces

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26
Q

SHiNE SKiS are encapsulated bacteria

A
  1. S. pneumoniae
  2. H. influenzae
  3. N. meningitides
  4. E. coli
  5. Salmonella
  6. Klebsiella
  7. group B Strep
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27
Q

Catalase-positive organisms

PLACESS for CATs

A
  1. Pseudomonas
  2. Listeria
  3. Aspergillus
  4. Candida
  5. E. coli
  6. S. aureus
  7. Serratia
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28
Q

Urease-positive bugs

CHuck Norris hates PUNKSS

A
  1. Cryptococcus
  2. H. pylori
  3. Proteu
  4. Ureaplasma
  5. Nocardia
  6. Kelbsiella
  7. S. epidermidis
  8. S. saprophyticus
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29
Q

Bacterial virulence factors promote

A

Evasion of host immune response

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30
Q

Bacterial virulence factors

A
  1. Protein A (S. aureus)
  2. IgA protease (SHiN)
  3. M protein (Group A Strep)
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31
Q

Protein A binds to

A

Fc region of IgG preventing opsonization and phagocytosis

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32
Q

M protein helps

A

Prevent phagocytosis

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33
Q

Clinical effects of endotoxins

A

Fever, shock (hypotension), DIC

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34
Q

What exotoxins inhibit protein synthesis

A
  1. Diphtheria toxin (C. diphtheriae)
  2. Exotoxin A (Pseudomonas)
  3. Shiga toxin (Shigella)
  4. Shiga-like toxin (EHEC)
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35
Q

What exotoxins inactivate EF-2

A

Diphtheria toxin (C. diphtheria)

Exotoxin A (Pseudomonas)

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36
Q

What exotoxins inactivate 60S robosome by removing adenine from rRNA

A

Shiga toxin

Shiga-like toxin

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37
Q

What exotoxins increase fluid secretion

A
  1. Heat-Labile toxin [LT] (ETEC)
  2. Heat-Stable toxin [ST] (ETEC)
  3. Edema factor (Anthracis)
  4. Cholera toxin (Cholerae)
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38
Q

Heat-labile toxin mechanism of action

A

Increase activity of cAMP

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39
Q

Heat-Stable toxin mechanism of action

A

Increase activity of cGMP

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40
Q

How does Cholera toxin increase activity of cAMP

A

Permanently activating Gs

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41
Q

What exotoxins inhibit phagocytic ability

A

Pertussis toxin

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42
Q

Mechanism of Pertussis toxin

A

Overactivates cAMP by diabling Gi impairing phagocytosis to permit survival of microbes

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43
Q

What exotoxins lyse cell membrane

A

Alpha toxin (Clostridium perfringens)

Streptolysin O (S. pyogenes)

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44
Q

Catalase + Coagulase + Gram + cocci

A

S. aureus

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45
Q

Novobiocin Sensitive, Catalase +, Coagulase -, Gram + cocci

A

S. epidermidis

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46
Q

Novobiocin Resistant, Catalase +, Coagulase -, Gram + cocci

A

S. saprophyticus

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47
Q

Optochin Sensitive, α-hemolytic, Catalase -, Gram +, capsulated cocci

A

S. pneumoniae

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48
Q

Optochin Resistant, α-hemolytic, Catalase -, Gram +, cocci

A

Viridans

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49
Q

Bacitracin Sensitive, β-hemolytic, Catalase -, Gram +, Group A cocci

A

S. pyogenes

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50
Q

Bacitracin Resistant, β-hemolytic, Catalase -, Gram +, Group B cocci

A

S. agalactiae

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51
Q

S. pneumoniae ause MOPS

A
  1. Meningitis
  2. Otitis media in children
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Sinusitis
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52
Q

Pyogenic aspect of S. pyogenes (Group A strep)

A
  1. Pharyngitis
  2. Cellulitis
  3. Impetigo (Honey Crusted lesions)
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53
Q

Toxigenic aspect of S. pyogenes (Group A strep)

A
  1. Scarlet fever
  2. Toxic Shock-like syndrome
  3. Necrotizing fasciitis
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54
Q

Immunologic aspect of S. pyogenes (Group A strep)

A

RF

Acute glomerulonephritis

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55
Q

Scarlet fever is

A
  • Due to S. pyogenes (Group A strep)
  • Sandpaper-like texture
  • Strawberry tongue
  • Circumoral pallor
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56
Q

Gram + Rods

A
  1. Clostridium (anaerobe)
  2. Cornybacterium
  3. Listeria
  4. Bacillus (Aerobe)
  5. Mycobacterium (Acid-fast)
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57
Q

Symptoms of C. diphtheriae

A
  1. Pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane)
  2. Lymphadenopathy (Bull neck)
  3. Myocarditis
  4. Arrhythmias
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58
Q

ABCDEFG of C. diphtheriae

A
  1. ADP-ribosylation
  2. Beta-prophage
  3. Cornyebacterium
  4. Diphtheriae
  5. EF2
  6. Granules
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59
Q

Gram +, spore-forming, obligate anaerobic bacilli

A

Clostridia

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60
Q

Listeria monocytogenes are found in

A

Unpasteruized diary products and deli meats

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61
Q

Lepromatous is due to

A

Th2 response causing Lion-like face, diffused over skin and communicable

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62
Q

Tuberculoid is

A

Due to Th1 response

Few hairless skin plaques

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63
Q

Lepromatous Rx.

A

Dapsone + Rifampin + Clofazimine for 2-5 yrs

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64
Q

Tuberculoid Rx.

A

Dapose + Rifampin for 6 month

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65
Q

Maltos fermenting, Gram - Diplococci

A

N. meningitidis

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66
Q

Maltose nonfermenter, Gram -, Diplococci

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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67
Q

Gram -, Coccoid rods

A
  1. H. influenzae
  2. Pasteurella
  3. Brucella
  4. B. pertussis
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68
Q

Fast lactose fermenting (pink on MaCkonkey) Gram -, Rods

A
  1. Klebsiella
  2. E. coli
  3. Enterobacter
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69
Q

Slow Lactose fermenting (pink on MaCkonkey) Gram -, Rods

A
  1. Citrobacter
  2. Serratia
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70
Q

Oxidase -, Non-lactose fermenter, Gram -, Rods

A
  1. Shigella
  2. Salmonella
  3. Proteus
  4. Yersinia
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71
Q

Oxidase +, Non-lactose fermenting Gram -, Rods

A

Pseduomonas

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72
Q

Urease producing, Oxidase +, Gram - comma shaped

A

H. pylori

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73
Q

Oxidase + Gram -

A

V. cholerae

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74
Q

Oxidase + grows in 420 C Gram -

A

C. jejuni

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75
Q

What does Legionella need to grow

A

Iron and cysteine

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76
Q

Legionnaires’ disease is

A

Severe pnemonia, fever, Gi and CNS due to Legionella

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77
Q

PSEUDOmonas causes

A
  1. Pneumonia
  2. Sepsis
  3. External Otitis
  4. UTI
  5. Drug use
  6. Diabetic Osteomyelitis
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78
Q

K capsule in E. coli causes

A

Pneumonia

Neonatal meningitis

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79
Q

Rice-water diarrhea caused by

A

V. Cholerae

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80
Q

Mesenteric adenitis

A

Caused by Y. enterocolitica

Mimic Crohn disease or appendicitis

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81
Q

Weil disease is

A
  • Severe infection of Leptospira interrogans with jaundice and azotemia from liver and kidney dysfunction
  • Fever
  • Hemorrhage
  • Anemia
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82
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is

A
  • Flu-like syndrome after AB are started
  • Due to killed bacteria releasing pyrogens
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83
Q

Clue cells seen in

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

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84
Q

Diseases that lead to Bells Palsy

A
  1. Lyme
  2. HSV
  3. AIDs
  4. Sarcoidosis
  5. Tumors
  6. Diabetes
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85
Q

Palms and soles rash seen in

A
  • Coxsackievirus A
  • Rocky mountain spotted fever
  • 2o Syphilis
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86
Q

What subtype of Chlamydia causes blindness due to follicular conjuntivitis in Arica

A

A, B, and C

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87
Q

Histoplasmosis found in what area

A

Mississippi and Ohio River valleys

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88
Q

Where is Histoplasma found

A

Bat and bird droppings

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89
Q

What does Histoplasma invade

A

Macrophages

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90
Q

Blastomycosis found in what area

A

East of Mississippi river and Central America

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91
Q

Granulomatous nodules involving skin and bone caused by

A

Blastomycosis

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92
Q

Spaghetti and Meatball appearance

A

Tinea versicolor

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93
Q

Candida appearance

A

Pseudohyphae and budding yeasts

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94
Q

Aspergillus appearance

A

Acute Angles, not Dimorphic

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95
Q

What is found in pigeon droppings and cause meningitis

A

Cryptococcus

96
Q

What is used to stain Cryptococcus

A

India Ink and Mucicarmine

97
Q

What is the appearance of the lesion in Cryptococcus

A

Soap bubble

98
Q

Rose gardener’s disease is

A

Local pustule or ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics caused by Sporothrix

99
Q

Sporothrix appearance

A

Dimorphic, cigar-shaped budding yeast

100
Q

Giardia causes

A
  1. Bloating
  2. Flatulence
  3. Foul-smelling, fatty diarrhea
101
Q

What Protozoa causes brain abscess in HIV with ring-enhancing brain lesions

A

Toxoplasma gondii

102
Q

Enterobius vermicularis AKA

A

Pinworm

103
Q

Ascaris lumbricoides AKA

A

Gian roundworm

104
Q

Ancylostoma duodenale AKA Necator americanus AKA

A

Hookworm

105
Q

What intestinal nematode causes anemia

A

Ancylostoma duodenale AKA Necator americanus AKA hookworm

106
Q

Worm in conjunctiva caused by

A

Loa Loa

107
Q

What nematode causes elephantiasis

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

108
Q

What parasite is associated with Biliary Tract disease and cholangiocarcinoma

A

Clonorchis sinensis

109
Q

What parasite is associated with Brain cysts and seizures

A

Taenia solium

110
Q

What parasite is associated with Hematuria and bladder cancer

A

Schistosoma haematobium

111
Q

What parasite is associated with Liver cysts

A

Echinococcus granulosus

112
Q

What parasite is associated with Microcytic anemia

A

Ancylostoma

Necator

113
Q

What parasite is associated with Perianal pruritis

A

Enterobius

114
Q

What parasite is associated with Portal HT

A

Schistosoma mansoni

Schistosoma japonicum

115
Q

What parasite is associated with Vit B12 deficiency

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

116
Q

Live attenuated vaccines are

A
  1. Smallpox
  2. Yellow fever
  3. Chickenpox
  4. Sabin
  5. MMR
  6. Intranasal Influenza
117
Q

Killed vacines are RIP Always

A
  1. Rabies
  2. Injected Ifluenza
  3. Salk Polio
  4. HAV
118
Q

All dNA viruses are dsDNA except

A

Parvovirdae ssDNA

119
Q

All DNA viruses are linear excpet

A

Papilloma

Polyoma

Hepadnavirus

120
Q

I went to a Retro Toga party where I drank flavored Corona and ate Hippy California pickles.

Positive-stranded RNA viruses

A
  1. Retrovirus
  2. Togavirus
  3. Flavivirus
  4. Coronavirus
  5. Hepevirus
  6. Calicivirus
  7. Picornavirus
121
Q

All RNA virues are ssRNA except

A

Reoviridae

122
Q

All DNA viruses replicate in nucleus except

A

Poxvirus

123
Q

All RNA viruses replicate in cytoplasm except

A

Ifluenza and retrovirus

124
Q

Naked DNA viruses

PAPP

A
  • Papillomavirus
  • Adenovirus
  • Parvovirus
  • Polyomovarius
125
Q

Naked RNA viruses

A
  • Calicivirus
  • Picornavirus
  • Reovirus
  • Hepevirus
126
Q

Pardon PaPa As He Has Pox

DNA viruses

A
  • Parvo
  • Polyoma
  • Papilloma
  • Adeno
  • Hepadna
  • Herpes
  • Pox
127
Q

Adenovirus causes

A
  1. Pharyngitis
  2. Hemorrhagic cystitis
  3. Pnemonia
  4. Conjunctivitis
128
Q

Colorado tick fever caused by

A

Coltivirus which is Reovirus

129
Q

What is the #1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children during the winter

A

Rotavirus from Reovirus

130
Q

PERCH are Picornaviruses

A
  • Poliovirus
  • Echovirus: Aseptic Meningitis
  • Rhinovirus
  • Coxsackieveirus
  • HAV
131
Q

Faviviurses consist of

A
  1. HCV
  2. Yellow fever
  3. Dengue
  4. St. Louis Encephalitis
  5. West Nile
132
Q

Rubella is what viral family

A

Togavirus

133
Q

PaRaMyxovirus’s:

A
  • Parainfluenza: Croup
  • RSV: bronchiolitis in babies
  • Measles
  • Mumps
134
Q

Negative-stranded RNA viruses must transcribe

A
  • strand to + strand with their own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
135
Q

BOAR are segmented viruses

A

Bunyavirus

Orthomyxovirus

Arenavirus

Reovirus

136
Q

Genetic shifts cause

A

Pandemics because of Reassortment of viral genome

137
Q

Genetic drifts cause

A

Epidemics because of minor changes on random mutation

138
Q

Measles causes 3 C’s

A

Cough

Coryza

Conjunctivitis

139
Q

Koplik spots are

A

Bright red spots with blue-white center on buccal mucosa seen in Measles

140
Q

POM-poms in Mumps

A

Parotitis

Orchitis

Meningitis

141
Q

Hepatitis is that RNA virus

A
  • HAV (Picornavirus)
  • HCV (Flavivirus)
  • HDV
  • HEV (Hepevirus)
142
Q

Hepatitis that is DNA virus

A

HBV (Hepadnavirus)

143
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum in HIV seen when CD4 drops to

A

<100 cells

144
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum in HIV clinical

A
  1. Fever
  2. Cough
  3. Hepatosplenomegaly
  4. Tongue ulcer
145
Q

Candida in HIV seen when CD4 drops to

A

<400 cells: Oral

<100 cells: esophageal

146
Q

EBV in HIV clinical

A

Hairy leukoplakia

N-HL (Waldeyer ring)

Primary CNS lymphoma

147
Q

Cryptosporidium in HIV seen when CD4 drops

A

<200 cells

148
Q

Cryptosporidium in HIV clinical

A

Chronic, Watery Diarrhea

149
Q

Toxoplasma gondii in HIV seen when CD4 drops

A

<100 cells

150
Q

JC virus reactivation causing PML in HIV seen when CD4 drops

A

<200

151
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans in HIV seen when CD4 drops

A

<50 cells

152
Q

CMV in HIV seen when CD4 drops

A

<50 cells

153
Q

CMV in HIV clinical

A

Retinitis with Cotton-wool spots

Interstitial pneumonia

154
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii (PCP) in HIV seen when CD4 drops

A

<200 cells

155
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in HIV appearance

A

Ground-glass

156
Q

MAC in HIV seen when CD4 drops

A

<50

157
Q

Bloody diarrhea with Day-care outbreak caused by

A

Y. enterocolitica

158
Q

Bugs causing bloody diarrhea (7)

A
  1. Camplyobacter
  2. E. histolytica
  3. EHEC
  4. EIEC
  5. Salmonella
  6. Shigella
  7. Y. enterocolitica
159
Q

Bugs causing watery diarrhea (6)

A
  1. C. difficle
  2. C. perfringens
  3. ETEC: travelers diarrhea
  4. Protozoa
    1. Giardia
    2. Cryptosporidium
  5. V. cholerae
  6. Rotavirus
160
Q

Pneumonia in Neonates caused by

A

Group B strep

E. coli

161
Q

Pneumonia in children caused by

Runts May Cough Chunky Sputum

A
  • RSV
  • Mycoplasma
  • C. trachomatis
  • C. pneumonia
  • S. pneumonia
162
Q

Meningitis in newborns caused by

A

Group B strep

E. coli

Listeria

163
Q

Meningitis in children caused by

A
  1. S. pneumoniae
  2. N. meningitidis
  3. H. influenzae
  4. Enteroviruses
164
Q

Meningities in teens and adults caused by

A
  1. S. pneumoniae
  2. N. meningitidis
  3. Enteroviruses
  4. HSV
165
Q

Meningitis in elderley

A
  1. S. pneumoniae
  2. Gram- rods
  3. Listeria
166
Q

ToRCHeS of newborns

A
  • Toxoplasma gondii: cat
  • Rubella
  • CMV
  • Herpes simplex 2
  • Syphilis
167
Q

Toxoplasm gondii neonatal manifestation

A
  1. Chorioretnitis
  2. Hydrocephalus
  3. Intracranial calcification
168
Q

Rubella neonatal manifestations

A
  1. PDA
  2. Cataracts
  3. Deafness
  4. Blueberry muffin rash
169
Q

CMV neonatal manifestation

A
  1. Hearing loss
  2. Seizures
  3. Bluberry muffin rash
170
Q

Syphilis neonatal manifestions

A
  1. Hydropfetalis
  2. Notched teeth
  3. Saddle nose
  4. Short maxilla
  5. Saber shins
  6. CN8 deafness
171
Q

Rash beginning at head and mves down in unimmunized children think

A

Rubella

172
Q

Rash that begins at head and moves down preceded by cough, coryza, conjunctivits and blue-white (koplik) spots in unimmunized children think

A

Measles

173
Q

Currant jelly sputum in

A

Klebsiella

174
Q

Facial nerve palsy in

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (lyme disease)

175
Q

Penicillin G, V used for

A
  1. Mostly Gram +:
    1. S. pneumoniae
    2. S. pyogenes
    3. Actinomyces
  2. N. meningitidis
  3. T. pallidum
176
Q

Ampicillin and Amozicillin used for HELPSS

A
  • H. influenzae
  • E. coli
  • Listeria
  • Proteus
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
177
Q

Penicillinase-resistant pencillins:

A

Oxacillin

Nafcillin

Dicloxacillin

178
Q

Antipseudomonal penicillins:

A

Ticarcillin

Piperacillin

179
Q

Cefazolin what Cephalosporin generation

A

Generation 1

180
Q

Cephalexin what Cephalosporin generation

A

Generation 1

181
Q

Cefoxitin what generation Cephalosporin

A

Gen 2

182
Q

Cefaclor what generation Cephalosporin

A

Gen 2

183
Q

Cefuroxime what generation Cephalosporin

A

Gen 2

184
Q

Ceftriaxone what generation Cephalosporin

A

Gen 3

185
Q

Cefotaxime what generation Cephalosporin

A

Gen 3

186
Q

Ceftrazidime what generation Cephalosporin

A

Gen 3

187
Q

Cefepime what generation Cephalosporin

A

Gen 4

188
Q

Ceftaroline what generation Cephalosporin

A

Gen 5

189
Q

PEcK is

A
  • Covered by Gen 1 cephalosporn
  • Proteus
  • E. coli
  • Klebsiella
190
Q

HEN PEcK covered by

A
  • Gen 2 cephalosporn
  • H. influenzae
  • Enterobacter
  • Neisseria
  • Proteu
  • E. coli
  • Klebsiella
191
Q

What cephalosporn used to treat meningitis and gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

192
Q

Anti-pseudomonal cephalosporin is

A

Ceftazidime

193
Q

What is always administered with Carbapenems

A

Cilastatin to decrease inactivation of drug in renal tubules

194
Q

Vanco used for

A

MRSA

C. difficile

Enterococci

Strep

195
Q

Vanco toxicity

A

Nephro

Ototo

Thrombophlebitis

196
Q

Aminoglycoside MOA

A

Inhibit formation of initiation complex and cause misreading of mRNA

197
Q

Aminoglycoside toxicity

A

Nephro

NMJ blocker

Ototo

Teratogenic

198
Q

Tetracycline MOA

A

Bind to 30S and prevents attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA

199
Q

Macrolides MOA

A

inhibit protein synthesis by blocking translocation

Bind to the 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal subunit

200
Q

MACROlide toxicity

A
  • GI Motility issues
  • Arrhythmia: Prolonged QT
  • Cholestatic hepatitis
  • Rash
  • EOsinophilia
201
Q

Chloramphenicol MOA

A

Blocks peptidyltransferase at 50S ribosomal subunit

202
Q

Treat anaerobes above the diaphragm with

A

Clindamycin

203
Q

Drugs causing phototoxicity

SAT

A

Sulfonamide

Amiodrone

Tetracycline

204
Q

Avoid alcohol with Metronidazole due to

A

Disulfiram-like reacton

205
Q

RIPE treatment of TB

A
  1. Rifampin
  2. INH
  3. Pyrazinamide
  4. Ethambutol
206
Q

INH MOA

A

Decrease synthesis of Mycolic acid

207
Q

INH of Isoniazid

A

Injuries Neurons and Hepatocytes

208
Q

Rifamycin MOA

A

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

209
Q

Rifampin’s 4 R’s

A
  • RNA polymerase inhibitor
  • Ramps up P-450
  • Red/orange body fluid
  • Rifampin ramps up P-450 but Rifabutin does not
210
Q

Pyrazinamide toxicity

A

Hyperuricemia

Hepatotoxicity

211
Q

Ethambutol blocks

A

Arbinosyltransferase

212
Q

Ethambutol toxicity

A

Optic neuropathy (red-green color blindness)

213
Q

Gonorrhea prophylaxis

A

Ceftriaxone

214
Q

Pregnant woman with group B strep prophylaxis

A

Ampicillin

215
Q

Prevention of postsurgical infection due to S. aureus

A

Cefazolin

216
Q

Azoles MOA

A

Inhibit fungal sterol synthesis by inhibiting Cytochrome P-450 that converts Lanosterol to Ergosterol

217
Q

Azole toxicity

A
  1. Testosterone synthesis inhibition
    1. Gynecomastia
    2. Increase with Ketoconazole
  2. Liver dysfunction
    1. Inhibition of P-450
218
Q

Flucytosine MOA

A

Inhibits DNA and RNA biosynthesis by converstion to 5-FU

219
Q

Echinocandins are

A
  1. Caspofungin
  2. Micafungin
  3. Anidulafungin
220
Q

Echinocandins MOA

A

Inhibits cell wall synthesis by inhibiting synthesis of β-glucan

221
Q

DOC for invasive aspergillosis and Candida

A

Caspofungin

222
Q

Terbinafine inhibits

A

Squalene epoxidase

223
Q

Chloroquine MOA

A

Blocks detoxification of heme into hemozoin

Build up of heme is toxic to Plasmodia

224
Q

Chloroquine toxicity

A

Retinopathy

Pruritus

225
Q

What drugs inhibit influenza neuraminidase leading to decrease the release of progeny virus

A

Zamamivir

Oseltamivir

226
Q

Ribavirin used for

A

RSV

Chronic Hep C

227
Q

Ribavirin toxicity

A

Hemolytic anemia

Teratogenic

228
Q

-clovir MOA

A

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase by chain termination

Must be phosphorylated by Thymidine kinase

229
Q

-clovir toxicity

A

Obstructive crystalline nephropathy

Acute renal failure

230
Q

Given for CMV

A

Ganciclovir

231
Q

Ganciclovir toxicity

A
  1. BM suppression
    1. Leukopenia
    2. Neutropenia
    3. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Renal toxicity
232
Q

Foscarnet MOA

A

Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor that binds to the pyrophosphate-binding site

233
Q

-navirs are

A

Protease inhibitor

234
Q

NNRTIs

A
  1. Efavirenz
  2. Nevirapine
  3. Delavirdine
235
Q

Integrase inhibitor

A

Raltegravir

236
Q

SAFe Children Take Really Good Care are antibiotics to avoid in pregnancy

A
  1. Sulfa: Kernicterus
  2. AG: Ototoxicity
  3. Fluoroquinolones: Cartilage damage
  4. Clarithromycin: Embryotoxic
  5. Tetracyclines: Discolored teeth, inhibits bone growth
  6. Ribavarin
  7. Griseofluvin
  8. Chloramphenicol: Gray Baby

First Aid (16 decks)

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