reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

what ectoderm divided into?

A

surface ectoderm,
neural crest,
neural tube,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is derived from surface ectderm?

A

epidermis, adenohypophysis( rathkes pouch), eye lens, epithelial lining of oral cavity, sensory organs, seat glans and mammary glands

cranopharyngioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Neural tube derivatives are?

A

brain, (neurohypophysis, CNS neurons, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, epedyme cells, pineal glands), retina, spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

neural crest derivatives are?

A

Melanocytes, Odontoblasts, tracheal lining, enterochromaffine cells, leptomeninges (pia, arach.), PNS, adrenal medulla, schwann cells, spiral membrane, skull, endocardial cushining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

endoderm derivatives are?

A

gut tube, urethra, vagina, epithelial derivatives: lung, gallbladder, thyroid, liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the Pierre robin sequence?

A

micrognathia, glossoptisis, cleft palate, airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when does hCG secreation start?

A

W1

bastocyte sticks at day 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when is the bilaminar disc?

A

W2=2layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gastrulations occurs when?

A

W3=3layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

nural tube is formed by the neuroectoderm when?

A

W4=4limbs and 4Chambers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when is th fetus seen on US?

A

W6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

fetal movement starts?

A

W8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

genitalia formation occurs?

A

W10= tenitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

persistent cervical sinus is?

A

pharyngeal cleft cyst within the lateral neck, ant. to the sternoclido.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is liprolite, what is it used for?

A

GnRH anlog with agonist properties, it downregurates the GnRH receptor in the petuitory and decreases FSH and decreases LH

used for fibroids, endometriosis and infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Estrogen

A

ethinyl estridiol, DES, mestranol
binds to recepror

used in hypogonadism, ovarian failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Clomiphene

A

antagonist of estrogen receptor in hypothalamus, increases release of LH and FSH

used in infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tamoxifen

A

Antagonist at breast, partial agonist at uterus, bone.

competitively inhibits estrogen binding to its receptor

Hot flashes, in.  risk of thromboembolic events (especially with tobacco smoking), and endometrial cancer. Used to treat and prevent recurrence of ER/PR ⊕ breast cancer and to prevent gynecomastia in patients undergoing prostate cancer t herapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

raloxifene

A

antagoinist of breast, uterus, agonist of bone

used for osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

aromatase deficiency

A

inhibits peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

progestin

A

bind to progesteron receptor, thickens the mucus, contraceptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

antiprogestins

A

mefepristine and ulipristal

competitive inhibitors of progestins at progesteron receptors, terminates pregancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

combined contraception

A

progestins and ethinyl estradiol, inhib. LH/FSH, thickening mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

danazol

A

synthetic androgen, that acts as a partial agonist at androgen receptor

use endometriosis, heridiaty angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

endometrial hyperplasia

A

abnorm. endom. gland prolif. usual. caused by estrogen secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

endometrial carcinoma

A

most commen gyn. malignancy
sy: irreg. bleeding
two types. endometriod: not estrogen stimul. early loss of pten
serous: hist: papilla and tuft,

Early pathogenic events include loss of PTEN or mismatch repair proteins.

TP53 loss

KRAS–>PIK3CA–>MLHI–>TP53–>carcinome

usul. postmenopausal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

serous cystadenoma

A

most common ovarian neoplasm. lined with fallopian tube-like epithelum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Serous cystadenoma

carcinoma

A

most common mal. ovarian neoplasm, frequenly blilateral, psamma bodies.

monitor CA 125

KRAS, PIK3CA, TP53, BRCA high grade
epithelium, columnar epithelial cilia+ mutilcystic spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a derivative or the paranephric duct and what is another name for it?

A

Wolffian duct,
develops into the male internal structures except the prostate, SEED, seminal vessels, epidydimis, ejauclatory duct, ductus defference,

in females remnant is the gartner duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a derivative or the paramesonephritic (müllerian) duct?

A

devel. into female internal structures- fallopian tube, uterus, upper vagina, lower urogenital sinus,

male reminant ist the appendic testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is müllerian agenis (mayer-rokitansky-küster-hauser-syndrome?

A

may present with 1° amenorrhae ( due to lack of uterus devel. in fem with fully developed uterus 2° sex charac. (functional ovaries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is lactogen?

A

chorionic somatomammatropin,
source: is the syncytiotrophoblast of the placenta,

function: stimulates insulin production; increases insulin resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is estrogen?

A

ovary (17ß-estradio), placenta (estridiol), adipose tissue ( estrone via aromatization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

leydeg cell produce?

A

(ley)dies dig testosteron

35
Q

sertoli cells serect?

A

inhibinB—-> inhibits FSH

secretion of androgen-binding proteins to maintain testosterone levels

36
Q

cleft lip is a result of?

A

failure to fuse of the maxillary and merge medial nasal process

37
Q

cleft palate is a result of?

A

failure of fusion of the two lateral palatine shelves or falure of fusion of lateral paletine shelf with the nasal septum.

38
Q

warfarin causes what in pregnant women?

A

bone deformities, fetal hemorrhage, abortion, ophthalmologic abnormalities

39
Q

aminoglycosites cause?

A

ototoxicity

40
Q

what does placental aromataze deficiency lead too?

A

inability to synthesized estrogen from androgens, leads to masculinization

41
Q

5 alpa reductase deficiency

A

autosomal recess. limited to male, inability to convert testosterone to DHT, leading to ambiguous genitalia

42
Q

kallmann syndrome is?

A

failure to complete puberty, a form of hypoganadotropic hypognadism. faillure to reslease GnRH and falure to develop olfactoric bulb.

43
Q

hydroform mole

A

cystic swelling of choroinic villi and prolif. of chori, epithel.

44
Q

choriocarcinoma

A

after prenacy, malignant trophoblastic tissue, no villi, hCg

45
Q

extrammary paget disease

A

intraepithelial adenocarcinoma

46
Q

brenner tumor

A

resembles bladder epthelium (tras. cell tumer) cofe been

47
Q

granulosa cell tumor

A

malignant stromal tumor, 50s, often produces estrogen/ progesteron, present with postmenopausal bleeding.
give granny a call
hist: Call-Exner bodies

48
Q

Ashermann syndrome

A

Adhesions and/or fibrosis of the endometrium. Presents with decreased fertility, recurrent pregnancy loss, AUB, pelvic pain. Often associated with dilation and curettage of intrauterine pregnancy

49
Q

what are benign tumors of the breast?

A

fibroadenoma
intraductal pailloma
phyllades tumor

50
Q

what is a fibroadenoma?

A

most common in women under 35, small, well defined mobile mass

51
Q

what is a intraductal pailloma?

A

small fibroepithelial tumor within the lactiferous duct, typ. beneath the areola

52
Q

what is a phyllades tumor?

A

large mass of connective tissue and cysts with leasf like lobulation

53
Q

what is a leydig cell tumor?

A

golden brown color, conteins reinke crystal (eosinonophilic cytoplasmic inclusions). Produces androgens or estrogens

54
Q

sertoli cell tumor is?

A

androblastoma from the sex cord stroma

55
Q

testicular lymphoma is?

A

most common testicular tumor in older male, not 1° cancer, it arises from metastac lymphoma to testes. aggressive

56
Q

protastic adenocarcinoma is?

A

common in males > 50 years old. posterior lobe( peripheral zone) of prostate gland, increase PSA, oteopblastic mestastisis

57
Q

leuprolide

A

leuprolide can be used in lieu of GnRH

use fibroid, endometriosis

58
Q

Testosterone, methyltestosterone

A

agonist as androgen receptors, treat hypogonadism

59
Q

finasteride

A

5alpha-reductase inhibitor, ae: gynacomastia

60
Q

flutamite

A

nonsteriodal competitive inhibitor at androgen receptor

61
Q

ketoconazole

A

inhibits steriod systhesis (inhibits 17,20-desmolase/17-alpha-hydroxylase,
ae: gynacomastia

62
Q

Spironolactone

A

inhibits steriod binding (inhibits 17,20-desmolase/17-alpha-hydroxylase,
ae: gynacomastia

63
Q

Tamsulosin

A

selective alpha1-antagonist used in BPH

64
Q

17α-hydroxylase

A

XY: ambiguous genitalia, undescended testes

XX: lacks 2° sexual development

65
Q

21-hydroxylase

A

Most common
Presents in infancy (salt wasting) or childhood (precocious puberty)

XX: virilization

66
Q

11β-hydroxylase

A

Presents in infancy (severe hypertension) or childhood (precocious puberty)

XX: virilization

Virilization is a condition in which a female develops characteristics associated with male hormones (androgens), or when a newborn has characteristics of male hormone exposure at birth.

67
Q

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplastion

A

A(aldost.) HTN T(testos)

21: 2 1
17alpha: 1 7
11beta: 1 (only HTN) 1

1=increase

68
Q

Urachus

A

Allantois forms from hindgut and extends into urogenital sinus.

Patent urachus

Total failure of urachus to obliterate—–>urine discharge from umbilicus

69
Q

Urachal cyst

A

Partial failure of urachus to obliterate; fluid-filled cavity lined with uroepithelium, between umbilicus and bladder. Cyst can become infected and present as painful mass below umbilicus

70
Q

Vesicourachal diverticulum

A

Slight failure of urachus to obliterate—–>outpouching of bladder

71
Q

Vitelline duct

A

Also called omphalomesenteric duct. Connects yolk sac to midgut lumen. Obliterates during week 7 of development

Patent vitelline duct
Total failure of vitelline duct to obliterate—–>meconium discharge from umbilicus.

Vitelline duct cyst

Partial failure of vitelline duct to obliterate. increased risk for volvulus

72
Q

Meckel diverticulum

A

Slight failure of vitelline duct to obliterate——>outpouching of ileum (true diverticulum, arrow in B).

Usually asymptomatic. May have heterotopic gastric and/or pancreatic tissue—–>melena, hematochezia, abdominal pain.

73
Q

Absence of Sertoli cells or lack of Müllerian

A

Absence of Sertoli cells or lack of Müllerian inhibitory factor—->develop both male and female internal genitalia and male external genitalia (streak gonads)

74
Q

5α-reductase deficiency

A

inability to convert testosterone into DHT—–>male internal genitalia, ambiguous external genitalia until puberty (when  increase testosterone levels cause masculinization

Testosterone/estrogen levels are normal

75
Q

Bicornuate uterus

A

Incomplete fusion of Müllerian ducts

76
Q

Menstrual cycle

A

Follicular phase can fluctuate in length.
Follicular growth is fastest during 2nd week of the follicular phase.
Luteal phase is a fixed 14 days, after which menstruation occurs.
Estrogen stimulates endometrial proliferation.
Progesterone maintains endometrium to support implantation.
decreased progesterone —-> decreased fertility.

77
Q

Hydatidiform mole

A

Cystic swelling of chorionic villi and proliferation of chorionic epithelium (only trophoblast)

increased hCG-mediated

78
Q

Complete mole

A

46,XX (most common); 46,XY

Hydropic villi

Most commonly enucleated egg + single sperm (subsequently duplicates paternal DNA

79
Q

Partial mole

A

69,X X X; 69,X X Y; 69,X Y Y

Only some villi are hydropic, focal/minimal trophoblastic proliferation

2 sperm + 1 egg

80
Q

Extramammary Paget disease

A

Intraepithelial adenocarcinoma. Carcinoma in situ, low risk of underlying carcinoma (vs Paget disease of the breast, which is always associated with underlying carcinoma).

Presents with pruritus, erythema, crusting, ulcers

81
Q

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

A

Hyperinsulinemia and/or insulin resistance hypothesized to alter hypothalamic hormonal feedback response—-> increase LH: FSH,  increases androgens (eg, testosterone) from theca interna cells,  rate of follicular maturation—> unruptured follicles (cysts) + anovulation. Common cause of  fertility in females.

Enlarged, bilateral cystic ovaries A; presents with amenorrhea/oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, decreased fertility. Associated with obesity, acanthosis nigricans.  risk of endometrial cancer 2° to unopposed estrogen from repeated anovulatory cycles.

Treatment: cycle regulation via weight reduction ( decreased peripheral estrone formation), OCPs (prevent endometrial hyperplasia due to unopposed estrogen); clomiphene (ovulation induction); spironolactone, finasteride, flutamide to treat hirsutism.

82
Q

Granulosa cell tumor

A

Most common malignant sex cord stromal tumor. Predominantly occurs in females in their 50s. Often produces estrogen and/or progesterone. Presents with postmenopausal bleeding, endometrial hyperplasia, sexual precocity (in preadolescents), breast tenderness. Histology shows Call-Exner bodies (granulosa cells arranged haphazardly around collections of eosinophilic fluid, resembling primordial follicles; arrow in F). Tumor marker:  inhibin.

“Give Granny a Call.

83
Q

Adenomyosis

A

Extension of endometrial tissue (glandular) into uterine myometrium. Caused by hyperplasia of basal layer of endometrium. Presents with dysmenorrhea, AUB/HMB, and uniformly enlarged, soft, globular uterus. Treatment: GnRH agonists, hysterectomy, excision of an organized adenomyoma.

84
Q

Germ cell tumors

Seminoma

A

Malignant. Painless, homogenous testicular enlargement. Most common testicular tumor. Analogous to ovarian dysgerminoma. Does not occur in infancy. Large cells in lobules with watery cytoplasm and “fried egg” appearance on histology,  placental ALP (PALP). Highly radiosensitive. Late metastasis, excellent prognosis.