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Reproduction (FA) Flashcards

1
Q

SHH

A

found at base of limbs
anterior-posterior patterns + CNS devpt
mut: holoprosencephaly

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2
Q

Wnt 7

A

found at apical ectodermal ridge (at distal end of limb)

ventral-dorsal patterns

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3
Q

FGF

A

found at apical mesodermal ridge (at distal end of limb)
contributes to limb lengthening via mesoderm mitosis
mut: GOF in achondroplasia

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4
Q

HOX

A

codes for TFs
allows for proper segmental placement of appendiges- cranio/caudal
mut: appendages where they shouldnt be

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5
Q

Early Embryonic devpt: within week one happenings?

A

day 6: blastocyst sticks

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6
Q

Early Embryonic devpt: within week 2 happenings?

A

2 layers- epiblast and hypoblast

“bilaminar disk”

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7
Q

Early Embryonic devpt: within week 3-8 happenings?

A

neural tube and organogenesis

teratogen sensitive!!!

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8
Q

Early Embryonic devpt: within week 3 happenings?

A

gastrulation. The epiblast invaginates to form primitive streak–> becomes ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
notochord from mesoderm
neural plate from ectoderm

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9
Q

Early Embryonic devpt: within week 4 happenings?

A

4 limbs, 4 chambers
limb buds
heart beats
neural tube closes

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10
Q

Early Embryonic devpt: within week 6 happenings?

A

can hear cardiac activity in transvag US

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11
Q

Early Embryonic devpt: within week 8 happenings?

A

“gait”

baby movinggg

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12
Q

Early Embryonic devpt: within week 10 happenings?

A

“tenitalia”

sex determined

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13
Q

parotid, sweat, and mammary glands are from?

A

surface ectoderm

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14
Q

adrenohypophysis is from?

A

surface ectoderm

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15
Q

neurohypophysis is from?

A

neural tube

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16
Q

retina is from

A

neural tube

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17
Q

pineal gland is from

A

neural tube

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18
Q

whats from the NCCs?

A

PNS (schwann), melanocytes, chromaffin cells of medulla, C cells of thyroid, odontoblasts/ skull bones, endocardial cushions

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19
Q

testes and ovaries are from?

A

mesoderm

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20
Q

what organs are from endoderm?

A

Liver, lungs, gallbladder, pancrease, thymus, parathyroid, thyroid follicles

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21
Q

what teratogen causes vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma?

A

diethylstilbesterol

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22
Q

aplastic cutis congenita caused by

A

methimazole

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23
Q

what does methylmercury cause as a teratogen

A

neurotoxicity

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24
Q

Xrays as a teratogen?

A

intellectual disability, microcephaly

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25
Q

smooth philtrum, thin vermillion border, small palpebral fissures, retardation, microcephaly

A

fetal alcohol syndrome

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26
Q

explain how dizygotic vs monozgotic twins are made

A

dizygotic: 2 eggs, 2 sperm
monozygotic: 1 egg, 1 sperm, cleavage

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27
Q

what is the housing situation like for dizygotic twins in the uterus?

A

DIchorionic DIamniotic

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28
Q

when does cleavage occur for monozygotic twins to be DIchorionic DIamniotic

A

when they are at 2-cell stage

0-4 days

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29
Q

when does cleavage occur for monozygotic twins to be MONOchorionic DIamniotic

A

at morula stage
4-8 days
*******most common

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30
Q

when does cleavage occur for monozygotic twins to be MONOchorionic MONOamniotic

A

at blastocyst stage

8-12 days

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31
Q

when does cleavage occur for monozygotic twins to be conjoined?

A

after embryonic disk is formed (with chorionic cavity and amniotic cavity)
>13 days

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32
Q

cytotrophoblast

A

inner chorionic villus, derived from fetus

makes the “C”ells

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33
Q

syncytiotrophoblast

A

outer chorionic villus, derived from fetus

makes the “signalling” (hCG)

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34
Q

decidua basalis

A

derived from mom’s endometrium. maternal blood in lacunae for exchange

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35
Q

where are umbilical a’s (2) and v’s (1) derived from?

A

allantois

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36
Q

urachus

A

yolk sac becomes allantois which becomes urachus

urachus joins the bladder to the umbilicus

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37
Q

vitelline duct is what?

A

degenerates at wk 7

used to connect yolk sac/umbilicus to midgut

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38
Q

when the vitelline duct partially closes what is it called?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

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39
Q

Aortic Arch 1

A

Maxillary A

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40
Q

Aortic Arch 2

A

Stapedial A and Hyoid A

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41
Q

Aortic Arch 3

A

Common Carotid and Internal Carotid A

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42
Q

Aortic Arch 4

A

left- true aortic arch

right- R subclavian

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43
Q

Aortic Arch 6

A

pulmonary As and PDA

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44
Q

what is each branchial apparatus derived from?

(1) cleft
(2) arch
(3) pouch

A

(1) ectoderm
(2) mesoderm and NCC
(3) endoderm

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45
Q

what does branchial cleft 1 become

A

external auditory meatus

46
Q

what does Branchial Arch 1 become?

A

(CN V2, V3)
muscles- m/l pterygoid, masseter, temporalis, myolohyoid, ant digastric, tensor tympani, anterior 2/3 tongue

carilage- maxilla, zygomatic, mandibular, meckel, malleus and incus

47
Q

what does Branchial Arch 2 become?

A

CN VII
Muscles- Stapedius M, facial m, stylohoid, platysma, post belly of digastric

cartilage- stapedes, styloid, lesser horn of hyoid, stylohyoid

48
Q

what does Branchial Arch 3 become?

A

CN IX
muscles- stylopharyngeus

cartilage- greater horn of hyoid

49
Q

what does branchial arch 4/6 become?

A

CN X
arytenoids, cricoid, thyroid
pharyngeal and laryngeal m

50
Q

Branchial Pouch 1

A

Ears- eustachian tube, middle ear, mastoid air cells

51
Q

Branchial Pouch 2

A

palatine tonsils

52
Q

Branchial Pouch 3

A

Thymus

Inferior Parathyroid

53
Q

Branchial Pouch 4

A

Superior Parathyroid
Ultimobranchial body
C cells of thyroid

54
Q

Mesonephric duct vs Paramesonephric Duct

A

Paramesonephric Duct= Mullerian Ducts= female internal structures
Mesopheric Duct= Wolffian Ducts= male internal structures (Except Prostate)

55
Q

what does SRY do?

A

testis devpt via Testis determining factor

56
Q

what does Leydig cells do?

A

Testosterone production which

(1) stimulates devpt of mesonephric ducts
(2) become DHT to make external male genitalia via 5 alpha reductase

57
Q

What do sertoli cells do?

A

Mullerian Inhibiting Factor

stop paramesonephric duct devpt

58
Q

male Paramesonephric duct remnant?

female mesoneprhic duct remant?

A

appendix testis

Gartner duct

59
Q

what does mullerian agenesis look like?

A

female has secondary sex (from intact ovaries), but no menstruation bc no uterus

60
Q

what happens if there is lack of MIF

A

BOTH female and male internal features develop in a male that has 2ndary male sex bc Leydig intact

61
Q

glans penis=

A

glans clitoris

62
Q

scrotum=

A

labia majora

63
Q

corpus cavernosum/spongiosum=

A

vestibular bulbs

64
Q

bulbourethral glands=

A

Bartholin glands

65
Q

ventral shaft of penis=

A

labia minora

66
Q

hypospadius

A

early urethral opening on ventral penis

urethral folds fusion problem

67
Q

episapdius

A

early urethral opening on dorsal penis
due to a genital tubercle issue
assn: Exstrophy of bladder

68
Q

venous drainage of testis/ovaries

A

L–> L gonadalV–> L renal V

R–>R gonadal V–> IVC

69
Q

lympatic drainage of :

ovaries/testis

A

para-aortic

70
Q

lymph drainage of: scrotum/labia majora

A

superficial inguinal nodes

71
Q

lymph drainage of prostate/ cervix/ prox vag

A

internal iliac

remember prostate ca spread to bones happens via VEINS not lymph

72
Q

lymph drainage of penis

A

deep inguinal nodes

73
Q

who houses the ovarian vessels

A

infundibulopelvic ligament/ suspensory lig

ovary: lateral pelvic wall

74
Q

who houses the uterine vessels?

A

cardinal ligament

uterus: lateral pelvic wall

75
Q

round ligament?

A

uterus: labia majora (gubernaculum dervitive)

76
Q

ovarian ligament

A

connects ovary to uterus

77
Q

what type of tissue is external genitals up till transitional zone of cervix?

A

stratified squamous

78
Q

what type of tissue is transitional zone of cervix to all other interal genitalia

A

simple columnar

79
Q

what is the ovary

A

simple cuboidal

80
Q

pelvic fracture injures what part of male urethra? where does urine pool?

A

posterior, membranous

retropubic space

81
Q

what does a perineal saddle injury affect the male urethra? where does urine pool

A

anterior, bulbar

deep buck’s fascia to superficial perineal space

82
Q

what’s the process of male sexual response

A

(1) erection- pelvic N (PSNS)
(2) emission - hypogastric N (SNS)
(3) ejaculation- visceral and somatic N (pudendal)

83
Q

what are the female homologs of (1) sertoli cells (2) Leydig cells

A

(1) granulosa

(2) theca

84
Q

what are the three types of estrogen?

A

(1) Estradiol- made my granulosa cells
(2) Estrone- made by adipose
(3) Estriol- made by placenta

85
Q

what stage is an egg in before ovulation?

after ovulation before fertilization?

A
  • Prophase I of Meiosis1 (46 sister chromatids)-2N

- Metaphase II of Meiosis 2 (23 sister chromatids, 1 polar body)- 1N

86
Q

how long is follicular phase? how long is luteal phase?

A

(1) follicular- variable

(2) luteal is last 14 days

87
Q

describe the menstrual cycle?

A

FSH stimulates granulosa cells to make estrogen. this estrogen causes an LH spike, which brings on ovulation. which forms corpus luteum, this produces progestrone which maintains endometrium in secretory phase. Corpus luteum becomes albicans, progesterone stops.. menses

88
Q

when is implantation? hCG in serum? in urine?

A

implantation at 6 days post fert
serum hcg 1 wk post fert
urine hcg 2 wk post fert

89
Q

whats the role of hCG

A

acts like is to maintain corpus luteum (and progesterone) for first 8-10 wk until placenta makes estriol and progesterone

90
Q

human placental lactogen

A

makes insulin, causes insulin resistance in order to shunt glucose/aa/ fa etc to baby

91
Q

apgar stands for

A

appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration

92
Q

what’s specific for menopause?

A

high FSH (loss of negative feedback, bc low estrogen)

93
Q

Klinefelter’s Syndrome

A

due to non-disjunction, 47 XXY (one bar body) in a male with euchanoid, long extremities, gynecomastia, and fibrosis of semiferous tubules (small, hard testicles) by puberty causing low testosterone levels, high estrogen and FSH

94
Q

Turner’s Syndrome

A

due to nondisjunction or mosiacism (mitotic error). 45XO.
- short, shielf chest, cystic hygroma, streak gonads, bicuspid aorta, aortic coarction, horsehow kidney, lymphatic defects
no menstruation. ovaries fibrosed, low estrogen, high LH, FSH

95
Q

placental aromatase deficiency

A

causes hirsutism and voice deepening in pregnant mom, and virilization of girl baby

96
Q

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

causes 2ndry sexual female development in XY. testes in labia majora. rudimentary vagina present, but uterus and ovaries are not

97
Q

5 alpha reductase def

A

XY, looks ambiguous until puberty where excess testosterone causes 2ndary male devpt

98
Q

Kallmann Syndrome

A

GnRH does not migrate from cribiform to hypothalamus. Anosmia + failure to complete secondary puberty

99
Q

molar pregnancy signs

A

early pre-ecclampsia (before 20 wks),
high bHCG
vaginal bleeding, and excessive uterine enlargement

100
Q

complete mole vs partial mole

A

complete: no egg genetic material+ 1 sperm (which replicates–> 46XX) or +2 sperm (rare, 46XY) .. no fetal tissue, VERY high bHCG. “snowstorm”/honeycomb appearance. can become choriocarcinome (2%)

partial- 1 egg+ 2 sperm. 69 XXX, 69 XXY, 69 XYY. yes has fetal parts. bHCG not as elevated.

101
Q

choriocarcinoma

A

post pregnancy in mom or baby. malignancy of trophoblastic tissue (no villi present). can “cannonball” to lung . increase bHCG

102
Q

abrupt painful 3rd semester bleed

A

placenta abrupta , placenta separates from uterine wall before delivery

103
Q

placenta won’t come out or comes out in pieces

A

(1) placenta accreta — placenta attaches to myometrial surface
(2) placenta increta – placenta attaches into myometrial surface
(3) placenta percreta— placenta attaches to uterine serosa through myometrial surface (can attach to bladder or rectum)

104
Q

painless bleeding third semester.

A

placenta previa- attachment of placenta over or near internal os

105
Q

fetal bradycardia, painless bleeding, associated with velamentous umbilical insertion .. emergency C section needed

A

vasa previa

106
Q

causes of polyhydramnios vs oligohydramnios

A

polyhydramnios: anencephaly, esophogeal.duodenal atresia, maternal diabetes, multiple gestation
oligohydramnios: renal agenesis, posterior urethral valves, placental insuff

107
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

hemolysis
liver enzymes elevated
low platelet count

severe preeclampsia
schistiocytes

108
Q

gestational hypertension vs pre-ecclampsia

A

both are >140/90 at >20 wks gest, but pre-ecclampsiaincludes proteinuria or end organ damage. pre-ecclampsia also is related to a pre-pregnancy history of htt, or DM, or CKD, or SLE

109
Q

ecclampsia

A

pre-ecclampsia + seizures

death due to stroke, IC hemorrhage, or ARDS

110
Q

gyn malignancy rates in US?

A

endometrial> ovarian> cervical

mortality: ovarian> endometrial> cervical

need to knows (31 decks)

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