Kaplan Qbank Flashcards

1
Q

in meningitis if CSF glucose is low but lymphocytes are predominant?

A

think granulomatous causes!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

smudge cell

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

eosinophils release?

A

major basic protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Duchenne Muscular disease has increased risk of

A

cardiomyopathy and arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Loeffler’s endocarditis

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy with eosinophilia (usuall related to presence of parasite)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

dosing rate=

A

Css* CL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

punched out lesions in lower esophagus?

A

HSV esophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

glutamate binds the NMDA receptor? whats the receptor type?

A

ligand gated and voltage gated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

migratory thrombophlebitis (ex DVT in one leg, symptoms of DVT in another) is a sign of?

A

pancreatic cancer– trousseau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

fixed S2 split

A

ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what lies behind the piriform recess in the throat

this is from UWORLD

A

internal laryngeal N

afferent carrier of cough reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Weber and Rinne hearing test.. wheres the problem

A

if bone>air.. you know its conduction… and Webet lateralized to affected side
if air > bone.. you know is sensorineural.. and weber lateralized to unaffected side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

speculum inserted in ear, pt faints.. what happened?

A

vasovagal stimulation.

the posterior internal ear canal is supplied by CNX (vagus N)– auricular branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

nosebleeds happen where?

A

anterior nasal septum

Kisselbach’s plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

blurred optic disk margins is indicative of ___ and what the cause?

A

papilledema

idiopathic ICP.. causes compression of optic N leading to decreased axoplasmic flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

why shouldn’t you use decongestants, like alpha adrenergic agonists for more than a couple days?

A

“rebound rhinorrhea” caused by “tachyphylaxis”

  • the negative feedback pathway causes less NE to be made at N’s.. so even if you are giving the alpha agonist, theres no NE to release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pearly mass behind tympanic membrane?

A

cholesteatoma

- made of squamous cell debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

where do you do a cricothyrotomy?

A

below the cricothyroid cartilage, and above the thyroid

- you cut through skin, superior cervical fascia/platysma, deep cervical fascia, and cricothyroid MEMBRANE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cherry red spot in adult?

A

retinal artery occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is it called when a group of malformations that are secondary to a embryonic disturbance?

A

developmental field defect

ex: holoprosencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

renal angiomyolipoma (renal mass of blood vessels, smooth muscle, and fat) is associated with WHAT disease?

A

tuberous sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how many half-lives to get to 95% CPss?

A

4 T1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what property of a drug will suggest that it will be excreted by liver» kidney

A

high lipophilicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

a VD of 3-5 L is considered??? and what would its properties probably be?

A

its considered a LOW VD

so its stuck in the blood, hence it is probobly LARGE, and polar(hydrophilicity, plasma protein binding, charged)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which area can drain to the popliteal nodes.. medial or lateral foot/leg?

A

LATERAL

26
Q

what tells you that patient is chronic carrier of HepB

A

HepBs-Ag

27
Q

what Hep virus causes high mortality in pregnant women? what class is it?

A

HepE

hepevirdae

28
Q

Menetrier’s disease causes increased loss of?

A

protein

29
Q

what zone of the liver is CYP450 in? whats it vulnerable to

A

Zone 3- pericentral V zone

tissue hypoxia

30
Q

Diarrhea+ acid fast oocysts+ AIDs patient?

A

cryoptosporidium

31
Q

what hormones HAVE to be replaced ASAP in sheehan’s syndrome

A

glucocorticoids

32
Q

what drug causes vasodilation and decreases insulin?

A

Diazoxide– K+ ATP opener

33
Q

M2

A

muscarinic activity on the heart.. bradycardia

34
Q

FDP vs Ddimer? whats the difference?

A

FDP- can be either fibrin or fibrinogen

D dimer- only fromfibrin breakdown

35
Q

increased ALP in a testicular tumor

A

seminoma

36
Q

velocity vs cross-sectional area

A

velocity is inversely proportional to cross sectional area

37
Q

SLE skin rash pathology

A

deposits of IgG and complement at dermal-epidermis junction which triggers inflammation

38
Q

cardiac rhabdomyoma
subependymal giant cell tumors
renal angiomyolipoma

A

TSC

39
Q
what nerve is found at the upper border of the greater sciatic foramen? 
what nerve(s) is found at the lower border
A

upper boder: sup gluteal N

lower border: inf gluteal N, sciatic N , pudendal N

40
Q

hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (arthiritis of bones) + clubbing=?

A

bronchogenic carcinoma

41
Q

you can have digoxin toxicity with low digoxin levels due to what electrolyte abnormality?

A

hypokalemia

42
Q

bacteria form the majority of their spores at what phase in the growth ?

A

stationary phase

43
Q

what structure is immediately lateral to a femoral hernia?

A

NAVEL
hernia goes into E (empty space)
so the immediately lateral structure is Femoral Veing

44
Q

patient with colon cancer gets endocarditis, who is the cause?

A

S. Bovis

45
Q

what electrolyte abnormalities would high dose corticosteroids cause?

A

remember these guys can also work on MR !! so think of high aldosterone effects– hypernatremia, hypokalemia etc.

46
Q

bilirubin on basal ganglia and hippocampus + high pitched cry=?

A

kernicterus

47
Q

how does TMP-SMX cause kernicterus?

A

it causes increased dissociation of BR from albumin

48
Q

I cell disease? where is the defect in targetting

A

targetting defect happens at golgi

unable to phosphorylate mannose6

49
Q

who has barr bodies?

A

normal females

Kleinfelter males

50
Q

what are the essential AA’s

only from diet

A

PVT TIM HALL
Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan

Threonine
Isoleusine
Methionine

Histidine
Arginine
Lysine
Leucine

51
Q

hypoglycemia + hypoketosis is suggestive of?

A

deficiency in B-ox

52
Q

how do you figure WHERE in meiosis the nondijunction happened?

A

As the 2 genes DIFFERENT? — Meiosis 1

Are the 2 genes the SAME? —- Meiosis 2

53
Q

Microvilli are made of?

A

actin filaments?

54
Q

what happens to PAO2, PaO2, and PA-PaO2 when a patient gets supplemental O2

A

everything increases

55
Q

Bordatella Pertussis can cause which metabolic abnormality

A

hypoglycemia, because it increases insulin release.

56
Q

whats O2 sat? how is it affected by high altitudes?

A

O2Sat is how many X/4 O2 binding spots of Hgb are bound to O2.
It is usually decreased in high altitudes.

57
Q

how is phosphate reabsorobed at the PCT?

A

Na/ Pi cotransporter

58
Q

DIC causes what to the kidney?

A

diffuse cortical necrosis

59
Q

which part of the kidney tubules have a “brush border”?

A

PCT

60
Q

what Ca blocker is contraindicated in CHF

A

verapamil

61
Q

2 causes of increased pulse pressure?

A

arteriosclerosis and ar

62
Q

MM? whats in the urine

A

IgG light chains