Kaplan Qbank Flashcards
in meningitis if CSF glucose is low but lymphocytes are predominant?
think granulomatous causes!
smudge cell
CLL
eosinophils release?
major basic protein
Duchenne Muscular disease has increased risk of
cardiomyopathy and arrhythmia
Loeffler’s endocarditis
restrictive cardiomyopathy with eosinophilia (usuall related to presence of parasite)
dosing rate=
Css* CL
punched out lesions in lower esophagus?
HSV esophagitis
glutamate binds the NMDA receptor? whats the receptor type?
ligand gated and voltage gated
migratory thrombophlebitis (ex DVT in one leg, symptoms of DVT in another) is a sign of?
pancreatic cancer– trousseau
fixed S2 split
ASD
what lies behind the piriform recess in the throat
this is from UWORLD
internal laryngeal N
afferent carrier of cough reflex
Weber and Rinne hearing test.. wheres the problem
if bone>air.. you know its conduction… and Webet lateralized to affected side
if air > bone.. you know is sensorineural.. and weber lateralized to unaffected side
speculum inserted in ear, pt faints.. what happened?
vasovagal stimulation.
the posterior internal ear canal is supplied by CNX (vagus N)– auricular branch
nosebleeds happen where?
anterior nasal septum
Kisselbach’s plexus
blurred optic disk margins is indicative of ___ and what the cause?
papilledema
idiopathic ICP.. causes compression of optic N leading to decreased axoplasmic flow
why shouldn’t you use decongestants, like alpha adrenergic agonists for more than a couple days?
“rebound rhinorrhea” caused by “tachyphylaxis”
- the negative feedback pathway causes less NE to be made at N’s.. so even if you are giving the alpha agonist, theres no NE to release
pearly mass behind tympanic membrane?
cholesteatoma
- made of squamous cell debris
where do you do a cricothyrotomy?
below the cricothyroid cartilage, and above the thyroid
- you cut through skin, superior cervical fascia/platysma, deep cervical fascia, and cricothyroid MEMBRANE
cherry red spot in adult?
retinal artery occlusion
what is it called when a group of malformations that are secondary to a embryonic disturbance?
developmental field defect
ex: holoprosencephaly
renal angiomyolipoma (renal mass of blood vessels, smooth muscle, and fat) is associated with WHAT disease?
tuberous sclerosis
how many half-lives to get to 95% CPss?
4 T1/2
what property of a drug will suggest that it will be excreted by liver» kidney
high lipophilicity
a VD of 3-5 L is considered??? and what would its properties probably be?
its considered a LOW VD
so its stuck in the blood, hence it is probobly LARGE, and polar(hydrophilicity, plasma protein binding, charged)
which area can drain to the popliteal nodes.. medial or lateral foot/leg?
LATERAL
what tells you that patient is chronic carrier of HepB
HepBs-Ag
what Hep virus causes high mortality in pregnant women? what class is it?
HepE
hepevirdae
Menetrier’s disease causes increased loss of?
protein
what zone of the liver is CYP450 in? whats it vulnerable to
Zone 3- pericentral V zone
tissue hypoxia
Diarrhea+ acid fast oocysts+ AIDs patient?
cryoptosporidium
what hormones HAVE to be replaced ASAP in sheehan’s syndrome
glucocorticoids
what drug causes vasodilation and decreases insulin?
Diazoxide– K+ ATP opener
M2
muscarinic activity on the heart.. bradycardia
FDP vs Ddimer? whats the difference?
FDP- can be either fibrin or fibrinogen
D dimer- only fromfibrin breakdown
increased ALP in a testicular tumor
seminoma
velocity vs cross-sectional area
velocity is inversely proportional to cross sectional area
SLE skin rash pathology
deposits of IgG and complement at dermal-epidermis junction which triggers inflammation
cardiac rhabdomyoma
subependymal giant cell tumors
renal angiomyolipoma
TSC
what nerve is found at the upper border of the greater sciatic foramen? what nerve(s) is found at the lower border
upper boder: sup gluteal N
lower border: inf gluteal N, sciatic N , pudendal N
hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (arthiritis of bones) + clubbing=?
bronchogenic carcinoma
you can have digoxin toxicity with low digoxin levels due to what electrolyte abnormality?
hypokalemia
bacteria form the majority of their spores at what phase in the growth ?
stationary phase
what structure is immediately lateral to a femoral hernia?
NAVEL
hernia goes into E (empty space)
so the immediately lateral structure is Femoral Veing
patient with colon cancer gets endocarditis, who is the cause?
S. Bovis
what electrolyte abnormalities would high dose corticosteroids cause?
remember these guys can also work on MR !! so think of high aldosterone effects– hypernatremia, hypokalemia etc.
bilirubin on basal ganglia and hippocampus + high pitched cry=?
kernicterus
how does TMP-SMX cause kernicterus?
it causes increased dissociation of BR from albumin
I cell disease? where is the defect in targetting
targetting defect happens at golgi
unable to phosphorylate mannose6
who has barr bodies?
normal females
Kleinfelter males
what are the essential AA’s
only from diet
PVT TIM HALL
Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan
Threonine
Isoleusine
Methionine
Histidine
Arginine
Lysine
Leucine
hypoglycemia + hypoketosis is suggestive of?
deficiency in B-ox
how do you figure WHERE in meiosis the nondijunction happened?
As the 2 genes DIFFERENT? — Meiosis 1
Are the 2 genes the SAME? —- Meiosis 2
Microvilli are made of?
actin filaments?
what happens to PAO2, PaO2, and PA-PaO2 when a patient gets supplemental O2
everything increases
Bordatella Pertussis can cause which metabolic abnormality
hypoglycemia, because it increases insulin release.
whats O2 sat? how is it affected by high altitudes?
O2Sat is how many X/4 O2 binding spots of Hgb are bound to O2.
It is usually decreased in high altitudes.
how is phosphate reabsorobed at the PCT?
Na/ Pi cotransporter
DIC causes what to the kidney?
diffuse cortical necrosis
which part of the kidney tubules have a “brush border”?
PCT
what Ca blocker is contraindicated in CHF
verapamil
2 causes of increased pulse pressure?
arteriosclerosis and ar
MM? whats in the urine
IgG light chains
