Repro Random Flashcards

1
Q

found at base of limbs, pattern anteroposterior axis

A

sonic hedge hog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

defect causes holoprosencephaly

A

SHH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

produced at apical ectodermal ridge

dorsal-ventral axis

A

Wnt-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

stimulates mitosis of underlying mesoderm, produced by ectodermal ridge, lengthens limbs

A

FGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

involved in segmental organization of embryo in craniocaudal direction

A

Hox genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

implantation

A

at day 6

hCG production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

bilaminar disc

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

gastrulation-trilaminar disc

A

week 3

notochord produces overlying neural plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

extreme susceptibility to teratogens

A

3-8 weeks

neural tube closes week 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

4 limbs and 4 heart chambers

A

week 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

fetal movements

A

week 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

genitalia

A

week 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

derivative surface ectoderm

A

lens, epithelial lining ear, oral, olfactory
canal below pectinate
parotid, sweat, mammory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

neural tube

A

brain, retina, spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

neural crest

A

PNS, melanocytes, chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla, parafollicualr cells of thyroid, pia, arachnoid, bones of skull, odontoblasts, AP septum, endocardial cushions, myenteric plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

notochord

A

nucleus pulposus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

mesoderm

A

muscle, spleen, cardio, lymph, blood, wall of gut, upper vagina, kidneys, adrenal cortex, dermis, testes, ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

endoderm

A

gut tube epithelium, urethra and lower vagina, lungs, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, eustachian tube, thymus, parathyroid, thyroid follicular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

absent primordial tissue

A

agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

absent despite presence of primordial tissue

A

aplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

incomplete organ development

A

hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

breakdown normal tissue

A

disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

extrinsic disruption

A

deformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

intrinsic disruption

A

malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

renal damage to baby

A

ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

absence of digits

A

alkylating agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

aplasia cutis congenita

A

methimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

bone deformations, fetal hemorrhage, abortion, opthalmologic abnormalities

A

warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

complications maternal diabetes

A

caudal regression syndrome (anal atresia), heart defects, NT defects, macrosomia, neonatal hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

neurotoxicity

A

methylmercury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

excess vitamin A

A

spontaneous abortions, birth defects-cleft palate, cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

x rays

A

microcephaly, intellectual disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

mechanism fetal alcohol syndrome and most severe form

A

failure of cell migration

holoprosencephaly and heart-lung fistulas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

earlier cleavage monozygotic twins

A

di/di
monochorionic/diamnionic
mono/mono if after 8-12 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

inner layer chorionic villi

A

cytotrophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

synthesize hormones in fetal placenta

A

syncytiotrophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

safety from immune response in syncytiotrophoblast

A

no MHC I expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

decidua basalis

A

derived from endometrium

maternal blood in lacunae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

from internal iliac to placenta

A

umbilical arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

associations single umbilical artery

A

congenital and chromosomal anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

path umbilical vein

A

into IVC via liver or ductus venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

urachus

A

yolk sac forms allantois that extends into urogenital sinus

becomes urachus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

urine discharge from umbilicus

A

patent urachus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

fluid filled cavity lined with uroepithelium

A

partial failure to obliterate urachus

can lead to infection and adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

outpouching of bladder

A

vesicourachal diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

connects yolk sac to midgut lumen

A

vitelline duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

meconium from umbilicus

A

vitelline fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

4th aortic arch

A

proximal portion of R subclavian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

location recurrent laryngeal

A

right under subclavian

left under aortic arch, distal to ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

1st cleft

A

external auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

2nd through 4th clefts

A

temporary cervical sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

cyst within lateral neck

anterior to SCM

A

persistent cervical sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

micrognathia, glossptosis, cleft palate, airway obstruction

A

Pierre Robin sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

neural crest dysfunction leading to mandibular hypoplasia and facial abnormalities

A

Treacher Collins syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

posterior belly digastric

A

2nd arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

lesser horn hyoid

A

2nd arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

greater horn hyoid

A

3rd arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

cartilage of 4th arch

A

arytenoids, cricoid, corniculate, cuneiform, thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

6th arch muscles

A

all muscles of larynx except cricothyroid (4th)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

1st pouch

A

middle ear, mastoid air cells, eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

2nd pouch

A

palatine tonsil lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

dorsal 3rd

A

inferior parathyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ventral 3rd

A

thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

final location 3rd pouch

A

below 4th pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

dorsal 4th pouch

A

superior parathyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

ventral 4th pouch

A

ultimobranchial body

parafollicular cells of thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

failure fusion maxillary and medial nasal

A

cleft lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

failure lateral or lateral and nasal septum/median palatine shelf

A

cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

female

A

paramesonephric duct develops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

male formation

A

SRY to testis forming factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

sertoli in male formation

A

mullerian inhibitory-suppresses development paramesonephric duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

leydig in male formation

A

androgens for mesonephric duct formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

male remnant of paramesonephric

A

appendix testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

lack of uterine development with fully developed 2nd sexual

A

Mullerian agenesis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

lower vagina

A

urogenital sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

mesonephric derivations

A

seminal vesicles, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

remnant mesonephric in female

A

Gartner duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

no sertoli cells or mullerian inhib

A

both internal

male external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

5 alpha reductase def

A

male internal

ambiguous external until puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

leydig

A

leads to male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

sertoli

A

shuts down female (internal) sexual differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

incomplete fusion of septum

A

septate uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

incomplete fusion mullerian ducts

A

bicornuate uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

uterus didelphys

A

complete failure of fusion
pregnancy possible
double uterus, cervix, vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

genital tubercle

A

glans penis, corpus cavernosum/spongiosum

glans clitoris, vestibular bulbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

urogenital sinus

A

bartholin, skene, cowper, prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

urogential folds

A

ventral shaft of penis and labia minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

labioscrotal swelling

A

labia majora and scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

failure of urethral folds to fuse

A

hypo

below (ventral surface)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

associations hypospadias

A

inguinal hernia and cryptorchidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

faulty genital tubercle

A

epispadias

on dorsal surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

gubernaculum

A

anchors testes in males

ovarian ligament+round ligament of uterus in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

processus vaginalis

A

tunica vaginalis in males

obliterated in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

draining ovaries/testes

A

para-aortic lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

body of uterus/cervix/superior bladder

A

external iliac nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

prostate/cervix/corpus cavernosum/proximal vagina

A

internal iliac nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

distal vagina/vulva/scrotum/distal anus

A

superficial inguinal nodes

98
Q

glans penis

A

deep inguinal nodes

99
Q

contents suspensory ligament of ovary

A

ovarian vessels

ureter passes retroperitoneally-at risk during ligation of ovarian vessels

100
Q

contents cardinal ligament

A

derivative of gubernaculum, travels through round inguinal canal
goes from uterine fundus to labia majora

101
Q

contents broad ligament

A

ovaries, fallopain tubes, round ligament of uterus

fold of peritoneum

102
Q

ovarian ligament

A

medial of ovary to lateral uterus

103
Q

histology fallopain tube

A

simple columnar, ciliated

104
Q

sign urethral injury

A

blood in urethral meatus

105
Q

posterior urethral injury

A

membranous portion from pelvic fracture

urine leak into retropubic space

106
Q

anterior urethral injury

A

bulbar at risk from straddle injury

urine leak beneath deep fascia of Buck (if torn into superficial perineal space)

107
Q

steps in ejection

A

parasympathetic
NO leads to increase in cGMP,
NE causes smooth muscle contraction and vasoconstriction-antierectile

108
Q

emission

A

sympathetic through hypogastric

109
Q

ejeaculation

A

visceral and somatic, pudendal

110
Q

spermatogonia

A

produce primary spermatocytes

line seminiferous tubules

111
Q

role of blood testis barrier

A

tight junctions between Sertoli cells

protect from autoimmune attack

112
Q

unaffected by temperature

A

leydig cells

113
Q

relative potency of estrogen

A

estradiol>estrone>estriol

estriol from ovary, estriol from placenta, adipose makes estrone

114
Q

stimulation of prolactin secretion

A

estrogen

115
Q

locations progesterone production

A

corpus luteum, placenta, adrenal cortex, testes

116
Q

prevents endometrial hyperplasia

A

progesterone

117
Q

disinhibition of prolactin

A

fall in progesterone after delivery

118
Q

meiosis I

A

arrested in prophase I until ovulation

119
Q

meiosis II

A

arrested in metaphase II until fertilization

120
Q

increase in temperature

A

progesterone induced

121
Q

Mittleshmerz

A

mid cycle pain due to peritoneal irritation

can mimic appendicitis

122
Q

fastest follicular growth

A

during second week of follicular phase

123
Q

decrease in fertility

A

decrease in progesterone

124
Q

common location fertilization

A

upper end of fallopian tube

125
Q

gestational age

A

from last menstrual period

126
Q

embryonic age

A

from conception (gestation-2 weeks)

127
Q

adaptations in pregnancy

A
increase CO through increase pre, decrease after
increase HR
anemia due to increase plasma
hypercoag
hyperventilation to eliminate fetal CO2
128
Q

increases in hCG

A

multiple gestations, hydatidiform moles, choriocarcinomas, Down

129
Q

decreases in hCG

A

ectopic, Edward, Patau

130
Q

stimulates insulin production in placenta

A

human placental lactogen

leads to increase lipolysis (insulin resistance)

131
Q

APGAR

A

appearnce, pulse, grimace, actitivty, respiration
<7 requires further eval, remains low then risk for neuro damage
out of 10 points

132
Q

associations low birth weight

A

SIDS and mortality

impaired thermo, hypoglycemia, polycythemia, brain dev

133
Q

maintain milk production

A

suckling

nerve stimulation, oxytocin and prolactin

134
Q

milk let down

A

oxytocin

135
Q

benefits breast milk

A

decreased risk for asthma, allergies, DM, obesity
require vitamin D supplements
decreases risk of breast and ovarian cancer for mother

136
Q

source of estrogen in menopause

A

peripheral conversion-estrone

hirsutism

137
Q

labs menopause

A

increase FSH (more than LH)

138
Q

menopause before 40

A

primary ovarian insufficiency

139
Q

deepening of voice

A

testosterone

140
Q

closing epiphyseal plates

A

estrogen from testosterone

141
Q

androgens to estrogen in males

A

p450 aromatase found in adipose and testis

142
Q

loss of cytoplasmic contents and gain of acrosomal cap

A

spermatids to spermatozoon in spermiogenesis

143
Q

labs Klinefelter

A

decrease T due to leydig dysfunction
increase LH and estrogen
dysgenesis of seminiferous leads to decrease inhibin B and increase FSH

144
Q

cystic hygroma

A

Turner syndrome

no Barr body seen

145
Q

pregnancy in Turney

A

IVF, exogenous estradiol and progesterone

146
Q

XYY

A

severe acne, learning disability, autism

147
Q

excessive androgens in female fetus

A

external genitalia ambiguous

internal ovaries

148
Q

androgen insensitivity

A

external genitalia ambiguous but testes present

149
Q

placental aromatase def

A

inability to synthesize estrogen from androgens

maternal virilization

150
Q

5alpha def

A

ambiguous external genitalia until puberty

151
Q

defective migration of GnRH releasing neurons

A

Kallmann
decrease GnRH
infertility

152
Q

proliferative cells in hydatiform mole

A

trophoblasts

153
Q

associations hydatidiform mole

A

hCG sequela, pre-eclampsia, theca-luteain cysts, hyperemesis gravidarum, hyperthyroidism

154
Q

complete mole genetics

A

46
no fetal parts
honeycombed uterus

155
Q

presentation choriocarcinoma

A

hematogenous spread to lungs-shortness of breath and hemoptysis

156
Q

risk factors placental abruption

A

trauma, smoking, HTN, pre-eclampsia, cocaine abuse

157
Q

placenta accreta

A

defective decidua

158
Q

risk factors accreta

A

prior C-section, inflammation, previa

159
Q

attaches to myometrium without penetrating it

A

accreta

160
Q

penetrates into myometrium

A

increta

161
Q

perforates through myometrium and into uterine serosa

A

percreta

can attach to rectum or bladder

162
Q

painless third trimester bleeding

A

placenta pevia

163
Q

risk factors placenta previa

A

multiparity, C-section

164
Q

vasa previa

A

fetal vessels run over cervical os

165
Q

presentation vasa previa

A

painless vaginal bleeding, fetal bradycardia, membrane rupture

166
Q

velamentous umbilicar cord insertion

A

inserts in chorioamniotic membrane rather than placenta

fetal vessels travel to placenta unprotected by Wharton jelly

167
Q

causes postpartum hemorrhage

A

tone-uterine atony
trauma
thrombin
tissue (retained products)

168
Q

risk factors ectopic pregnancy

A
prior
infertility
salpingitis
ruptured appendix
prior tubal surgery
169
Q

causes polyhydraminos

A

duodenal atresia, anencephaly, maternal diabetes, fetal anemia, multiple gestations

170
Q

incidence of pre-eclampsia

A

HTN, diabetes, chronic renal disease, autoimmune disorders

171
Q

death of mother in eclampsia

A

stroke, intracranial hemorrhage or ARDS

172
Q

hepatic subcapsular hematomas

A

associated with HELLP

results in severe hypotension

173
Q

prognosis gyn in worst

A

ovarian>endo>cervical

174
Q

incidence gyn cancers

A

endo>ovarian>cervical in US

cervical more common worldwide

175
Q

vaginal SCC

A

secondary to cervical SCC

176
Q

post coital bleeding

A

cervical cancer

177
Q

risk factors cervical cancer

A

multiple sex partners, smoking, sex young, HIV

178
Q

lateral invasion cervical cancer

A

block ureters causing renal failrue

179
Q

cancer PCOS

A

endometrial cancer due to unopposed estrogen

180
Q

induce ovulation in PCOS

A

clomiphene and metformin

181
Q

most common ovarian mass in young women

A

follicular cyst

182
Q

cause of theca-lutein cyst

A

gonadotropin stimulation

associated with choriocarcinoma and hydatidiform moles

183
Q

bilateral mass with fallopain like epithelium

A

serous cystadenoma

184
Q

multilobualted mass

A

mucinous cystadenoma

185
Q

pale yellow-tan with coffee bean nuclei

A

brenner tumor

186
Q

spindle shaped fibroblasts

A

fibromas

pulling sensation in groin

187
Q

Meigs syndrome

A

ovarian fibroma, ascites, hydrothorax

188
Q

abnormal bleeding post menopause and produce estrogen

A

thecoma-like granulosa cell tumors

189
Q

most common malignant stromal tumor

A

granulosa cell

190
Q

histology granulosa

A

call-exner bodies

granulosa cells haphazardly around collection of eosinophilic fluid

191
Q

psammoma bodies

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

192
Q

pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

intraperitoneal accumulation of mucinous materal from ovarian or appendiceal tumor

193
Q

dysgerminoma

A

in adolescents
sheets of fried egg cells
LDH and hCG

194
Q

marker yolk sac

A

AFP

195
Q

yellow hemorrhagic mass

A

yolk sac

Schiller-Duval bodies

196
Q

mets to ovaries

A

Krukenberg tumor

197
Q

extension of endometrial tissue into uterine myometrium

A

adenomyosis

198
Q

treatment adenomyosis

A

GnRH agonists, hysterectomy, excision

199
Q

adhesion or fibrosis of endometrium

A

Asherman

200
Q

associations Asherman syndrome

A

dilation and curettage

201
Q

benign smooth muscle tumor

A

leiomyoma

estrogen sensitive

202
Q

histology leiomyoma

A

whorled pattern of smooth muscle bundles

203
Q

associations endometrial carcinoma

A

prolonged estrogens, obesity, diabetes, HTN, nulliparity, late menopause, early menarche, Lynch syndrome

204
Q

treatment endometritis

A

genta+clinda+/-ampicillin

205
Q

fibrocystic changes

A

simple cysts
papillary apocrine metaplasia
stromal fibrosis

206
Q

sclerosing adenosis

A

calcifications

slight increase for cancer

207
Q

epithelial hyperplasia

A

terminal ductal or lobualr epithelium

risk of carcinoma with atypical cells

208
Q

small, mobile mass that changes size with estrogen

A

fibroadenoma

209
Q

most common cause of nipple discharge

A

intraductal papilloma

210
Q

phylloes tumor

A

connective tissue and leaf like lobulations

some may become malignant

211
Q

risk factors breast cancer

A

increase estrogen exposure, increase menstrual cycles, older age at 1st live birth, obesity

212
Q

triple negative

A

AA

213
Q

microcalcifications on mammography

A

ductal carcinoma in situ

214
Q

Paget disease

A

underlying DCIS or invasive breast cancer

eczematous patches

215
Q

rock hard masswith stellate infiltration

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

216
Q

histology invasive lobular carcinoma

A

row of cells due to decrease in E cadherin

often bilateral

217
Q

fleshy cellualr lymphocytic infiltrate

A

medullary carcinoma

218
Q

abnormal curvature of penis due to fibrous plaque in tunica albuginea

A

Peyronie

219
Q

associations priapism

A

sickle, medications

220
Q

treatment priapism

A

corporal aspiration, intracavernosal phenylephrine, or surgical decompression

221
Q

precursor squamous cell carcinoma of penis

A

Bowen, erythroplasia of Queyrat, Bowenoid

222
Q

associations SCC penis

A

uncircumcised and HPV

223
Q

risk cryptorchidism

A

germ cell tumors

224
Q

labs cryptorchidism

A

decrease inhibin B incerase FSH LH

225
Q

orchiopexy

A

contralateral testis is at risk so should be bilateral

226
Q

varicocele

A

dialted veins in pampiniform plexus due to increase venous pressure

227
Q

diagnosis varicocele

A

augmented by valsalva

228
Q

locations extragonadal germ cell tumors in adults

A

retroperitoneum, mediastinum, pineal, suprasellar

229
Q

extragonadal in infants

A

sacrococcygeal teratomas

230
Q

cause congential hydrocele

A

incomplete obliteration of processus

231
Q

spermatocele

A

cyst due to dilated epididymal duct or rete testis

232
Q

risk factors testicular germ cell tumors

A

Klinefleter, cryptorchidism

233
Q

histology and labs seminoma

A

ALP, fried egg

excellent prognosis

234
Q

yolk sac

A

yellow, Schinner-Duval, increase AFP

<3 yo

235
Q

choriocarcinoma

A

mets to lungs and brain

may produce gynecomastia and hyperthyroidism

236
Q

malignant hemorrhagic mass with necrosis

A

embryonal carcinoma
hCG or AFP
glandular morphology

237
Q

golden brown, Reinke crystals

A

Leydig cell tumor

238
Q

most common testicular cancer in older men

A

testicular lymphoma

239
Q

labs osteoblastic mets

A

increase ALP and PSA

240
Q

testosterone adverse

A

increase LDL and decrease HDL

241
Q

causes blue tinted vision

A

PDE inhibitors