Repro Flashcards

1
Q

Where are sperm produced? (be specific)

A

In the seminiferous tubules in spermatid cells

Found in testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the functions of the sertoli cells?

A

Form blood-testis barrier
Isolate secondary spematocytes, spermatids/ spermatozoa from immune system
Nutrients/waste to sperm
Support spermiation (getting sperm to lumen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the main glands that add fluid to sperm to make semen?

A

Bulbourethral gland
Prostate gland
Seminal vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many sperm develop from each spermatogonium ?

A

512

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long does it take to produce sperm?

A

75 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where do sperm become motile, how long can they be stored?

A

Epididymis, 15 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the stages of sperm production?

A

Spermatocytogenesis
Meiosis
Spermiogensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the counter current heat exchange?

A

A mechanism to reduce heat in testis
The capillary network allows heat exchange between the veins and arteries of the testis before reaching the spermatic cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What factors affect spermatogenesis?

A
Testis temperature
Endocrine
Loss of blood testis barrier
Immunological reactions
Environment
Medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where do andeogens act?

A

Systemic - Deepning voice,
male body hair,
increased sebacous gland activity
Protein anabolism

CNS - aggressive behaviour
Hypothalamus
Penis (errective, copulatory, ejaculatory effectiveness) 
Striated muscle
Testis (sperm angiogensis)
Prostate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How long does it ake from the LH surge to ovulation?

A

36 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When does the first meiotic division take place of an egg cell? (primary to secondary)

A

IN utero, to be completed at ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the LH surge associated with?

A

Ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When does oestrogen have a negative feedback system?

A

Under low concentrations
Oestrogen and progesterone inhbit oestrogen release
Also inhibit FSH and LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When does oestrogen have a positive feedback route?

A

Under high concentrations

LSH + FH together release oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the role of GnRH in females?

A

Stimulates LSH/FH release from anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the role LH?

A

Maintain dominant follicle
Induce follicular maturation and ovulation
Stimulate CL development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the role of FSH?

A

Stimulates follicular recruitment + development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the role of oestrodiol (type of oestrogen)?

A

supports female secondary sexual characteristics and reproductive organs,
negative feedback control of LH and GnRH EXCEPT for late follicular phase - positive control of LH surge,
stimulates proliferative endometrium,
negative control of FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is oestrodiol produced?

A

Granulosa cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the role of progesterone?

A

Maintanence of secretory endometrium

Negative feedback control of HPO (hypothalamus hypophyseal ovarian axis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the targets for oestrogen?

A

Systemic - protein, carbohydrate + lipid metabolism
Water + electrolyte balance
Blood clotting

Anterior pituitary
Hypothalamus
CNS
Fat distribution
Mammary gland
Uterus/vagina/fallopian tube/ovaries
Bone maturation + turnover
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the levels of progesterone in the follicular + leuteal phases of ovation?

A

Follicular - 1-4nmol/L

Leuteal - 12-70nmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens to LH + FSH in meopause?

A

The levels continue to grow as the positive feedback loop of oestrogen is not working
Nor do they have enough oestrogen to inhibit its production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many women are affected by morning sickness?

A

80-85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What conditions make morning sickness worse?

A

Conditions where there is higher Human Chorionic gonadotrophin
I.e Twins
Molar pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What can morning sickness progress to?

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In which tirmester does maternal blood pressure drop?

A

Second trimester

Returns to normal in 3rd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why does maternal blood pressure drop in the second trimester?

A

Expansion of the uteroplacental circulation
A fall in systemic vascular resistance
A reduction in blood viscosity
A reduction in sensitivity to angiotensin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why does urine output increase in pregnancy?

A

Decreased space
Renal plasma flow increases
GFR increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why is there an increased risk of UTIs in pregant women?

A

Due to increased urinary stasis

Hydronephrosis occurs in third trimester (physiological) meaning pyelonephritis more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are UTIs in pregnancy associated with?

A

Preterm labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Who should recieve pre-pregnancy counselling?

A

Ideally every woman, although this is not the case due to unplanned pregnancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is involved in pre-pregnancy counselling?

A

Discussion of health risks associated with getting pregnant / to the baby
General health measures
-BMI (before, difficult to lower in pregnancy)
-Improve diets (before, not recommended in pregnancy)
-Reduce alcohol (before!)
Smoking cessation
Folic acid (ideally 3 motnhs before)
Confirm immunity to rubella
Suitibility of drugs?
Psychiatric health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does an antenatal exam involve?

A
Routine examinations of fetal movements
Checking that mother is feeling well
Blood pressure/urinalysis
Abdominal palpations 
Fetal heartbeat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is palpated for in an antenatal exam?

A

Symphyseal fundal height
Estimate size of baby
Estimate of liquor volume
Fetal presentation (longitudinal vs transverse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is antenatal screening?

A

A non-compulsory screen for conditions to be detected early
Appropriate counselling should be undertaken beforehand
Infection
Isoimmunisation (resus)
Downs
US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What infections are screened for in pregnancy?

A
Hep B
Syphylis
HIV
MSSU
Rubella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What isoimmunisation markers are screened for?

A
Rhesus type (if mother is negative)
Anti-C, Anti-Kell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the purpose of the first ultrasound scan?

A

To ensure viable pregnancy
Multiple pregnancies?
Identify abnormalities
Down’s screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is considered high risk for downs syndrome?

A

1/200

42
Q

What tests are available for detecting downs syndrome?

A

First nuchual translucency abnormal

Then CVS
Amniocentesis

43
Q

When is the first ultrasound carried out?

A

10-14 weeks gestation

44
Q

What is screened in first trimester screening?

A

serum b-human chorionic gonadotrophin (b-hCG)
pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)
fetal nuchal translucency (NT) measurement

45
Q

What is the nuchual translucency test?

A

Checks for size (not appearance) of the nuchual translucency (area around neck of baby)
Abnormalities increase with age

46
Q

When can CVS be carried out?

A

10-14 weeks

47
Q

When can amniocentesis be carried out?

A

15 weeks plus

48
Q

What is the difference between CVS and amniocentesis?

A

CVS takes cells from placenta, comes with 1-2% miscarriage risk

Amniocentesis takes amniotic fluid, 1% risk of miscarriage

49
Q

What is non-invasive parental testing?

A

Maternal blood taken to check for abnormalities (not done on NHS)
Can look for trisomes
If high risk, still advised to take invasive test to be sure

50
Q

How are nueral tube defects screened for?

A

First trimester prgnancies for ancocephaly
Second trimester biochemical screening if unable to get nuchual transluency + alpa-fetoprotein
2nd trimester US detects 90% of NT defects

51
Q

When is the 2nd trimester US done?

A

20wks

52
Q

What is the purpose of 2nd trimester US?

A

Detecting major abnormalities

Although poor in detecting chromosomal abnormalities

53
Q

What hormones are associated with the female reproductive tract?

A

Gonadotrophin releasing hormone
Gonadotorphins (LH + FSH)
Steroid hormones - oestrogen, progesterone, Testosterone

54
Q

When can foetal heart pulsation be seen on a transvaginal US?

A

6 weeks gestation

55
Q

What is the first sign of pregnancy on an ultrasound?

A

Thickening of uterus lining

56
Q

Ho is gestation age calculated in the first trimester?

A

Crown rump length

57
Q

When would a thir trimester US scan be indicated?

A

If baby feels large/small
Fluid volume abnormal
May be a problem

58
Q

What features are used to monitor foetal growth?

A

Femur length
Abdominal length
Head circumfrence

59
Q

How often would you monitor foetal frowth?

A

every 4 weeks if abnormal

60
Q

What marker is raised in open nueral ube defects?

A

Alphafoetal protein

61
Q

What are the types of combined contraception?

A

Combined oral pill
Vaginal ring
Patch

62
Q

What are the types of progesterone only contraception?

A

Implant
Injectable
Progesterone only pill
Hormonal coil

63
Q

What are the types of emergency contraception?

A

IUD (copper coil) - best
Morning after pill - Levaonorgestrel (72hrs)
Ella - one (up to 120 hrs)

64
Q

How are clinical trials for contraception measured?

A

Either pearl index

Life table analysis (better)

65
Q

What are the types of abortion you can get?

A

Medical (before 20 weeks)

Surgical (before 24 weeks - must be in England)

66
Q

What is the regime for the OCP?

A

21 days
7 days off
Can be taken back to back

67
Q

What hormones does the OCP contain?

A

Eithinyl estradiol

Synthetic progesterone

68
Q

What is the method of action of the combined oral pill?

A

Prevent ovulation through altering FSH/LH levels
Prevents teh surge
PPrevents implantation by stopping endometrial growth
Inhibits sperm penetration of cervical mucus by altering it

69
Q

Hoe long does the OCP take to work?

A

7 days

Need other contraceptive methods during that time

70
Q

What are the other, non contraceptive, benefits of the oral contraceptive pill?

A
Regular periods
Reduction in heavy menstration
Reduction in ovarian cysts
Reduction in ovarian dna endometrial cancer
Improves acne
71
Q

What are the risks associated with the pill?

A

Safe for most women
3x risk of DVT, however only extra 0.0001% more affected
Cervical cancer doubles with 10yrs use, potentially

72
Q

Who is at increased risk for VTE?

A
Major surgery/immonbility
Thrombophilias
Famil history under 45
BMI over 30
Underlying vascular disease
Postnatal (21 days)
73
Q

When does the progesterone only pill have to be taken?

A

Ideally at same time every day

However, you have a 12 hr period the next day following the time you took the previous pill

74
Q

How does the progesterone only pill work?

A

Cervical mucus inpentetrable to sperm
Effect lost if not taken within time period (older agents 3 hrs)
Effects ovulation as well

75
Q

What is the injection otherwise known as?

A

DepoProvera

76
Q

What is DepoProvera

A

IM injection every 12 weeks

77
Q

What is the MOA of devoprovera?

A

Prevents ovulation
Alters cervical mucus making it hostile
Prevents implantation by rendering endometrium unsuitable

78
Q

What are teh advantages of devoprovera?

A

Good for forgetfull pill takes
Oestrogen free#
70% don’t bleed
Works regardless of weight

79
Q

What are the disadvantages in depoprovera?

A

A delay in return to fertility
Reduction in bone density (reversible)
Problematic bleeding
Weight gain

80
Q

What are the failure rates of female sterilisation?

A

1 in 500 lifetime risk

81
Q

What is the failure rate of a vasectomy?

A

1 in 2,000

82
Q

What pills are given for a medical abortion?

A
Mifepristone (stops pregnancy hormone)
Then misoprostol (uterine contraction)
83
Q

What are the complications of medical termination of pregnancy?

A

Failure in roughly 5%
Haemorrhage in ~ 5%
Infection

84
Q

How does the copper coil work?

A

Is spermacidic

Also reduces heavy menstral bleeding

85
Q

What is maternal mortality?

A

Death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of a termination of pregnancy

86
Q

What is maternal morbidity?

A

Severe health complications occurring in pregnancy and delivery not resulting in death

87
Q

What are the types of deaths in pregnancy?

A

Direct deaths - obstetric complications during pregnancy, labour or puerperium or from any treatment
Indirect deaths - disorder associated with pregnancy
Late deaths - after 42 days after pregnancy, within 1 year

88
Q

What are the phases to the ovarian cycle?

A

Follicular phase

Luteal phase

89
Q

What is the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

Gonadotrophins released which stimulate growth of new follicles
When follicle ready to release egg LH surges and releases it

90
Q

What is the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

Occurs after ovulation
Follicle becomes Corpus luteum and produces progesterone
This causes changes to lining of womb
Degenerates to corpus albicans if pregnancy doesn’t occur

91
Q

What are the phases to the menstal cycle?

A

Mesntral phase
Proliferative phase
Secretary phase
Premenstral phase

92
Q

What is the menstral phase of the mesntral cycle?

A

4 days where bleeding occurs

93
Q

What is the proliferative phase of the menstral cycle?

A

Phase between day 4 and 14
Oestrogen thickens endometrim
Follicle matures within ovary
Ovulation occurs at end of this phase

94
Q

What is the secratory phase?

A

After ovulation

Progesterone causes blood vessels to dilate within the endometrium

95
Q

What is the premenstral phase of the menstral cycle?

A

Where hormone levels drop as pregnancy has not occurred

96
Q

What are the stages to oogenesis?

A

Oognium undergo mitotic division to form primary oocytes. Completed at birth
Meiosis arrested in prophase
Primary oocytes respond to hormone each cycle - one goes under meiotic division. Release polar body
Secondary oocyte undergoes second meiosis when fertilised by sperm. Releases second polar body (and mature ovum)

97
Q

What are the male reproductive hormones?

A

GnRH (from hypothalamus)
Gonadotrophics - FSH/LH (from anterior pituitary)
Testosterone (from testis)

98
Q

What do sertoli cells produce?

A

Inhibin

99
Q

What do leydig cells produce?

A

Testosterone

100
Q

Where does FSH act in males?

A

Spermatogonia in semiferos tubules

results in spermatogenesis

101
Q

Where does LH act in males?

A

Leydig cells
Interstitial cells of testis

(results in androgens)

102
Q

What are the amin factors that affect oogensis/spermatogensis?

A

Problem with hormonal control - genetic, tumours, medications or functional

Problem with site of production (genetic, surgery/trauma, infections, medication sideeffects - cancer)