Neuro 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Why does raised ICP matter?

A

cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) has relationship with cerebral blood flow (CBF)
>not linear
>termed autoregulation
late reflex brainstem ischaemia in raised ICP (intracranial pressure)
>will result in increased MAP to ensure CPP is maintained (Cushing reflex)

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2
Q

What happens when CPP is more than 150 mg Hg?

A

loss of control of blood flow – ischaemic forced vasodilation
Lisa brain swelling (brain oedema) – ICP = MAP – thus no blood flow

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3
Q

What happens when CPP is less than 50mmHG?

A

cannot perfuse brain adequately with oxygen and nutrients,

>leads to loss of function

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4
Q

What can cause raised ICP?

A

information – meningitis, encephalitis, abscess
vascular causes – intracranial haemorrhage (natural disease or traumatic), brain swelling (traumatic brain injury, physical, or physiological (cardiac arrest))
tumours
hydrocephalus

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5
Q

What are the types of brain herniation?

A
Cingulate
Central
Uncal
Cerebrotonsullar
Upward
Transcalvarial
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6
Q

How are the clinical signs of raised ICP explained by their pathology?

A

Glasgow coma scale – reason cortex and brainstem
pupillary dilation – squeezing stretch on cranial nerve 3
localising signs – squeeze on decussation of Corsical spinal tracks and posterior columns

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7
Q

Where are the common sights of brain tumours?

A

In adults, mostly above tentorium

In children most are below (and mostly primary)

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8
Q

What is ischaemic penumbra?

A

Tumours occupy space and therefore squeeze nearby tissue and cause local ischaemia
lead to loss of function around it,
>Removal of oedema around tumour improves function
can salvage in tumours and head injury

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9
Q

What is glioma (astrocytoma)

A

tumours resembling cells of astrocytes differentiation
CMS supporting cells with diffuse areas (not encapsulated)
>do not metastasise outside the CNS
Often young adults

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10
Q

What is the prognosis of glioma?

A

grades of differentiation predict prognosis
high-grade has worst outlook Outlook
>grows rapidly and responds poorly to surgery – median survival 36 weeks
site important outcome regardless of grade
low-grade (cystic) grows very slowly

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11
Q

What is medullary blastoma

A

the tumour of the primitive neural ectoderm – small blue round cell tumour
children especially but not exclusively
posterior fossa especially brainstem affected
poor outcome because of central site and difficult access for surgery

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12
Q

What is meningioma

A
tumour of the Arapahoe sites – those that make up coverings of the brain
2nd most common type
it is a connective tissue tumour 
often benign 
do not metastasise 
can be locally aggressive 
can invade the skull
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13
Q

What is a nerve sheath tumour?

A

Around nerves in the CNS or PNS
acoustic neuroma is most common
found near CN VII can results in unilateral deafness
found in posterior fossa, often benign lesion removal to technically difficult and can cause collateral cranial nerve injury as cranial nerve VII is very close

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14
Q

What is a Benign tumour of the posterior pituitary in the pituitary fossa?

A

often secrete pituitary hormone
many non-functional squeeze normal gland stops working – panhypopituitarism
hormone secreted reflected on clinical signs (Growth hormone result in acromegaly or giantism)
grow superiorly and impinge on optic chiasma– visual signs depending on exact site

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15
Q

What is CNS lymphoma

A

high grade neoplasm, usually diffuse large B cell lymphoma
often deep in central site therefore difficult to biopsy
difficult to treat as drugs do not cross blood-brain barrier
generally do not spread outside CNS

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16
Q

What is capillary heamanglioblastoma?

A

Space occupying tumour that may bleed

most often in the cerebellar hemispheres

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17
Q

What are secondary tumours?

A

mostly carcinomas of common tumours
present with focal signs usually
some can be removed surgically although the site matters
tend to be encapsulated and surrounded by oedema
histology of the primary tumour

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18
Q

What are the most common tumours that metastasise to the brain?

A

Lung
Breast
Kidney
GI

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19
Q

What are the clinical features of a brain tumour?

A
Cerebral oedema
Increased intracranial pressure
Focal neurologic deficits
Obstruction of flow of CSF
Pituitary dysfunction
Papilledema (if swelling around optic disk
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20
Q

What are the specific clinical features of a cerebral tumour?

A
Headache
Vomiting unrelated to food intake
Changes in visual fields and acuity
Hemiparesis or hemiplegia
Hypokinesia
Decreased tactile discrimination
Seizures 
Changes in personality or behaviour
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21
Q

What are the specific clinical features of a brainstem tumour?

A
Hearing loss (acoustic neuroma)
Facial pain and weakness
Dysphagia, decreased gag reflex
Nystagmus
Hoarseness
Ataxia (loss of muscle coordination) and dysarthria (speech muscle disorder) (cerebellar tumours)
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22
Q

What can cause small pupils?

A
old age
Bright light
Miotic eyedrops
opiate overdose
Horner's syndrome
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23
Q

How do you diagnose a brain tumour?

A

CT
MRI
MRI angiography
PR spectroscopy

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24
Q

What are the clinical features of a frontal lobe tumour?

A
Inappropriate behavior
Personality changes
Inability to concentrate
Impaired judgment
Memory loss
Headache
Expressive aphasia
Motor dysfunctions
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25
Q

What are the clinical features of a parietal lobe tumour?

A
Sensory deficits
Paresthesia
Loss of 2 pt discrimination
Visual field deficits
Temporal lobe
Psychomotor seizures – temporal lobe-judgment, behavior, hallucinations, visceral symptoms, no convulsions, but loss of consciousness
Occipital lobe
Visual disturbances
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26
Q

What are the types of intraaxial tumours?

A
Gliomas
Astrocytoma (Grades I & II)
Anaplastic Astrocytoma(III)
Glioblastoma Multiforme(IV)
Oligodendroglioma 
Ependymomas
Medulloblastoma
CNS Lymphoma
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27
Q

What do intraaxial gliomas originate from?

A

Intra-axial gliomas originate from glial cells; they affect brain by invasion and infiltration.

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28
Q

What are the types of extraaxial tumours?

A
Meningioma
Metastatic
Acoustic neuromas (Schwannoma)
Pituitary adenoma
Neurofibroma
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29
Q

Where do extraaxial tumours orginate?

A

From supporting structures of CNS

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30
Q

How does astrocytoma present?

A

seizures,
headache,
slowly progressive neurological deficits

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31
Q

What are oligodendrogliomas?

A

normally about 40 years old
distinguish pathologically from astrocytoma’s by the characteristic fried egg appearance
rises from Myelin
found in frontal lobe superficially
presents with seizures, headache, slowly progressive neurological deficits

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32
Q

What are glioblastomas?

A

most common primary brain tumour in adults
presents 40 to 60 years old more common in males
has poor prognosis and can look like a butterfly lesion
tumour infiltrates a long white matter tracts and can cross corpus callosum
may arise de novo or evolve from a low grade glioma

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33
Q

How do glioblastomas present?

A

presents procedures headache and slowly progressive neurological deficits

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34
Q

Where are glioblastomas found?

A

found in frontal and temporal lobes, or basal ganglia

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35
Q

What is the venous drainage of the brain?

A

veins do not accompany arteries, large venous sinuses within dura
Fed by bridging veins from brain – cross meninges brain to skull
emissary veins into veins outside skull

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36
Q

What is a stroke?

A

focal neurological deficit – loss of function affecting specific region of central nervous system due to disruption of blood supply
causes damage to brain tissue due to lack of oxygen and nutrients
most strokes due to thrombi and pulled ischaemic strokes
one in 10 caused by ruptured blood vessels or haemorrhagic strokes

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37
Q

What are the key features of a stroke?

A

focal neurological deficit
sudden weakness or numbness – face, arm or leg, most often one side of body
others
confusion, difficulty speaking or understanding speech
difficulty seeing one or both eyes
difficulty walking, dizziness, balance coordination loss
severe headache with no known cause
unconsciousness
clinical presentation gives indication to possible anatomy of lesion

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38
Q

What are the different types of stroke?

A

transit ischaemic attack (TIA) – less than 24 hours
minor stroke – growth in 24 hours but minor neurological deficit
disabling stroke – growth in 24 hours with persistent disability that impairs independence
can occur in either carotid or Priscilla are free territory

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39
Q

What is the pathogenesis of ischaemic stroke?

A

brain very sensitive to oxygen ischaemia
cerebral blood flow takes about 15% of cardiac output
a few minutes of hypoxaemia or anoxia will cause brain ischaemia
can lead to infarction, damage to neurons is permanent, they do not regenerate
roughly 85% of strokes have potential for thrombolysis

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40
Q

What are the causes of ischaemia?

A

atherosclerosis
thrombosis
embolism
hypertension – cardiac arrest, massive blood loss
arterial spasm following Symptomatic treatment haemorrhage
Systemic vascular disease e.g. arthritis
mechanical compression – head injury causing brain swelling, spinal cord compression
venous obstruction – dual vein thrombosis, mediastinal tumour

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41
Q

What are the sources of thrombolysis and emboli?

A

thrombotic causes – arteriosclerosis, smoking, diabetes
Emboli sources – cardiac arrhythmia, thoracic aortic aneurysm
distribution, thrombi, single large infarct
Emboli distribution – multiple smaller infarcts

42
Q

What is watershed?

A

internal pattern of ischaemia and infarction due to periphery of perfusion territory of major arteries affected

43
Q

What is the mechanism of global ischaemia?

A

systemic hypertension and local atherosclerosis
lead to decreased flow, and therefore decrease oxygen
neurons in superficial cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, cerebellum are most sensitive

44
Q

What is the histology of infarcts?

A

loss of neurons causes clinical functional deficits
foamy macrophages – part of repair process, leads to gliosis
Gliosis CNS equivalent or fibrosis

45
Q

What is the pathogenesis of haemorrhagic stroke?

A

roughly 15% of strokes
intracerebral haemorrhage – associated with systemic hypertension over 50s, 80% in basal ganglia, brainstem cerebellum, cerebral cortex
lovely growing intracranial space occupying lesion an increase in intracranial pressure

46
Q

What can cause a subarrachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Rupture of secular (Berry) aneurysm on the circle of Willis
>branching point on the interior part circle of Willis
internal carotid, anterior communicating artery and middle cerebral artery
most are less than 10 mm but up to 56 mm seen
Can contain thrombus so imaging can underestimate true size

47
Q

What is optic neuritis?

A
demyelination within the optic nerve
monocular visual loss
pain on eye movement
reduced visual acuity
reduced colour vision
optic disc may be swollen
often associated with multiple sclerosis
48
Q

What are the disorders of eye movement?

A

isolated 3rd, 4th, 6th nerve palsy
combination of above
supra-nuclear gaze palsy
nystagmus

49
Q

What is 3rd nerve palsy?

A

microvascular – diabetes, hypertension
painless, people spared
compressive – posterior communicating artery aneurysm, raised ICP
painful pupil affected

50
Q

What can cause 6th nerve palsy?

A
numerous causes including 
idiopathic 
diabetes 
meningitis 
raised ICP
51
Q

What can cause nystagmus?

A
can be congenital
serious visual impairment
peripheral vestibular problem
Central vestibular/brainstem disease
cerebellar disease
toxins
52
Q

What can cause trigeminal neuralgia?

A
Paroxysmal attacks of lancinating pain
Triggers
Middle age and older
Caused by vascular loop 
Compression fifth nerve in the posterior fossa
Treated medically with carbamazepine
Surgical options if medication resistant
53
Q

What is Bell’s palsy?

A
Unilateral facial weakness
Lower motor neurone type
Often preceded by pain behind ear
Eye closure affected
Risk of corneal damage
Treated with steroids
Usually good recovery
54
Q

What is pseudobulbar palsy?

A

Bilateral UMN lesions

>e.g. in vascular lesions of both internal capsules, MND

55
Q

What are the symptoms of pseudobulbar palsy?

A
  • dysarthria
  • dysphonia
  • dysphagia
  • spastic, immobile tongue
  • brisk jaw jerk
  • brisk gag reflex
56
Q

What is bulbar palsy?

A

Bilateral LMN lesions affecting IX - XII

eg. MND, polio, tumours, vascular lesions of the medulla and syphilis

57
Q

What are the symptoms of bulbar palsy?

A
  • wasted, fasciculating tongue
  • dysarthria
  • dysphonia
  • dysphagia

Be careful when feeding because of these

58
Q

What is a coma?

A

State of unreliable psychological responsiveness
>in which subject lies with eyes closed
>and shows no psychological understandable response to external stimulus

59
Q

What does conciousness depend on?

A

Intel is sending reticular activating system – is alert and awaking element of consciousness
functioning cerebral cortex of both hemispheres determines content of that consciousness

60
Q

What is persistent vegative state?

A

state which brainstem recovers to a considerable extent but there is no evidence of cortical function
arousal wakefulness but patient does not regain awareness purposeful behaviour of any kind

61
Q

What is locked-in syndrome?

A

total paralysis below level IIIrd nerve nuclei

able to open elevate and press eyes but no horizontal eye movements nor other voluntary eye movement

62
Q

What are the neurological assessments of coma?

A

GCS
brainstem function
motor function plus reflexes

63
Q

What cranial nerves cause abnormal pupillary reactions?

A

II - optic

III - oculomotor

64
Q

What cranial nerves cause abnormal corneal responses?

A

V - Trigeminal

VII - facial

65
Q

What cranial nerves cause abnormal spontaneous eye movements?

A

III - oculomotor
IV - Troclear
VI - abducens

66
Q

What cranial nerves cause abnormal Oculocephalic responses (Doll’s eye)?

A

III - oculomotor
IV - Troclear
VI - abducens
VIII - vestibulocochlear

67
Q

What cranial nerves cause abnormal Oculovestibular responses?

A

III - oculomotor
IV - Troclear
VI - abducens
VIII - vestibulocochlear

68
Q

What cranial nerves cause abnormal respiratory pattern?

A

Medullary centre

69
Q

How do you assess motor function?

A

Motor response
Muscle tone
tendon reflexes
teachers

70
Q

What can cause a coma without focal signs?

A
Anoxic/ ischaemic conditions
	Metabolic disturbances
	Intoxications
	Systemic infections
	Hyperthermia/ Hypothermia
	Epilepsy
71
Q

How do you investigate a patient in a coma?

A
toxicology screen including alcohol level
measure blood sugar and electrolytes
access hepatic and renal function
acid-base assessment and blood gases
measure blood pressure
consider carbon monoxide poisoning
72
Q

What are the potential causes for a coma with minimalism with or without focal signs?

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage
meningitis
encephalitis

73
Q

What are the causes of coma with focal brain stem or lateralising cerebral signs?

A

cerebral tumour
cerebral haemorrhage
cerebral infarction
cerebral abscess

74
Q

What are the most common causes of a coma that lasts more than five hours?

A

Drug ingestion +/- alcohol
Hypoxia
Cerebrovascular event
Metabolic disorders - diabetes, hepatic/renal failure, sepsis etc

75
Q

What are the features of ulnar neuropathy?

A

Site is most often at elbow, sometimes at wrist
Ulnar distribution numbness - dorsal cutaneous branch
Leads to wasting of small muscles

76
Q

What is myaethenia gravis?

A

Where body produces antibodies to post synaptic Ach receptor
Results in decreased effectiveness of Ach
Presents with weakness, fatigue but normal sensation
Weakness often generalised - often eyes
Diplopia/pitosis

77
Q

How do you diagnose myasthenia gravis?

A

Detect antibodies

Neurophysiology - repetitive stimulation, single fibre EMG

78
Q

What is EMG?

A

Looks for action potentials from whole motor units
SF EMG uses filter, sensitivity and timebase to isolate the action potentials from individual muscle fibres within a motor unit
Can be used to find “jitter”

79
Q

What is jitter?

A

In NM junction disease where the tight relationship between two points within the same motor unit is lost
Due to slight delay in polarisation or even block

80
Q

What can be seen in an EEG?

A

Epileptic activity
States of consciousness - sleep/stages of sleep
Encephalopathy

81
Q

How does ulnar neuropathy look like in a nerve conduction test?

A

Slowing across elbow (conduction sloness due to demylination)
Evidence for conduction block at elbow
Small sensory response from ulnar nerve
Or small but not slowed motor response and normal sensory
Due to nerve root damage - C8 radiculopathy

82
Q

When wouldn’t you perform a CT scan?

A

Minor head trauma exclusion criteria

Seizure - MRI usually indicated

83
Q

What are the contraindications for an MRI?

A

Cardiac pacemakers, implantable defibrillators, cochlear implants
Moveable metalic implants - aneqrysm clips, heart valves, recent intraabdominal clips
Claustrophobia, pregnancy, tattoos

84
Q

When would you do a PET scan?

A

Glucose usage

Increased in tumour, inflammation, infection

85
Q

What are the traumatic causes of intracranial haemorrhage?

A

Extradural haematoma
Subdural haematoma (acute or chronic)
Traumatic subarachnoid haemorrhage
Intra-parenchymal contusions

86
Q

What are the non-traumatic causes of intracrnial haemorrhage?

A

SAH
ICH
Vascular malformations

87
Q

What are the cuases of SAH?

A
ANEURYSM (80%)
	Trauma
	Non-aneursymal (peri-mesencephalic)
	Arteriovenous malformations AVMs
	Vasculitis
	Carotid/vertebral artery dissection
88
Q

What are the risk factors of SAH?

A
Peak age = 55-60yrs
		Hypertension
		Smoking
		Cocaine
		Higher incidence in Finland and Japan
		Family history of SAH
89
Q

What are the associated conditions of SAH?

A

Polycystic kidney disease
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (collagen disorder)
Marfan’s syndrome

90
Q

How do intracranial signs present?

A

Focal neurological deficits
Seizures
ECG changes
Reduced level of consciousness, coma, death

91
Q

What are the common complications of SAH?

A
Vasospasm
>arterial
Hydrocephalus
>Affects 25% patients
>May need permanent CSF diversion – VP shunt 
Seizures
>5-10% of SAH patients
Electrolyte abnormalities
>Hyponatraemia (30-45%)
92
Q

How do you prevent vasospasm following SAH?

A

Nimodipine for 1st 3 weeks following SAH as prophylaxis

Keep well hydrated (at least 3 l/day)

93
Q

What is arterial vasospasm?

A

Spasm of cerebral arteries– unclear mechanism
>Blood in subarachnoid space is irritant
>Causes release of inflammatory cytokines
>Results in smooth muscle contraction in vessel wall
>Brain supplied by spastic artery starved of oxygen
>If untreated – leads to stroke i.e. permanent deficit/weakness

94
Q

What are the risk factors of an intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

Hypertension
Increasing age
Substance abuse
Underlying lesion – tumour or vascular lesion

95
Q

Where is the most common place for an intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

Basal ganglia

96
Q

What are the symptoms of an intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

Developing neurological deficit – may be more gradual than in embolic stroke
Contralateral weakness of face / arm / leg
Dysphasia (if bleed in dominant hemisphere - left)
Symptoms due to raised ICP (intracranial pressure)
>Headache
>Vomiting
>Deteriorating conscious level
>Death

97
Q

How do you treat intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

After diagnosis on CT
Control BP – avoid systolic BP >180mmHg (may cause further haemorrhage)
If survive the acute phase – intensive stroke rehab leads to the best outcomes
Hemiplegia common – basal ganglia bleeds usually involve the internal capsule

98
Q

What is arteriovenous malformation?

A

Abnormal connection between arteries and veins – no capillary bed
?congenital origin – but do enlarge with age
High flow, high pressure – veins not designed to cope with this therefore risk of haemorrhage

May be diagnosed incidentally
99
Q

What are the risks of arteriovenous malformation?

A

Risk of bleeding 2-4% per year
Intraparenchymal (most common)
Subarachnoid

100
Q

How do you treat arteriovenous malformation?

A
Surgical excision - possible if AVM within non-eloquent brain
Endovascular treatment - glue
Focused radiotherapy (takes 2 yrs to work)