Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MRCOG part 1 > Recalls 9 > Flashcards

Recalls 9 Flashcards

(79 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Most common branch missing from IIA

A

Middle rectal

I actually think it might be the obturator - originates elsewhere in 25% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is the aortic bifurcation in relation to the bony landmarks

A

Tip of iliac crests. Think epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When do the external genitalia start to differentiate

A

Week 7, this is when the Y chromosome is expressed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where do lacunae form in the placenta

A

In the syncytiotrophoblast.

The lacunae end up being the space where amteral-fetal exxchnage occurs. They will with maternal blood. The cells around the lacunae penetrate into the uterus and will make the villous trees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What gestation does the anterior pituitary develop?

A

Develops from rathke’s pouch by 5th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

OVERVIEW OF BRAIN DEVELOPMENT

A

The notocord sits under the ectoderm and releases growth factors. This causes the ectoderm to form a plate which has ectoderm on the peripheries and a neural plate in the middle.

This continues to expand and bends upwards. This creates the neural folds, the neural crest and ultimately the neural tube.

The top portion of the neural tube forms the brain
The bottom portion of the neurla tube forms the spinal cord

Brain vesicles
Prosencephalon - forebrain
Mesencephalon - midbrain
Rhombencephalon - hindbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do each of the brain vesicles give rise to

A

Prosencephalon - forebrain - telencephalon (cerebral hemispheres), diencephalon (thalamus/hypothalamus)
Mesencephalon - midbrain - midbrain
Rhombencephalon - hindbrain - metencephlon (pons/cerebellum) myelincephalon (medulla)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which enzyme catalyses the rate limiting stage of the urea cycle

Where does the urea cycle take place

What is the purpose of the urea cycle

A

Carbonyl Phosphate Synthetase

Liver

When our bodies break down amino acids they produce ammonia which is TOXIC. Therefore the liver enzymes turn this into urea and excrete it via urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does fibronectin work

A

Binds to integrin and helps cells stick together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where do prostaglandins get deactivated

A

Lungs mainly

also liver and kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the production and storage of surfactant

A

Made in type 2 pneumocytes in the lungs.

Produced by endoplasmic reticulum.
Processed by golgi
Sorted in lamellar bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which cells are responsible for wound remodelling

A

Myofibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When do HCG levels peak in pregnancy

A

10-12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When does HPL plateau during pregnancy

A

36 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When does production of HbA start????

A

Really hard to find the answer on this - final answer going for 38-40 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Increase in minute ventilation in pregnancy

A

20-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do the syphilis results mean

VDRL
TPPA
EIA

A

VDRL - antibodies.
TPPA - the bacteria. Means you have CURRENT infection
EIA - antibodies. Likely positive for life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Testo fo cure for gonnorhoea/chalydia

A

Gonorrhoea - 2 weeks

Chalydia - 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What si the structure of IgG

A

4 peptide chains. 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains

Same as IgE and IgD

IgA dimer, IgM pentamer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is HPL produced in the placenta

A

Syncytiotrophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the cause of striae gravidarum

A

Cortisol

But also oestrogen and relaxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Risk of miscarriage with amnio and cvs

A

Amnio is lower - 0.5%

CVS 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What su the cause of type 1 and type 2 error and how do you fix each

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most common side effect of oxybutinin

A

Dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
MOA of copper IUD
Kills sperm AND protects endometrium - if already fertilised
26
What is the mechanism of action of fluconazole
Inhibits conversion to ergosterol. Has to do with cell membrane
27
APGARS
Appearance (colour) -1 if blue peripheries Pulse -1 if <100 Grimace -1 if weak cry or grimace Activity (tone) -1 if some flexion Respiration -1 slow irregular breathing
28
Is rhesus dominant
yes
29
What type of cancer with DES exposure
clear cell carcinoma of vagina
30
IUD/ectopic facts What is the chance of ectopic if you get pregnant with an IUD? Chance of ectopic recurrence ? Risk of IUD expulsion?
16% Recurrence if has salpingecttomy 20% Risk of expulsion of IUD 1/20 THINK 20s!!!
31
Describe the structure of a prostaglandin
20 carbon structure Alcohol attached to carbon 15
32
Features of neonatal herpes
Doesnt cause congeital malformation which akes sense as baby is formed by the time it comes into contact with the herpes. It causes: - vesicles - Pneumonitis - Conjuctivitis (might not agve this in exma)
33
What is featured in Amsel's criteria
It is criteria for BV Dsicharge colour PH >4.5 Clue cells >20% +ve whiff test with KOH
34
35
36
What would the suggested tumour markers be for a 20 year old with a large complex ovarian cyst
Ca125 LDH - dysgermioma AFP - yolk sac/germ cell tumours BHCG - choriocarcinoa/mixed germ cell Inhibin A and B - Sex cord (granulosa cells are type of sex cord tumour)
37
Do a breakdown of the types of ovarian tumour - benign and malignant
Epithelial **Benign: ** - Serous cystadenoma - Mucinous cystadenoma - Endometrioma - Brenner tumour **Malignant** - Serous adenocarinoma (MOST COMMON) Ca 125 - Mucinous adenocarcinoma - Endometrioid - Clear cell - Transitional GERM CELL **Benign** - Mature teratoma (dermoid) **Malignant** - Dysgerminoma (LDH) - Choriocarcinoma (HCG) - Immature teratoma - Yolk sac tumour (AFP) - Mixed germ cell SEX CORD **Benign** - Fibroma (part of Meig's syndrome) - Thecoma **Malignant** - Granulosa (inhibin A or B) - Leydig cell
38
What is the origin of Ca125
Coelomic epithelian structures
39
Which is the tet likely to give a false biological positive for syphilis
VDRL
40
What is the parametriv version of: Krustall wallis MWU
Krustall wallis - ANOVA MWU - t-test
41
How does nifedipine work to lower BP
Decreasing peripheral vascular resistance
42
What type of toxins do staph and strep produce
Staph - enterotoxin Strep - exotoxin
43
What is the term to describe an antibiotic that renders bacteria inactive or stable rather than killing them
Bacteriostatic
44
What are the typical rsults on U&E for: SIADH Diabetes insipidus Dextrose excess
SIADH - low Na DI - normal or high Na Dextrose excess - low Na
45
What happens to protein C and protein S in pregnancy
Protein C stays the same Protein S can be markedly reduced. Therefore if blood tests show this it is likely jut pregnancy
46
Most common features of warfarin teratogenicity
Nasal hypoplasia Stipple vertebrae Bony epiphyses
47
Most important ligament for trans-abdominal sling for anterior prolapse repair
??ilioectinial or uterosacral
48
Contrast misoprostol vs dinoprostone
??? cervical ripening Hyperstimultion
49
What is the defective structure in thalassaemia
Globin chain
50
# 1. Amenorrhoea, scant pubic hair and bilateral inguinal hernias
Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
51
What are the types of bile acid
Cholic acid Chenodeoxycholic acid Deoxycholic acid Lithocholic acidy
52
What is normal sperm count per ml of ejaulate
15 million minimum
53
What are erythrocytes delivates of
Myeloid progenitor cells
54
How many ovarian cancers are no-epithelioid
Only 10%
55
What is the difference between Gillick competence and Fraser guidelines
Gillick competence - can a child consent to anything? Fraser guideline - specifically about supplying contraception for underage kids
56
How would an endometrioma be described on uss
Low level echos or ground glass appearance. Round. Well defined. Could potentially have some solid components but not necessarily
57
What is the treatment of gonorrhoea in and out with pregnancy What about with PID?
Not pregnant: 1g cef Pregnant: 1g cef With PID: Non-pregnant: cef, doxy, metronidazole Pregnant: cef, azithromycin, metronidazole
58
What is the treatment of Chamydia in and out with pregnancy What about with PID?
Not pregnant: 1g azithromycin, or 7/7 doxycycline Pregnant: 1g azithromycin then 500mg daily for 2/79 With PID: Non-pregnant: cef, doxy, metronidazole Pregnant: cef, azithromycin, metronidazole
59
When can the COCP be restarted following GTD
When the HCG is negative again
60
When does LMWH get stopped prior to delivery
IOL or PCB - >24h before Natural labour - stop as soon as signs of labour >12h prior to epidural >>24h if treatment dose9
61
Label everything
62
Which of the following does not contain paracrine glands: labia minora labia majora mons pubis
??? dont know as rach
63
Contrast the jejunum and ileum
Jejunum - shorter, longer and fewer arcades. Thick walled. Ileum - longers, shorter and more arcades. Thin walled
64
Where is the dentate line
Marks the division of the top 2/3 of the anal canal (end of the hindgut) and the rectum. Above - columnar epithelium Below - stratified squamous Also known as the pectinate line
65
Which muscle is the sacral plexus situated on top of? What is in front?
Piriformis In front - IIA, IIV, ureter and sigmoid colon
66
Describe the route of the ureter
Exits kidney, Passes down psoas muscle Passes anteriorly to the bifurcation of CI vessels which is at the level of the sacroiliac joint
67
What are the functions of the sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments
Preventing anterior tipping of sacrum and also preventing too much rotation at SI joint Sacrospinous ligament prevents too much rotation of the ileum past the sacrum
68
What percentage of blood does the ovary get from the uterina rteries
About 5-10%
69
Contrast inguinal and femoral hernias
Inguinal = superior and medial to PT
70
What is the rate limiting step of the urea cycle
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase reation
71
What is the structure called at the stage of splitting for twins: Di-Di Mono-Di Mono-Mono
Di-Di - <4 days - BEFORE the morula stage Mono-Di - 4-8 days before blastocyst hatching Mono-Mono - 8-12 days after blastocyst hatching Conjoined - after 12 days
72
When do the anterior and posteiror fontanelle close
Posterior - first. 2-3 months Anterior - much later - 7-18 months
73
When does the odds ratio approximate the risk ratio
If the disease is RARE
74
What type of variable does a histogram show
Continuous
75
Results for LH, FSH and SHBG in kleinfelters
All increased
76
Which hormone leads to nutrient transfer from mum to fetus
HPL
77
How long from resting folicle stage to ovulation
20 days
78
What are the layers that the sperm must penetrate when fertilising
Corona radiata Zona pellucida Perivitelline space Plasma membrane
79
Which hormone withdrawal is thought to be responsible for miscarriage
Progesterone. Think progesterone pessaries and also that progesterone inhibits contraction of the uterus

MRCOG part 1 (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions