Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

UWorld Step 2 Days > Reading Day 3/13 > Flashcards

Reading Day 3/13 Flashcards

1
Q

What is AA change in sickle cell?

A

valine for glutamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is rx of aplastic crisis from Parvo 19?

A

IVIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

name some causes of warm IgG hemolysis

A

CLL, SLE, lymphma and penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

rx of warm agglutinin hemolysis?

A

steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name some causes of cod agglutinin

A

EBV, waldenstroms, mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is most accurate test for cold agglutinin disease?

A

cold agglutinin titer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

treatment of cold agglutinin

A

warm body and rituximad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

treatment of HUS/TTP

A

plasmapheresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is atypical HUS?

A

HUS not from an infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is rx of atypical versus typical HUS?

A

atypical is acolizumab

typical is supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is difference in myelofibrosis and myelodysplasia?

A

in fibrosis bone marrow isnt making anything…in dysplasia the marrow is hypercellular but still havepancytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which of myelofibrosis/dysplasia is a leukemia precursor?

A

dysplasi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

APML is associated with what

A

DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what should be added to chemo for ALL?

A

methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which chronic leukemia most frrequently transfers into acute leukemia?

A

CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

APML is treated with what?

A

All trans retinoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CML is treated with what?

A

imatinib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is treatment of CLL?

A

stage 1-3 nothing..stage 4/5 fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, and rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

signs of hairy cell leukemia

A

pancytopenia, splenomegaly, dry marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is rx for hairy cell leukemia?

A

cladribine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is staging of non hodgkin lymphoma?

A

1-1 node group
2- 2 node groups
3- both sides of diaphragm
4- widespread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is rx of non hodgkin lymphma

A

cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin
vincristine
prednisone
rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

hodgkin has what cells?

A

reed sternberg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which of hodgkin or non hodgkin focuses around neck?

A

hodgkin is cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is rx of hodgkin lymphoma?

A

adriamycin
bleomycin
vinblastine
dacarbazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

after female gets radiation for cancer, how soon should mammo be if not 50?

A

8 years after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is MOST ACCURATE test for MM?

A

bone marrow biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

rx for MM?

A

dexamethasone and lenalidomide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

rx of HIT

A

stop heparin, start fondapurinox or dibigatran then add warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

best test for aps?

A

mixing study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is homnonymous hemianopsia?

A

loss of visual field on opposite side of stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are sx of MCA stroke?

A

contralateral weakness/sensorry loss
homonomyous hemianopsia
aphasia (on left)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

sx of ACA stroke

A

personality changes
urinary incontinence
leg weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

sx of PCA stroke

A

ipsilateral sensory loss of face and CN 9/10
contralateral sensory loss of limbs
limb ataxi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is rx of SAH?

A

nimodipine, embolization, seizure ppx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is normal ratio of RBCs to WBCs in CSF

A

1wbc for every 500-1000 rbcs

37
Q

what is preventative med for cluster headaches?

38
Q

two seizure meds for pregnant patient

A

lamotrigine an dleviteracetam

39
Q

what causes parkinsons?

A

loss of dopamine in substantia nigra

40
Q

two meds for mild parkinsons

A

trihyxylphenidyl and amantine

41
Q

list of meds for severe parkinsons

A

pramiprexole
levadopa carbidopa
tolcapone entacapone
selegilline

42
Q

what is mechanism of Selegillibne?

A

MAO inhibitor

43
Q

rx of essential tremor

44
Q

two meds for ALS

A

edravone and riluozole

45
Q

describe CMTD

A

loss of motor and sensory innervation

46
Q

sx of CMTD

A

distal weakness and sensory loss, wasting of legs, decreased reflexes, tremor

47
Q

rx of CMTD

48
Q

test for CMTD

49
Q

what is a significant complication of bells palsy?

A

corneal ulceration

50
Q

what is rx of acute myasthenic crisis

A

IVIG or plasmapharesis

51
Q

four findings in tuberous sclerosis

A

seizures
shagreen patches/ash leaf spots
retinal lesions
cardiac tumors

52
Q

what is rx of kaposi sarcoma?

A

treat the aids not the lesions

53
Q

rx of seborrheic keratosis?

A

surgery or cryo but only for cosmetic reasons

54
Q

rx of pityriasis rosea?

A

steroids and UV light

55
Q

which of bullous pemphigoid/pemphigus vulgaris incldes the mouth?

A

pemphigus vulgaris

56
Q

which of bullous pemphigoid/pemphigus vulgaris has positive nikolskysign?

57
Q

rx of bullous pemphigoid/pemphigus vulgaris?

A

steroids then cyclosporine/azathioprine

58
Q

what is increased in porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

uroporphyrins

59
Q

what is disease of porphyrai cutanea tarda like?

A

blistering skin disease when exposed to sun

60
Q

what are some risk factors for prophyria cutanea tarda?

A

alcohol, iron overload and estrogen use

61
Q

rx of SJS/TEN

A

stop drug and star IVIG

62
Q

what is main difference in staph scalded skin syndrome and toxic shock syndrome?

A

well both caused by staph… and both have desquamating rash but toxic shock will have hypotension, renal dysfxn, liver dysfxn and CNS issues

63
Q

how soon after ingestion can you do gastric lavage?

A

within 2 hours

64
Q

patient comes in with AMS after pill ingestion and unclear what was ingested, what is best first thing to give?

A

glucose and naloxone

65
Q

how many grams of tylenol is toxic?

A

8-10 grams

66
Q

what is pH in aspirin OD?

A

slightly basic with acidosis

67
Q

/rx of aspirin OD

A

alkalinize the urine with bicarb

68
Q

carbon monoxide causes what acid base issue?

A

metabolic acidosis from lactic acidosis

69
Q

what will o2 sat be in carbon mobnoxide poisoning?

70
Q

what to give in carbon monoxide posioning?

71
Q

how does blood appear in methemeglobinemis?

A

will be brown ish

72
Q

what is rx of methemaglobinemia?

A

methylene blue 100% FiO2

73
Q

what electrolyte abnormality increases risk of digoxin toxicity?

A

hypokalemia

74
Q

what is rx of digoxin toxicity?

A

potassium control and digoxin specific antibodies

75
Q

what to treat back widow bit with?

A

calcium and antivenin

76
Q

what is lab abnormality in black widow bite?

A

hypocalcemia

77
Q

what are sx of black widow bite?

A

abdominal pain and muscle pain

78
Q

what are sx of brown recluse bite?

A

skin necrosis, bullae and blebs

79
Q

rx of brown recluse bite?

A

debridement

80
Q

why do you hyperventilate a patient with big brain bleed?

A

low co2 leads to vasoconstriction in bran

81
Q

rx of malignant hyperthermia?

A

dantrolene

82
Q

most common cause of death i hypothermic patient?

83
Q

what is HAPE

A

high altitude pulmonary edema

84
Q

what are signs/sx of HAPE?

A

dyspnea cough weakness chest tightness, crackles, cyanosis, tachypnea and tachycardia

85
Q

what is rx of HAPE?

A

oxygen, descent, and dexamethasone

86
Q

what is first med to give after shocking in VF?

A

epinephrine/…then amiodarone

87
Q

define pulseless electrical activity

A

basically have normal beating heart but not putting out any blood

88
Q

rx of wolff parkinson white? 2 meds

A

amiodarone and procainamide

89
Q

if patient has random runs of v tach on holter monitor, what should be done next?

A

electrophysiology studies to determine etiology

UWorld Step 2 Days (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions