Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UWorld Step 2 Days > Day 2 > Flashcards

Day 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what eye finding is associated with MS?

A

internuclear opthalmoplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is internuclear opthalmoplgeia?

A

conugate horizontal gaze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is issue in internuclear opthalmoplegia?

A

medial longitudinal fasciculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are features of PNH?

A

dark urine, hemolysis, hepatic vein thrombosis, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is rx of PNH?

A

eculizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pregnant patient has significant hemorrhage, what position should they be in?

A

left lateral decubitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are drug options for mild to moderate dementia?

A

rivastigmine, donepezil and galantamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is drug option for severe dementia?

A

memantine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

women with migraines with aura should stop what medication? why?

A

OCP, at increased risk of stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is cause of infertility in klinefelter?

A

semineferous tubule dysgenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is karyotype of klinefelter?

A

47XXy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are findings in klinefelter?

A

tall stature, small balls, infertility, gynecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is fetal hydantoin syndrome?

A

in utero exposure to phenytoin, valproate or carbamazapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are findings of fetal hydantoin syndrome?

A

cleft lip/palate, wide anterior fontanelle, cardiac isses, distal phalange hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are classic findings of interstitial nephritis?

A

rash, fever, eosinophilia, WBCs in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

vertigo can be presenting symptom of what type of stroke?

A

posterior circulation (vertebral artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hyper IgE syndrome is associated with what blood finding?

A

eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hyper IgE leads to what type of infections?

A

lots of eczema and reccurent abscesses and sinopulmonary infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is unique about development in hyper IgE syndrome?

A

retained primary teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is treatment of hyper IgE syndrome?

A

supportive skin care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are some topical treatment options for acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

timolol, pilocarpine and apraclonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are risk factors for vaginal hematoma?

A

forceps delivery, big baby, prolonged 2nd stage of labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is clinical sign of vaginal hematoma?

A

patient getting shocky and has a vaginal mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is treatment of vaginal hematoma?

A

if not expanding, observe. if expanding surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is formula for Number needed to harm?

A

1/absolute risk increase….to calculate absolute risk increase it is rate of AE with intervention minus rate of AE without intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

two options for endometrial hyperplasia management?

A

give progestins or hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are lab findings in MM?

A

normocytic anemia,
renal insufficiency,
hypercalcemia
M spike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is radiology finding in MM?

A

osteolytic lesions of bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are some common signs/sx of MM?

A

bone pain, constipation, weight loss, fatigue and recurrent infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what Ig is elevated in MM?

A

IgG or IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

IgM spike is daignostic of what?

A

waldentstroms macroglobulinemai

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what age should baby begin to respond to name?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are emergency contraception options?

A

single pill of ulirpristal, oral levanorgestrol, IUDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

in secondary adrenal insufficiency, what are levels of ACTH, cortisol and aldosterone?

A

ACTH and cortisol low, aldosterone normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

in primary adrenal insufficiency, what are levels of ACTH, cortisol and aldosterone?

A

cortisol and aldosterone are low and ACTH is high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which of primary or secondary adrenal insufficiency has skin changes?

A

primary gets skin hyperpigmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are three main findings in cauda equina syndrome?

A

saddle anesthesia, severe unilateral radicular pain, bowel/bladder issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is rx of cauda equina syndrome?

A

surgical decompression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what heme findings can occur in HELLP syndrome?

A

MAHA and thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what can happen to lungs in HELLP/preeclampsia?

A

pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what med should sickle cell pregnant patients be taking?

A

aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are obstetric complications that patients with sickle cell are at increased risk for?

A

abruption, preeclampsia, spontaneous abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what acid base disturbance is normal in pregnancy?

A

respiratory alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what happens to HR and CO in pregnancy?

A

both go up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

when do patients get peripatum cardiomyopathy?

A

within a month of delivery or 5 months after

46
Q

what are common symptoms of opioid/heroin withdrawal?

A

abdominal pain, N/V/D, muscle aches

47
Q

what are PE signs of heroin withdrawal?

A

dilated pupils, yawning, hyperactive bowel sounds

48
Q

how does nasal mucosa appear in allergic rhinitis?

A

pale edematous

49
Q

what are characteristic features of trisomy eighteen?

A

micrognathia, low set ears, clenched hands and overlapping fingers, heart defects, rocker bottom feet

50
Q

what is most common heart defect in trisomy 18?

A

VSD

51
Q

what is CXR finding in neonat respiratory distress syndrome?

A

diffuse reticulogranular pattern with air bronchograms

52
Q

symmetric fetal growth restriction likely onset when? what are most likely causes?

A

first trimester…cause likely genetics of infection

53
Q

asymmetric fetal growth restriction likley onset when? what are causes?

A

2/3rd trimester…uteroplacental insufficiency and maternal malnutrition

54
Q

what are two meds used to treat organophosphate poisoning?

A

atropine first then pralidoxime

55
Q

what are muscarinic toxicities noted in organophosphate poisoning?

A 
Diarrhea
Urination
Mmiosis
Bronchospasms 
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation
56
Q

what are some things that put pregnant patient at high risk of preeclampsia?

A

multiple gestations, DM, prior preeclampsia, chronic HTN

57
Q

patients at high risk of preeclampsia should be on what?

A

low dose aspirin

58
Q

what is treatment of submucosal fibroids in patient who wants future kids?

A

hysteroscopic myomectomy

59
Q

what is triad of wernickes?

A

ataxia, encephalopathy and occulomotor dysfunction

60
Q

whatis korsakoff syndrome?

A

retrograde and antegrade amnesia in alcoholic

61
Q

what is rx of wernickes?

A

thiamine

62
Q

three indications for statin as primary prevention?

A

LDL over 190
DM and 40+ years old
ASCVD greater than 7.5

63
Q

what are the two phases of the first phase of labor?

A

latent and active

64
Q

what is latent phase of first stage of labor?

A

0-6cm dilation…no specific rate

65
Q

what is active phase of first stage of labor?

A

6-10 cm dilation, must be more than 1cm/2hours

66
Q

when is active phase of first stage of labor considered arrested?

A

no cervical change for 4 hours with adequate contractions or 6 hours with inadequate contractions

67
Q

watery diarrhea and maculopapular rash in post transplant patient should make you think about what?

A

GVHD

68
Q

what cells mediate GVHD?

A

CD8

69
Q

what is mainstay of rx for GVHD?

A

steroids

70
Q

giant cell bone tumor occurs where? what appearance?

A

epiphysis…soap bubble

71
Q

MC pediatric primary brain tumor?

A

astrocytoma

72
Q

medulloblastoma is common in kids or adults? where does it occur? what symptom is common?

A

kids…cerebellum…ataxia

73
Q

what is cause of lactation failure jaundice?

A

baby dehydrated, leads to decrease in elimination of bilirubin through pee

74
Q

when does lactation failur jaundice onset?

A

within 1 week of life

75
Q

what causes breastmilk juandice?

A

bilirubin gets deconjugated by glucorinidase in breast milk

76
Q

when does breast milk jaundice onset?

A

1 week and beyond

77
Q

what is rx of lactation failure jaundice?

A

if milk is in increase feeding and follow up closely, if milk not in formula

78
Q

two long QT syndromes, which has sensorineural hearing loss

A

romano ward and Jervell lange nielsen (SNHL)

79
Q

what med should patient with long QT syndrome be taking?

A

propanolol

80
Q

what is protein, glucose and WBC count for viral CSF?

A

normal glucose, mild protein elevation, mild leukocytosis

81
Q

what abx can cause hyperkalemia?

A

bactrim

82
Q

what is mnemonic for manic episode

A 
Distractability 
Impulsivity
Grandiosity
Flight of idease
Activity increase
Sleep decrease
Talkative
83
Q

what is rx of lithium toxicity?

A

dialysis

84
Q

what is cutoff for amniotic fluid index for polyhydramnios?

A

greater than 8cm

85
Q

when does hcg peak?

A

end of first trimester

86
Q

what is hcg level in hydatiform mole?

A

100k or more

87
Q

what is a missed abortion?

A

no bleeding, closed cervix, no cardiac activity or empty sac

88
Q

what is a threatened abortion?

A

vaginal bleeding with closed cervix and still has cardiac activity

89
Q

what is an incomplete abortion?

A

vaginal bleeding, dilated cervix, some products remain

90
Q

what is an inevitable abortion?

A

vaginal bleeding, dilated cervix and products of conception seen at or above level of cervix

91
Q

what are two main meds given in COPD exacerbation?

A

inhaled bronchodilators and systemic roids

92
Q

weber test (one you put on top of head) lateralizes to unaffected or affected in sensorineural?

A

unaffected

93
Q

weber test (one you put on top of head) lateralizes to unaffected or affected in condctive?

A

affected

94
Q

1st line rx for primary dysmenorrhea?

A

NSAIDs

95
Q

what are findings in GPA?

A

sinusitis, pulmonary nodules, glomerulonephritis,

96
Q

which Ab in GPA?

A

c-anca

97
Q

what is rx of GPA?

A

steroids and methotrexate or cyclophosphamide

98
Q

what are symptoms of central retinal artery occlusion?

A

severe vision loss with temporal sparing

99
Q

what is PE finding in central retinal artery occlusion?

A

pale fundus with cherry red spot

100
Q

what is symptom of central retinal vein occlusion?

A

blurred vision to severe vision loss

101
Q

what is PE finding of central retinal vein occlusion?

A

fundus with retinal hemorrhage and optic disc edema

102
Q

what is rx of central retinal vein occlusion?

A

observation

103
Q

what are symptoms of retinal detachment?

A

floaters, flashing lights and progressive visual field defect

104
Q

what are PE findings of retinal detachment ?

A

fundus with vitreous hemorrhage and marked elevation of retina

105
Q

what is rx of retinal detachment?

A

surgery

106
Q

what are sx of vitreous hemorrhafe?

A

floaters and hazy vision

107
Q

what are PE findings of vitreous hemorrhage?

A

decreased red reflex, RBCs/floating debris in vetrous, obscured view of fundus

108
Q

what is rx for vitreous hemorrhage?

A

bed rest and head of bed elevation

109
Q

is FRC increased or decreased in COPD?

A

increased

110
Q

is vital capacity increased or decreased in COPD?

A

decreased

111
Q

what is management of laryngomalacia?

A

should resolve on own

112
Q

is LA enlarged in athlete heart or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

enlarged in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy not in athletes heart

UWorld Step 2 Days (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions