Day 12 Flashcards

1
Q

what is first line med for angina episodes? How does it work?

A

beta blockers..decrease contractility

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2
Q

what are two inhaled substances that can be in a fire?

A

cyanide and carbon monoxide

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3
Q

what are signs of cyanide poisoning?

A

headache, vertigo, dizziness, tachycardia, hyperventilation, N/V

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4
Q

what is preferred treatment of cyanide poisoning?

A

hydroxycobalamin

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5
Q

define CHARGE syndrome

A
Coloboma
Heart defects
Atresia choana
Retardation
Genitourinary
Ear abnormalities
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6
Q

how does cryptococcal meningitis presemt?

A

progressive headache, N/V fever and malaise….over two week period usually

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7
Q

what is Cd4 count to put at risk of cryptococcal meningitis?

A

100 or less

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8
Q

what is imaging finding in JC virus PML?

A

patchy areas of white matter consistent with demyelination

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9
Q

what is imaging finding of toxoplasmosis in HIV patient/

A

ring enhancing lesion

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10
Q

when do you start aspirin for preeclampsia prevention?

A

12 weeks gestation

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11
Q

what is MOA of tardive dyskinesia?

A

dopamine receptor supersensitivity

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12
Q

whatshould be used to treat CKD induced 2ndary hyper PTH?

A

phosphate restriction and phosphate binders

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13
Q

what is CAVSD? who gets it?

A

complete atrial ventricular septal defect…kids with T21

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14
Q

what are murmurs of CAVSD?

A

fixed split S2 and systolic ejection murmur

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15
Q

generalizability is the same as what?

A

external validity

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16
Q

what are some risk factors for vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A

DM
abx use
OCPs
immunosuppression

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17
Q

lab findings in babies from moms with DM

A

hypoglycemia
hypocalcemia
hypomagnesemia
hyperbilirubinemia

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18
Q

signs of hypocalcemia in newborn?

A

will be really jittery

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19
Q

what happens to heart rate before vasovagal syncope usually? why?

A

bradycardia…parasympathetic overload usually

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20
Q

which of central or nephrogenic DI usually has abnormal Na levels? what is it?

A

central will have hypernatremia

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21
Q

two MSK findings in cushing syndrome?

A

bone loss and myopathy

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22
Q

perianal pruritis at night should make you think of what?

A

enterobius (pinworm) infection

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23
Q

what is rx ofenterobius (pinworm) infection?

A

pyrantel pamoate or albendazole

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24
Q

what will urine sodium be in chronic vomiting?

A

will be low

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25
Q

what is the main difference between preseptal cellulitis and orbital sellulitis?

A

will have eye pain, proptosis and opthalmoplegia with orbital cellulitis

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26
Q

what is a bug that causes sepsis and skin ulcers?

A

pseudomonas

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27
Q

what is brain finding with status epilepticus?

A

cortical necrosis

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28
Q

what is management of ABO incompatability transfusion reaction?

A

stop it…support and fluids

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29
Q

what is rx of localized non bullous iimpetigo?

A

topical mupirocin or other topical Abx

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30
Q

what is rx of diffuse non bullous impetigo?

A

oral cephalexin or dicloxacillin

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31
Q

papules and pustules that develop goldne crusting is what?

A

impetigo

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32
Q

patients without high risk of STI get screening when in pregncny?

A

just 1st trimester

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33
Q

patients with high risk of STIs get screening when in pregnancy?

A

1st and 3rd trimester

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34
Q

what are symptoms of sertoli leydig tumor in female?

A

oligomenorrhea, rapid onset virilization, clitoromegaly, muscle mass increase

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35
Q

what are levels of testosterone and DHEA in sertoli leydig tumor?

A

testosterone high and DHEA low

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36
Q

explain what causes aromatase deficiency issues

A

aromatase is not converting DHEA into estradiol so get virilization…

37
Q

what are testosterone and DHEA levels in aromatase deficiency?

A

testosterone nromal DHEA is high

38
Q

liver mass with central scar

A

focal nodular hyperplasia

39
Q

can patietns with focal nodular hyperplasia keep using OCP?

A

yes

40
Q

can patient with hepatic adenoma keep using OCP?

A

NO

41
Q

what happens to joint space in OA versus avascular necrosis?

A

is preseverd in avascular necrosis but lost in OA

42
Q

will patient with GBS have reflexes?

A

no they will be lost

43
Q

what is rx of GBS?

A

IVIG or plasmapheresis

44
Q

normal heoglobin A is made of what?

A

alpha and beta

45
Q

fetal hemoglobin is made of what

A

alpha and gamma

46
Q

hgb A2 is made of what?

A

alpha and delta

47
Q

what hemoglobin globulin is issue in sickle cell

A

beta

48
Q

what is shape of cystine kidney stones?

A

hexagonal

49
Q

what happens to calcium, magnesium and potassium levels with HCTZ?

A

ALLL LOW

50
Q

femoral neck fracture leads to what position change in leg?

A

shortened and externally rotated

51
Q

ages for meningococcal vaccine?

A

11 and 16

52
Q

name the live vaccines

A

intranasal flu
MMRV
yellow fever

53
Q

what is rx for methanol/ethanol poisoning?

A

fomepizole

54
Q

what are two treatment options first line for alcohol cravings?

A

naloxone, and acamprosate

55
Q

when should you choose acamprosate for alcohol cravings over naloxone?

A

if patient has liver disease or using other opioids

56
Q

two bugs that if found infected with, patient should get colonoscopy

A

strep bovis and clostridium septicum

57
Q

three abx options in pregnancy UTI

A

macrobid, augmentin and cephalexin

58
Q

in young girl, if she has vaginal foreign body what should be done to remove it?

A

irrigate with warm water and local anesthetic

59
Q

what are some risk factors for restless leg syndrome?

A

diabetes, iron deficiency, pregnancy

60
Q

what is rx of RLS?

A

gabapentin

61
Q

what is moA of gabapentin?

A

alph 2 delta calcium channel

62
Q

3 meds that can induce methemoglobinemia

A

dapsone
benzocaine
nitrates

63
Q

what are findings in chronic supporotiva otitis media

A

chronic purulent otorrhea

hearing loss

64
Q

what bugs cause chronic supooritivea otitis media?

A

staph and pseudo

65
Q

what is difference between aplastic crisis and aplastic anemia?

A

anemia is pancytopenia, crisis is just bad anemia

66
Q

in acute panic attack, what should be given?

A

benzo

67
Q

does zika virus cause macrocephaly or microcephaly?

A

microcephaly

68
Q

what are findings of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

chorioretinitis
diffuse intracranial calcifications
seizures
micro or macrocephaly

69
Q

how is toxoplasmosis transmitted to mom?

A

undercooked meat or cat shit

70
Q

treatment of nummular eczema?

A

steroids topically

71
Q

who gets nummular eczema?

A

middle aged men

72
Q

what causes lichen simplex chronicus?

A

recurrent itching of same skin

73
Q

what is chronic pelvic pain syndrome?

A

pain in pelvis or genitalia, pain with ejaculation, irritative voiding sx

74
Q

how does prostate feel in chronic pelvic pain syndrome?

A

normal

75
Q

parkinsons from antipsychotic use is treated how?

A

if psychotic working then continue and add benztropine

76
Q

treatment of TCA overdose?

A

sodium bicarb for cardiac issues
charcoal if within 2 hours of ingestion
fluids and oxygen

77
Q

what are some causes of minimal variability in fetal HR tracing?

A

opioids, fetal sleep, hypoxia

78
Q

define minimal variability of fetal HR

A

<5bpm variation

79
Q

describe body dysmorphic disorder

A

patient very focused on specific flaws in appearance and leads to compulsions and actions to “fix” these

80
Q

what is rx of body dysmorphic disorder?

A

SSRIs

81
Q

what is somatic symptom disorder?

A

preoccupation with physical sx like abdominal pain or

82
Q

what are clinical features of PKU?

A

severe ID
seizures
musty body odor
blue eyes and fair skin

83
Q

what is rx of PKU?

A

restrict dietary phenylalanine

84
Q

how to diagnose PKU?

A

amino acid quantification

85
Q

nocardia rx is what?

A

bactrim

86
Q

actinomyces rx is what?

A

penicillin

87
Q

which toxic alcohol causes calcium oxalate stones?

A

ethylene glycol

88
Q

what two bugs are most common in acute cervical lymphadenitis in a kid?

A

strep pyo and staph aureus

89
Q

what abx fo acute cervical lymphadenitis in a kid?

A

augmentin or clindamycin