RAD 1 Study Flashcards

1
Q

Left Lateral Chest: The MSP is ______ with the IR and the CR is _______ to the mid-coronal at the level of T7

A
  1. Parallel
  2. Perpendicular
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2
Q

PA & Left Lateral Chest: The SID is ______

A

72 inch

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3
Q

Left Lateral Chest: The IR is _____ inches _____ shoulders

A
  1. 1 1/2
  2. Above
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4
Q

PA Chest: The CR is ______ to the MSP and at the level of _____

A
  1. Perpendicular
  2. T7
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5
Q

PA Chest: The IR is _____ above relaxed shoulders

A

1 1/2-2 inches

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6
Q

The ________ of scapula is at T7

A

inferior angle

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7
Q

Recommended SID for chest is at least _____ to minimize ______ of the heart and _____ recorded detail

A
  1. 72 inches
  2. Magnification
  3. Increase
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8
Q

Exposures are made after the ______

A

2nd deep inspiration

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9
Q

Two seperate radiographs are taken on one _______ and ______

A
  1. Inspiration
  2. Expiration
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10
Q

Chest: Important to get two veiws _____ apart

A

90 degrees

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11
Q

The mediastinum is the area of the _____ bounded by the sternum _____, spine ____, and lungs _____

A
  1. Thorax
  2. Anteriorly
  3. Posteriorly
  4. Laterally
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12
Q

Lungs are enclosed in ____

A

Pleura

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13
Q

Pleura is ______

A

a double walled serous membrane

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14
Q

Inner layer of pleura is called

A

Visceral pleura

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15
Q

Outer layer of pleura is called

A

Parietal pleura

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16
Q

The right lung has ____ lobes

A

3

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17
Q

The left lung has ____ lobes

A

2

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18
Q

The medial border of the lungs are

A

Hilum

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19
Q

The right lung is ____ shorter than the left

A

1 inch

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20
Q

The lungs move _____ during inspiration and _____ during expiration

A
  1. Inferiorly
  2. Superiorly
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21
Q

The right primary bronchus is _____,______, and more ______ than the left

A
  1. shorter
  2. wider
  3. vertical
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22
Q

What makes it easier for foreign bodies to enter the right bronchus?

A

Position and size

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23
Q

Terminal bronchioles communicate with the _____

A

alveolar ducts

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24
Q

How many cartilage rings does the trachea have?

A

16-20

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25
Q

The trachea lies in ____ and is _____ to the esophagus

A
  1. Midline
  2. Anterior
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26
Q

Whats the purpose of the respiratory system?

A

The exchange of gaseous substances between the air and the blood

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27
Q

What seperates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?

A

Diaphragm

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28
Q

The ____ is where the heart is

A

pericardial

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29
Q

The space between the two pleural cavities is called the ______

A

mediastinum

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30
Q

What does body habitus determine?

A

The shape, position, and movement of internal organs

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31
Q

Whats intermediate between sthenic and asthenic?

A

Hyposthenic

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32
Q
  • manmade form of electromagnetic energy
  • travel in bundles of energy known as photons
  • known as ionizing radiation
A

X-Rays

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33
Q

What are some properties of x-rays?

A
  • Electromagnetic radiation that moves at the speed of light
  • Travels in straight lines
  • Diverges from its source
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34
Q

As the beam diverges it becomes less ____

A

Intense

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35
Q

What is the SID?

A

Source to image distance

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36
Q

What is the SOD?

A

Source to object distance

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37
Q

What is the OID?

A

Object to image distance

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38
Q

What do x-rays do as they exit the tube?

A

Diverge and spread

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39
Q

What is beam intensity?

A

The total amount of energy through a unit area in a given time

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40
Q

As the distance from the source _____ the intensity ____

A
  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
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41
Q

Distance and intensity have a _____ relationship

A

inverse

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42
Q

Define ethics

A

The systematic study of rightness and wrongness of human conduct and character as known by natural reason

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43
Q

Ethics is the system of a code of ________ advocated by a particular individual or group

A

conduct and morals

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44
Q

Ethics are not determined by _______

A

strict rules or rigid guidelines

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45
Q

Ethics is based on _____

A

individual conceptions of right and wrong

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46
Q

what are professional ethics?

A

The standard of conduct expected from members of a profession

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47
Q

What are medical ethics?

A

A set of principles that guides practitioners in making informed choices about the delivery of healthcare

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48
Q

What is the code of ethics?

A

An articulated statement of role morality as seen by the members of a profession

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49
Q

Informed consent requires the physician to explain in _______

A

Understandable language

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50
Q

What is essential for a patient to give informed consent?

A

Adequate information

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51
Q

In greek autos means ____ and nomos means _____

A
  1. Self
  2. Governance or control
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52
Q

What is Autonomy?

A

A persons self reliance, independence, liberty rights, privacy, individual choice, freedom of will and the contained ability to decide

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53
Q

What is Respondeat Superior?

A

The employer is responsible for the actions of the employee

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54
Q

What is Res Ipsa Loquitur?

A

The things speaks for itself

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55
Q

What is negligence?

A

An unintentional tort involving duty, breach of duty, injury and causation

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56
Q

What is confidentiality?

A

The duty of health care providers to protect the privacy of patient information

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57
Q

What is HIPAA?

A

The protection of confidentiality of individual identifiably health information

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58
Q

What does HIPAA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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59
Q

What is a breach of confidentiality?

A

Not maintaining the obligation to keep medical and personal information about patients in confidence

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60
Q

What is a tort?

A

A private or civil wrong which the court provides a remedy in the form of an action for damages

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61
Q

What is the difference between assault and battery?

A

Assault is a threat without physically touching someone while battery is touching without consent

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62
Q

What is false imprisonment?

A

Unlawful confinement

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63
Q

What is defamation?

A

The making of a false statement thats harmful to anothers reputation

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64
Q

Whats the difference between slander and libel?

A

Slander is oral and Libel is written

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65
Q

Whats confidentiality?

A

Maintaining privacy

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66
Q

What is veracity?

A

Truthfulness

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67
Q

Whats Beneficence?

A

Process of helping someone

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68
Q

Whats Nonmaleficence?

A

The passive process of not harming a person while providing aid

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69
Q

Whats Nonconseuqntialism?

A

The determination of right or wrong acts according to the morality of the act and not the consequence

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70
Q

Whats morals?

A

Generally accepted customs, principles, or habits of right living & conduct in a society

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71
Q

Whats values?

A

Ideals and customs of a society toward which the members of a group have an affective regard

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72
Q

What does the ARRT stand for?

A

The American Registry of Radiologic Technologist

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73
Q

What is the ARRT Code of Ethics?

A

Consideration of various aspects of the imaging professionals role in health care

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74
Q

When was HIPAA enacted?

A

1996

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75
Q

HIPAA provides the ability to ______ american workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs

A

transfer and continue health insurance coverage

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76
Q

When considering HIPAA mandates:
- This law mandates standards for healthcare information on _______,______, ______
- Requires the ______ and ____ handling of protected health information

A
  1. Electronic billing
  2. Electronic medical records
  3. other processes
  4. protection
  5. confidential
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77
Q

What was life like before HIPAA?

  • Lacked _____
  • ______ from state to state
  • _______ within health care organizations
A
  1. Uniformity
  2. Varied
  3. Inconcsistencies
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78
Q

What does PHI stand for?

A

Protected health information

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79
Q

Whats the “minimum necessary rule”?

A

A need to know basis

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80
Q

What are the consequences for breaking the “minimum necessary rule”?

A
  • Termination
  • Severe government penalties
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81
Q

The history of medicine dates back ______ in ______

A
  • 5000 years ago
  • Egypt and Mesopotamia
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82
Q

Medicine was practiced in combination with ______

A

Religious beliefs

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83
Q

What potent drugs that was used in ancient egypt are still used today?

A

Castor oil and opium

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84
Q

Where were the prehistoric skulls found?

A

Europe and south america

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85
Q

Who was the father of western medicine?

A

Hippocrates

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86
Q

Whats the hippocratic oath?

A

A high standard of ethical conduct

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87
Q

What did hippocrates emphasize?

A

The importance of observing the patient

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88
Q

What was medicine largely controlled by?

A

Religion

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89
Q

What did the Romans construct?

A

Aqueducts, baths, sewers, and hospitals

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90
Q

In the early _____ physicians required _____ in england

A
  1. 1500’s
  2. Licensures
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91
Q

Who described bacteria in the 17th century?

A

Anton Van Leeuwenhoek (Dutch zoologist)

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92
Q

Who was the first to demonstrate the function of the heart and circulation of blood?

A

William Harvey (English physicist)

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93
Q

Who laid the foundation of modern medicine?

A

William Harvey (English physicist)

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94
Q

When did surgery become an experimental science?

A

18th century

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95
Q

In the 18th century Mental health ____ and the _____ were introduced

A
  • reforms
  • Heart drug “digitalis”
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96
Q

Who introduced the smallpox vaccine and led to the field of immunology in 1796?

A

Edward Jenner (English physician)

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97
Q

In the 19th century who discovered pasteurization and that germs cause disease?

A

Louis Pasteur (french chemist)

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98
Q

Who developed the foundation for modern nursing in the 19th century?

A

Florence Nightingale (English Nurse)

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99
Q

Who discovered x-rays?

A

Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen (German physicist)

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100
Q

When were x-rays discovered?

A

November 8, 1895

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101
Q

In ____ insulin was developed by two ____

A
  • 1921
  • Canadian doctors
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102
Q

In 1928 who discovered penicillin?

A

Alexander Fleming (Scottish bacteriologist)

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103
Q

in 1953 who discovered DNA?

A

Francis Crick & James Watson?

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104
Q

the first successful kidney transplant happened in ___

A

1954

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105
Q

In 1955 who discovered the vaccine for polio?

A

Jonas Salk

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106
Q

In 1967 who completed the first open heart transplant surgery?

A

Christiaan Barnard

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107
Q

In 1982 ______ implanted the first artificial heart into retired dentist, _______

A
  1. William DeVries
  2. Barney Clark
108
Q

Roentgen experimented with ______rays with a _____ glass tube

A
  1. Cathode (electrons)
  2. Crookes
109
Q

Who was the first radiographer?

A

Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen

110
Q

Did Roentgen patent his work?

A

No

111
Q

When did Roentgen submit his report “A New Kind of Rays”?

A

December 28, 1895

112
Q

What was the first x-ray?

A

Roentgens wifes hand

113
Q

Who were the pioneers of radiology?

A
  • Benjamin Franklin
    -Thomas Edison
  • Marie & Piere Curie
114
Q

Which radiological pioneer conducted electrical experiments?

A

Benjamin Franklin

115
Q

Which radiological pioneer focused on fluoroscopy?

A

Thomas Edison

116
Q

Who was the first to die from radiation-induced cancer?

A

Clarence Dally

117
Q

Which radiological pioneer worked with radium?

A

Marie and Piere Curie

118
Q

What does the ASRT stand for?

A

American Society of Radiologic Technology

119
Q

What does the RSNA stand for?

A

The Radiological Society of North America

120
Q

What does the FSRT stand for?

A

Florida Society of Radiologic Technologist

121
Q

What does JCAHO stand for?

A

Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations

122
Q

What does the DNV stand for?

A

Det Norske Verits

123
Q

What does JRCERT stand for?

A

The Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology

124
Q

What organization accredits radiography programs?

A

JRCERT

125
Q

what organization inspects and accredits hospitals?

A

JCAHO

126
Q

What does the ARRT do?

A

Certifies eligible candidates

127
Q

When does the ARRT exam occur?

A

Every 10 years

128
Q

What administers radiation for therapeutic purposes?

A

Radiation therapy

129
Q

What uses x-rays and high speed computers to visualize multiple body planes?

A

CT

130
Q

What is the examination using x-rays to image breast tissue?

A

Mammography

131
Q

what uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to generate sectional images?

A

MRI

132
Q

What uses fluoroscopic images to examine blood vessels using contrast media?

A

Angiography

133
Q

What uses radioactive materials for diagnostic & therapeutic purposes?

A

Nuclear Medicine

134
Q

what visualizes internal organs in motion?

A

Fluroscopy

135
Q

What is energy that is transmitted by waves through space or through a medium called?

A

Radiation

136
Q

What is higher energy possess the ability to ionize atoms in matter called?

A

Ionization

137
Q

In ionization neutral atoms ____ or ____ an atom

A
  1. gains
  2. loses
138
Q

What are photographic qualities?

A
  1. Receptor exposure (density)
  2. Contrast
139
Q

What are geometric qualities?

A
  1. Spatial resolution
  2. Distortion
140
Q

Whats affects visibility of image?

A

Photographic qualities

141
Q

what affects sharpness and accuracy of image?

A

Geometric qualities

142
Q

What affects the quantity?

A

mAs

143
Q

What affects the quality?

A

kVp

144
Q

What are facts that influence receptor exposure?

A
  • mAs
  • Patient factors
  • kVp
  • Distance
  • Beam modification
  • Grids
145
Q

Whats the controlling factor of receptor exposure?

A

mAs

146
Q

What is the overall blackness of the radiograph called?

A

Density

147
Q

what are receptor exposure patient factors?

A
  • Patient thickness
  • Atomic # of materials
  • Pathology
148
Q

What determines the highest energy level within the beam?

A

kVp

149
Q

As kVp _____ receptor exposure ______ but not in direct ____

A
  1. Increases
  2. Increases
  3. Proportion
150
Q

Increasing the kVp by 15% ____ receptor exposure

A

doubles

151
Q

If you _____ mAs you ____ receptor exposure

A
  1. Double
  2. Double
152
Q

What is beam modification?

A

Anything that changes the nature of the beam before reaching the patient

153
Q

What does filtration use?

A

Attenuating material (usually aluminum)

154
Q

What does filtration do?

A

Removes low energy, non-diagnostic photons

155
Q

What does collimating do?

A

It confines the x-ray beam to area of interest

156
Q

What are grids?

A

A device used to remove or absorb scatter

157
Q

What do grids consist of?

A

Many lead strips separated by radiolucent material

158
Q

where are grids placed?

A

Between patient and image receptor

159
Q

The ____ the ratio, the ____ the receptor exposure

A
  1. Higher
  2. lower
160
Q

What is the ratio between lead strips and the distance between them?

A

5:1 to 16:1

161
Q

What are factors that influence contrast?

A
  • kVp
  • Patient thickness
  • Contrast media
  • mAs
  • X-ray beam modification
  • Grids
162
Q

What is the gray scale?

A

Visible differences in density

163
Q

____ kVp = _____ contrast

A
  1. Low
  2. High
164
Q

High contrast is better for ____

A

looking at bones

165
Q

Low contrast is better for ____

A

Looking at organs

166
Q

Whats the controlling factor of contrast?

A

kVp

167
Q

____ in kVp = ____ in penetrability

A
  1. Increase
  2. Increase
168
Q

kVp is _____ proportional to contrast

A

Inversely

169
Q

The ____ the tissue density and thickness, the _____ scatter is produced

A
  1. Greater
  2. More
170
Q

Barium, Iodine, and air are examples of ____

A

Contrast media

171
Q

Beam modification devices are primarily used to reduce _____

A

Scatter

172
Q

Scatter causes ____ resulting in loss of gray tones

A

Fog

173
Q

Using beam modification = ____

A

Higher contrast

174
Q

____ scatter = ______ contrast

A
  1. Decrease
  2. Increase
175
Q

whats the definition of spatial resolution?

A

Sharpness with which and objects borders and structural details are represented on a images

176
Q

Spatial resolution is also known as_____

A

Sharpness of detail/definition

177
Q

What is spatial resolution affected by?

A
  • Motion
  • Object unsharpness
  • Focal spot size
  • SID
  • OID
178
Q

whats the most common cause of radiographic unsharpness?

A

Motion

179
Q

How to decrease radiographic unsharpness?

A

Minimize by sharp exposure time

180
Q

Motion unsharpness is when you’re trying to represent a _____ image as a ______ image

A
  1. 3-D
  2. 2-D
181
Q

How can motion unsharpness be lessened?

A
  • Small focal spot size
  • Greater SID
  • Smaller OID
182
Q

____ focal spot = ____ spatial resolution

A
  1. Small
  2. Better
183
Q

Whats the definition of an Umbra?

A

True edge of an images object

184
Q

Definition of Penumbra

A

Fuzzy edge of an images object

185
Q

______ the SID the ______ the image = _____ spatial resolution

A
  1. Greater
  2. Sharper
  3. Better
186
Q

____ OID = _____ Spatial resolution

A
  1. Smaller
  2. Better
187
Q

When an object moves ____ to the IR, penumbra _____ and sharpness _____

A
  1. Closer
  2. Decreases
  3. Increases
188
Q

Whats distortion?

A

Misrepresentation of the true size or shape of an object

189
Q

What are the two sizes of distortion?

A
  • Size distortion
  • Shape Distortion
190
Q

what is size distortion affected by?

A

SID and OID

191
Q

Size distortion = ______

A

Magnification

192
Q

Size distortion: Best image = _____ SID & _____ OID

A
  1. Large
  2. Small
193
Q

What is shape distortion controlled by?

A
  • Beam
  • Anatomical part
  • IR
194
Q

Radiation is _____ & ______ energy

A
  1. Light
  2. Pure
195
Q

What kind of properties does radiation have?

A

wave and photon like

196
Q

Radiation travels at the _____

A

Speed of light

197
Q

Radiation has an _____ & ____ field

A
  1. Electric
  2. magnetic
198
Q

What is ionizing radiation?

A

high energy radiation with the ability to create ions

199
Q

Whats Non-ionizing radiation?

A

Low energy radiation only capable of transferring heat

200
Q

radiation can cause the ____ of electrons from atoms

A

Ejection

201
Q

Loss of electrons results in ____

A

Ionization

202
Q

Ionization can have _____ effects

A

Biologic

203
Q

Whats cosmic radiation?

A

The sun and other planetary bodies

204
Q

Whats terrestrial radiation?

A

Uranium & Radium

205
Q

What does radon account for?

A

~74% of natural exposure and 37% of annual background exposure

206
Q

What are radioisotopes and radionuclides?

A

Stuff like bananas, chocolate, and other naturally existing nucleotides in the human body

207
Q

What are some human made sources of radiation?

A
  • Medical
  • Nuclear Industry
  • Radioisotopes & Radionuclides
208
Q

What is the largest source of ionizing radiation?

A

Medical

209
Q

Conditions necessary for x-ray production:
1. ____ of electrons
2. Means for setting them in _____ motion
3. Mechanism for ______ them abruptly

A
  1. Source
  2. High speed
  3. Decelerating
210
Q

X-ray tube is a ____ tube

A

Diode

211
Q

The glass envelope is the x-ray tube maintains a ____

A

vacuum

212
Q

The x-ray beam is_____

A

heterogeneous

213
Q

The energy of beam is expressed in ____

A

keV

214
Q

Definition of primary beam

A

The x-ray beam leaving the tube toward the patient

215
Q

Whats the difference between transmission and attenuation?

A

Transmission: When the beam passes through with no energy loss

Attenuation: total absorption or scattering interactions with modified or unmodified energy

216
Q

What is the main component of scattering?

A

Compton Scattering

217
Q

what interactions are apart of keV?

A
  • Classic coherent scattering
  • Photoelectric interaction
  • Compton scattering
218
Q

What interaction are apart of meV?

A
  • Pair production
  • Photodisintegration
219
Q

Coherent scattering involves very ______ x-rays

A

low energy

220
Q

Does ionization occur with coherent scattering?

A

No

221
Q

During coherent scattering the x-ray interacts with the atom as a ______

A

Whole

222
Q

The photoelectric effect is responsible for the _______ contribution to patient expose or dose

A

Largest

223
Q

Photoelectric Effect: The incoming x-ray photon is _______ by collision with _____ electron

A
  1. Completely absorbed
  2. Inner-shell
224
Q

Compton Scattering: Incoming photon collides with _____ electron, creating a free compton electron and and _____ pair

A
  1. outer shell
  2. Ion
225
Q

Most occupation exposure is from _______

A

Compton scattering

226
Q

The SI units were officially adopted in ____

A

1985

227
Q

what are the three most popular dosimeters?

A
  • Direct Ion storage dosimeter
  • Optically Stimulated Luminescence Dosimeter
  • Thermoluminescent Dosimeter
228
Q

Thermoluminescent Dosimeters use ______ and is more _____

A

1, Lithium fluoride crystal
2. Convenient

229
Q

TLD’s are ______ and very sensitive to _____ of exposure

A
  1. reusable
  2. low levels
230
Q

Pocket Dosimeters give an immediate ______

A

Readout

231
Q

Which dosimeter requires access to the computer?

A

The pocket (DIS) dosimeter

232
Q

The exposure in the DIS causes ______ in gas that is collected with the cummalitive charge being stored in a _____

A
  1. Ionizations
  2. computer chip
233
Q

The most commonly used and convienient dosmieter is the ______

A

Optically Stimulated Luminescence Dosimeter

234
Q

The OSL measures______

A

x-ray and gamma radiation

235
Q

The OSL doesnt give an ______ readout of exposure

A

Immediate

236
Q

The OSL had a wide range of exposure ______

A

Sensitivity

237
Q

The dose limit for pregnancy term is _____ mSv

A

5

238
Q

What are the cardinal rule of protection towards professional?

A
  • Time
  • Distance
  • Sheilding
239
Q

What are the cardinal rules of protection towards a patient?

A
  • X-ray beam restriction
  • Filtration
  • Optimum exposure technique selection
240
Q

Exposure is not a measure of ________

A

absorbed exposure

241
Q

Exposure (X) measure exposure in _____

A

air

242
Q

Whats Air Kerma?

A

Kinetic energy released in matter

243
Q

what replaces the tradional unit of exposure (X)?

A

Air Kerma

244
Q

Total kinetic energy is released in a ________

A

Unit mass of air

245
Q

1 J/kg = 1 ____

A

Gray (GY)

246
Q

Air Kerma is seen in _______ and is measure in ______

A
  1. Fluroscopic tools
  2. Real time
247
Q

GY is the _____

A

absorbed dose

248
Q

whats is the equivalent dose expressed as?

A

Sievert (Sv)

249
Q

The product of absorbed dose (GY) x _____

A

QF

250
Q

The QF of x-ray is ______

A

1

251
Q

Effective dose is expressed as ______

A

Sievert (Sv)

252
Q

Standards of exposure are regulated by the _____

A

FDA and CDRH

253
Q

The annual whole body effective dose limit for occupation workers is _______

A

50 mSv

254
Q

What theories are effective dose limits based on?

A
  • Risk vs benefit
  • Nonthreshold dose response
255
Q

What are the two major parts of a cell?

A
  • Nucleus
  • Cytoplasm
256
Q

80% of cell content is _____

A

water

257
Q

What are two classes of human cells?

A
  • Somatic
  • Germ
258
Q

Somatic cells divide through ____

A

Mitosis

259
Q

Germ cells divide through _____

A

Meiosis

260
Q

Somatic cells are ______ cells

A

Mature

261
Q

Germ cells are _____

A

Immature cells

262
Q

Somatic cells:
- Preform ____ of the bodys functions
- Contains ____ chromosomes

A
  1. Most
  2. 46
263
Q

Germ cells:
- Primary function is _____
- Contains _____ chromosomes

A
  1. reproduction
  2. 23
264
Q

Germ cells are the most _____

A

Radiosensitive

265
Q
A