Questions and Answers - General Flashcards

1
Q

When do we not need a destination alternate?

A

• Dispatched under Alternative Flight Planning Procedure
• Duration of flight < 6hrs
• Destination has 2 usable separate runways
• Forecast ETA+/- 1hr show
 Ceiling @ 2000ft or circling height+500ft (greater of)
 Visibility 5km+

• OR destination is isolated (not applicable for easyJet)

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2
Q

When can runways be considered separate?

A
  • Separate landing surfaces that may overlap or cross
  • If one runway is blocked, will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other
  • Each runway must have its own approach procedure based on a separate navigation aid
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3
Q

When planning for an alternate, the TAF indicates in a PROB/TEMPO that the weather will be below limits. Can this alternate be used?

What about a PROB TEMPO?

A
  • Depends if conditions are transient or persistent
  • See ‘Application of Aerodrome Forecasts’ table
  • LIDO may show alternates even if they should be discounted after analysis of the table

A PROB TEMPO may be disregarded completely

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4
Q

When are two destination alternates required?

A
  • Conditions @ destination below minima/snow closed
  • No weather forecast for destination
  • Landing performance requirements cannot be assured due to dependence on specific wind component or rwy state
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5
Q

Planning minima for take-off alternate?

A
  • 1 hours flying time, ISA conditions
  • Single engine cruise speed
  • Planned take-off weight
  • No more than 320 NM
  • Plan for CAT 3 SINGLE
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6
Q

Planning minima for destination alternate if only NPA available?

A

• NPA minima +200ft/+1000m

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7
Q

How long is a TEMPO forecast expected to last?

A
  • Period of up to an hour at a time

* Up to half of the period of the TAF

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8
Q

What is the minimum RFF category (normal category 6) for:
Departure/Destination?
Alternates?

A

• Dep/Dest: CAT 5 (if indicated on OFP) or
CAT 4 (temp downgrade for up to 72hrs)
• Alternates: UK: CAT 5,
non-UK: CAT 4

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9
Q

What is final reserve fuel?

A
  • 30 mins @ holding speed
  • 1500ft overhead destination alternate
  • Based on planned weight over destination alternate
  • Approximately 1000kg
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10
Q

For planning to tanker fuel, what are max landing weights?

A

MLW – 1%
A319: 61,000kg – 610kg = 60,390kg
A320: 66,000kg – 660kg = 65,340kg

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11
Q

When should you not tanker fuel?

Other considerations when tankering?

A

Not permitted off or onto contaminated/slippery/icy runways

Ice forming on wings, and performance issues regarding climb gradients etc (not covered by LIDO – weights are)

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12
Q

What is extra fuel associated with:

1) EAI (cruise/hold)
2) EAI and WAI (cruise/hold)
3) Taxi
4) APU use
5) Trip fuel adjustment for increased/decreased track mileage

A

1) cruise: 1kg/min, hold: 2kg/min
2) cruise: 2kg/min, hold: 3kg/min
3) 10kg/min (2 engine), 7kg/min (1 engine)
4) 2kg/min
5) Increase: 5kg/NM, decrease: 4kg/NM

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13
Q

What is the fuel for holding and approach?

A
  • Holding @1500ft: 40kg/min

* Approach: 17kg/min

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14
Q

What is contingency fuel carried for?

A

Covers deviations in cruise level, track, winds or any other unforeseen circumstances, including weather forecasts

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15
Q

What is the absolute minimum contingency fuel you may carry, and under what circumstances?

A
  • The absolute minimum contingency fuel will be 3% of trip or 5 mins holding above destination (greater of), provided that an en-route alternate can be selected.
  • This is normally only done if performance issues exist on departure
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16
Q

What is contingency fuel?

A
  • 5% of trip fuel
  • 5 mins holding fuel @ 1500ft above dest in std conditions
  • Greater of
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17
Q

What are your considerations if you have overfuelled and are now overweight?

A

Options:
• Offload bags
• Burn fuel on the ground
• Defuel (cannot be done with passengers on board)
• Contact Duty Pilot, possibly able to authorise increase to MTOW

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18
Q

Can you burn contingency fuel on the ground?

A

Yes

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19
Q

Within what distance must a takeoff alternate be?

A

320NM

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20
Q

Within what distance must a cruise alternate be?

A
  • A319: 380NM

* A320: 400NM

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21
Q

When can we fly below CNR and continue to destination?

A
  • When given an EAT or known delay, landing at destination is assured, with at least final reserve fuel
  • When NOT given an EAT, or delay unknown, landing at destination or an alternate is assured with at least final reserve fuel
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22
Q

You see you will land with less than CNR at destination. What should you do?

A

Check for fuel leak.
Try to save fuel:
• Request slower cruise speed from ATC (min cost index)
• Request direct routings,
• Consider more favourable/optimal level wrt winds
• Replan using a closer alternate if possible
• ULTIMATELY: divert to refuel

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23
Q

What are the low fuel states, and what are the calls?

1) Normal
2) Caution
3) Emergency

A

1) Normal: fuel on arrival is final reserve plus alternate (CNR) or more. (No calls)
2) Caution: when committing to land at any airport, any change to existing clearance MAY lead to landing with less than final reserve fuel. (“MINIMUM FUEL”)
3) Indicated fuel on arrival is less than final reserve fuel (“MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL”)

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24
Q

What is the maximum LMC before a new loadsheet is required?

A

+10/-20 pax

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25
Q

When must performance figures be recalculated?

A
  • +LMC and TOGA take off planned or
  • +LMC >250kg or
  • TOWCG >2%

• +LMC<250kg, reduce FLEX by 1°C

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26
Q

What is the minimum oil quantity?

A

9.5qt + 0.5qt per hour

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27
Q

When is the oxygen demonstration required?

A
  • Cruise FL above FL250 or

* MFA anywhere above 14,000ft

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28
Q

When does positioning count as a sector?

A

If carried out position duty WITHIN a Flying Duty Period containing a claimed split duty, position journey will be counted as a sector when calculating allowable FDP

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29
Q

Can we extend a FDP by the use of a split duty?

A

Yes.
FDP must consist of two or more sectors, separated by less than (normal) minimum rest period. The FDP may be extended by:
• Less than 3 hrs rest: no extension
• 3-10 hrs rest: period equal to half of the rest taken

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30
Q

What are the maximum absolute limits on flying hours?

A
  • 100 hours in 28 consecutive days

* 900 hours in 12 months

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31
Q

What are the maximum duty hours?

A
  • 55 hours in 7 consecutive days
  • 95 hours in 14 consecutive days
  • 190 hours in 28 consecutive days
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32
Q

How many hours can we go into discretion to extend a FDP?

A
  • Single sector/prior to last sector of multi-sector: 3 hours
  • Two or more sectors: 2 hours
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33
Q

By how much can you reduce a rest period?

A

Minimum 10 hours in suitable accommodation

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34
Q

When must a Commander complete a ‘Commanders Discretion Report Form’?

A
  • Reduction of rest by more than 1 hour
  • When an FDP extension exceeds 2 hours
  • When Commander extends cumulative limits
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35
Q

State four responsibilities of the Commander

A
  • Be responsible for the safety of all crew, passengers and cargo
  • Be responsible for the safety and operation of the aircraft
  • Have the authority to offload any persons or cargo that may represent a potential hazard to the safety of the aircraft or its occupants
  • Ensure all passengers have been briefed on the location of emergency exits and the location and use of relevant safety and emergency equipment
  • Not allow a person to be carried in the aircraft who appears to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or its occupants is likely to be endangered
  • Have the right to refuse transportation of inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody if their carriage increases the risk to the safety of the aircraft or its occupants
  • Decide on acceptance of the aircraft with unserviceabilities in accordance with the configuration deviation list (CDL) or the minimum equipment list (MEL)
  • Ensure that the pre-flight inspection has been carried out;
  • Be satisfied that relevant emergency equipment remains easily accessible for immediate use.
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36
Q

What are the FO handling limits?

A
•	Max crosswind: 20kt
•	Min RVR for take-off: 400m
•	No contaminated or slippery runway
•	No reported windshear
•	Approach minima: CAT 1 ILS, published NPA minima, circling 5000m vis
•	Min runway width: 45m
•	3* FO:  	no FLAP 3 landings
	no tailwind landings
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37
Q

What is the procedure for reporting a birdstrike?

A
  • Advise ATC - this could affect decision making
  • Advise MOC – they will arranger for engineering inspection on arrival
  • Complete Tech Log with relevant information
  • Submit ASR via SafetyNet. Include additional fields that are required in lieu of the CAA Birdstrike Form CA1282
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38
Q

When can we use “For Info” in tech log and carry out a self-inspection following a birdstrike?

A
As long as there is no:
•	Structural damage (deformation or cracking)
•	Unusual odour reported in the cabin
•	Impact closer than 1m to (REPPS)
	Radome
	Engine
	Pack inlet 
	Pitot head
	Static port
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39
Q

Which manuals do we use in easyJet?

A

• easyJet:
OM-A, OM-B, OM-C, OM-DF, CSPM,
• Airbus:
FCOM, FCTM, MEL, CDL, QRH

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40
Q

When may flex thrust NOT be used for take-off?

A
  • When performance requires a TOGA take-off
  • When runway is contaminated
  • Flight planned with gear extended
  • Windshear reported
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41
Q

What are the minimum take-off climb gradients?

A
  • 2nd segment: 2.4% gross
  • Final segment: 1.2% gross
  • Engine out case accounted for
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42
Q

Can you dispatch with anti-skid inoperative?

A

No

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43
Q

What are the landing and approach climb gradients?

A
  • Approach climb: 2.1%
  • Landing climb: 3.2%
  • Low visibility climb: 2.5%
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44
Q

What are the low visibility wind limits?

A

H: 30kt
X: 20kt (no sharklets/sharklets without automatic rollout)
15kt (sharklets with automatic rollout)
T: 10kt

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45
Q

What is the minimum RVR for take-off?

What conditions must be met for this?

A
•	125m/125m/125m
•	Lighting: HI REL spaced 60m or less
	HI CL spaced 15m or less
•	Other conditions: 	multiple RVRs
	LVPs in force
	90m visual segment available from the cockpit (a/c design req)
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46
Q

What is the minimum RVR for take-off without special training?

A

150m

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47
Q

What visual segment is required for an LVO takeoff?

A

A 90 m visual segment (6 lights) is available from the cockpit at the start of the take-off run. (This is an aeroplane design requirement. All easyJet aeroplanes are compliant.)
CAUTION: displaced t/holds may have lighting of spacing > 15m. In this instance, move to where light spacing is 15m before assessment of visual segment.

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48
Q

Is the third segment RVR required for takeoff or landing?

A

Usually required for take-off
Otherwise only required if RVRs are relevant (I.e. speed is 60kt or more)
If third segment not available for take-off, the runway length may be reduced by 1/3 and performance be calculated for an equivalently shorter runway

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49
Q

Do you need RVRs for takeoff in LVPs or is met visibility okay?

A

RVRs are required:
Crew must ensure that a meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV conversion is NOT used for take-off, for calculating any other required RVR minimum less than 800 m, or when reported RVR is available

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50
Q

When do LVPs come into force?

A

Ceiling at or below 200ft, RVR at or below 600m

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51
Q

How much extra fuel is required when LVPs are in force at destination?

A

No company policy related to this. It would be prudent to take as much as is required for expected delays/holding due to restrictions on arriving traffic

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52
Q

If FO is not LVO qualified, what are the take-off limits in LVO conditions?

A

Min RVR for take-off 150m

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53
Q

During an approach in LVPs with a failure at 2000ft, can you continue? When must you go around?

A

Continue and sort the failure. You can continue beyond 1000ft provided:
• ECAM complete
• New minima have been inserted in PERF APPR page
• Approach rebriefed
• Reported RVRs acceptable given system downgrade

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54
Q

What must you go around for below 1000ft in LVPs?

A
  • Alpha floor activation
  • AP failure (manual GA) or ATHR failure
  • Engine failure
  • AMBER CAUTION
  • Capability downgrade (triple click) except ISIS failure
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55
Q

On LVP approach, what happens at critical heights below 1000ft?

A
  • 1000ft: Stability criteria met, approach ban respected
  • 800RA: LDG INHIBIT
  • 700RA: FMGC data lock
  • 500RA: Stability criteria met
  • 350RA: LAND FMA announced by CM1. Check inbound course
  • 200ft: Below this, GA for RED AUTOLAND LIGHT
  • 100ft: ALERT HEIGHT
  • DH+100: 100 ABOVE announced by CM2
  • DH: CONTINUE or GA/FLAPS announced by CM1
  • 100RA: 100 announced by CM2
  • 40RA: FLARE announced by CM2
  • 30RA: Monitor thrust reduction entering flare
  • 10RA: CM1 retard thrust levers to IDLE, monitor lateral guidance
  • Touchdown: CM1 disengage AP
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56
Q

How many infants may be carried?

How many per accompanying adult?

A
  • 10% of aircraft capacity
  • A319: 16
  • A320: 18
  • 2 infants per accompanying adult
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57
Q

On a circling approach, when is the autopilot disconnected?

A

Disconnect the AP and remove the FDs at the latest before starting the descent toward the runway

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58
Q

Can we carry human remains?

A

• Carriage of human remains is not permitted

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59
Q

Can we carry human ashes?

A
  • Carriage of ashes IS permitted

* Death certificate and cremation certificate required

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60
Q

Can we carry musical instruments? Particularly cellos

A

• Yes, provided they fit in the overhead lockers.
• Larger instruments (e.g. cellos) must have a seat purchased for them to travel on, and centre of mass should be not more than 30cm above top of seat cusion
 Window seat
 Not a restricted seat

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61
Q

Can we carry passengers on stretchers?

A

No

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62
Q

Which seats are restricted?

A
  • Front row: A B C D
  • Overwings
  • Back row: C D
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63
Q

Who may not sit in restricted seats?

A
C – Children under 16 years
	H – Hearing, sight or other disability
	I – Infants on laps
	P – Pregnant, prisoners
	P – Physical size
	E – Elderly if frail
	D – Deportees
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64
Q

Who are include in Special Categories of Passengers?

A

• Persons requiring special conditions, assistance and/or devices when carried on a flight shall be considered as SCPs
• persons with reduced mobility (PRMs) whose mobility is reduced due to
 any physical disability
 sensory or locomotory
 permanent or temporary, intellectual disability or impairment
 any other cause of disability
 age
• infants and unaccompanied children
• deportees, inadmissable passengers or prisoners in custody

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65
Q

Where would you find the list of dangerous goods which are acceptable to carry?

A

OMA 9.1
Exceptions are (shown in OMA 9.1.3):
• Items for airworthiness or operating reasons
• To provide, during flight, medical aid to a patient

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66
Q

What is the Recommended Max Altitude?

A

The MAX REC FL is the lowest of the maximum altitude that:
• gives a buffet margin of at least 0.3g
• can fly in level flight at MAX CRZ rating
• can maintain V/S of 300fpm at MAX CLB thrust
• can fly greater than GD speed and less than VMO/MMO
MAX REC FL should be considered the upper cruise FL

A higher CRZ FL may be entered, provided the buffet margin doesn’t reduce below 0.2g. If unable, message “CRZ ABOVE MAX FL”

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67
Q

What is the meaning of OPT ALT on the PROG PAGE of the FMGC?

A
  • Cruise level for minimum cost when flying ECON MACH
  • Only meaningful if wind and temperature profiles have been accurately entered
  • Function of Cost Index
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68
Q

Can boarding commence with only three cabin crew? Considerations?

A

Boarding can commence with one less than normal crew provided:
• One flight crew member is on the flightdeck
• The operating SCCM is present
• Pre-flight safety briefing has been completed
• Pre-flight cabin checks (SEP and security) have been completed
• No fuelling is taking place
• When refuelling, 4 crew members are required.
• Electrical power is available
• One crew member is at each of the forward and aft doors
• MAXIMUM 50 passengers per cabin crew members present may board. The remaining passengers may board when the final crew member is present.
• In case of evacuation, Flight Crew member will assist at the front of the cabin

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69
Q

What is the minimum number of cabin crew? Restrictions?

A
  • One less than normal crew
  • Reduction must be authorised by the Duty Pilot or Network Duty Manager
  • Can only be used to enable return to originating base OR a base where a substitution can be made
  • Passengers may be reduced to ensure 50 passengers per operating cabin crew member (this excludes infants and removed cabin crew member)
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70
Q

What considerations if SCCM goes ill down route? Considerations and actions?

A

Replace with another SCCM if one is on board
Otherwise…
• Next most senior crew member will become acting SCCM
• Acting SCCM will be nominated by the Captain
• Acting SCCM will have MIN 12 months experience and 20 sectors on type
• Acting SCCM will familiarise themselves with their duties and procedures prior to departure and satisfy the Captain that their knowledge is adequate
• Captain will submit an ASR

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71
Q

Considerations if during the flight you are told SCCM has cut her head and is bleeding?

A
  • Is she conscious? Do we need to divert?
  • Does she require immediate medical attention? Ask for doctor of medicine.
  • Is she fit to continue operating? This sector? Next sector?
  • If unfit – determine who will replace her as SCCM. Brief them on the requirement to now act as SCCM.
  • Alert OCC. If going to a crewed base, another SCCM will be available. Otherwise, consider operating next sector reduced crew (implications…)

CSPM:
• If during a flight a cabin crew member becomes incapacitated due to sickness or injury they will no longer be able to continue with their duties.
• If the cabin crew member is not fit enough to complete an in-flight service they are not fit enough to perform safety related duties. If this is the case the affected cabin crew member must not sit in their allocated crew seat for landing.
• If there is a free passenger seat in the cabin they should occupy this providing it is not a restricted seat.
• If there are no free passenger seats the Commander must decide on the best available option.
 Consider the Crew Member using the jump seat if their condition will not impair operations on the flightdeck.
• The incapacitated crew member must not operate any further sectors and must be either offloaded or passenger back to base.
• If crew are required to operate with a crew complement below normal the procedure for operation with reduced cabin crew must be followed before the next departure.
• If the crew member’s condition improves during the course of the flight and they feel fully fit and able to carry out all safety related duties then they may continue with their duty and sit in their crew seat for landing. In this situation the crew member must confirm that they are also able to carry out any further sectors and complete their duty day and that they will not be offloaded after landing.
• The Cabin Manager must determine that the crew member has recovered sufficiently and is fully fit and able to carry out all safety related duties.
• If the incapacitated crew member is the Cabin Manager the Commander must make this decision.

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72
Q

What are the levels of bomb warnings?

A
  • GREEN: A threat assessed as non-credible
  • AMBER: Ground only, a threat of doubtful credibility
  • RED: A credible and specific threat requiring immediate protective measures
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73
Q

You receive a RED bomb warning. Actions on stand?

A
  • Disembark all passengers and crew with all cabin bag/baggage in controlled circumstances
  • Give “security problem” as the reason for the disembarkation.
  • Escape slides should only be used in extreme emergencies where steps or jetbridge are not available.
  • Remove passengers to an area separated from other passengers.
  • Inform ground staff and all other staff working around the area and the foot print of the aircraft to vacate the area.
  • Remove the aircraft to a remote location and quarantine the aircraft.
  • If there is sufficient time before estimated time of explosion carry out a search of the aircraft.
  • Once “ALL CLEAR” has been given by Police, carry out a full search of the aircraft and catering and ensure all passengers, cabin and hold luggage is screened again and passengers reconciled to baggage before any re-embarkation is permitted
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74
Q

You receive a RED bomb warning. Actions during taxi?

A
  • Advise airfield and passengers of a “security problem”
  • Request details of remote parking requirements and immediate availability of passenger steps
  • Advise airfield of the need to remove passengers from the vicinity of the aircraft to at least 200m in an upwind direction as quickly as possible
  • Disembark passengers using steps making sure that they take all their cabin bag/baggage with them
  • Only use escape slides if steps are not available, in which case use normal evacuation procedures
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75
Q

You receive a RED bomb warning. Actions in flight?

A
  • If a specific threat is received in-flight, declare an emergency and divert to the nearest suitable airfield
  • The choice of airfield should take into account landing performance requirements, approach aids, emergency facilities and the proximity of the approach paths over densely populated areas
  • If a specific threat is received in-flight, follow the QRH checklist as if a bomb was found on board.
  • If the threat is received in the climb, stop the cabin altitude from rising further and, if possible, discontinue the climb.
  • Even though a threat has been assessed as RED, the likelihood of an explosive device being on board is low. Therefore, unless a suspicious article or explosive device has been found, the aircraft should be flown as normally as possible, in accordance with the requirements of the checklist and striking a reasonable balance between the need for a rapid landing and the risk arising from undue haste.
  • Brief Cabin Crew to make a discreet search of aircraft toilets and galleys for any suspicious articles.
  • If an immediate landing cannot be made, consider briefing the Cabin Crew to conduct a full search of the passenger cabin. If a suspicious item is found – see OMA 10.7.7.
  • If operationally possible, reduce the cabin differential pressure by descending the aircraft to the cabin altitude. Do not raise the cabin altitude. Maintain this cabin altitude until top of descent. When MSAs and range considerations permit, descend aircraft to below 10000 ft.
  • Minimise manoeuvres and try to avoid turbulence.
  • Consider carefully the choice between flying fast to minimise airborne time and flying slowly to minimise air loads and damage in the event of fuselage rupture. In most cases the turbulent air penetration speed will be a reasonable compromise
  • Announcements concerning return or diversion should indicate that the threat is to the airline and, although most likely a hoax, must be treated seriously.
  • On landing, follow same procedures for threat received on taxiing
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76
Q

What do CC do when hearing “SCCM to the flightdeck/interphone” or triple chime?

A
  • SCCM reports the flightdeck or interphone immediately

* Other crew await instructions (secure trollies etc)

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77
Q

What is a precautionary landing?

A

A landing where under normal circumstances an evacuation will not be necessary after landing.

After landing, crew will remain in their seats and await further instructions from the Commander – this will be either normal operations, SCCM to the FD, or evacuation.

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78
Q

What types of emergency landing are there? And what calls are made?

A

Pre-planned
Pre-planned – less than 10 minutes
Unplanned

Calls for pre-planned: @ 2000ft: “CABIN CREW TAKE UP LANDING POSITIONS”
@ 500ft: “BRACE, BRACE”

Calls for unplanned: “ATTENTION CREW, BRACE, BRACE”

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79
Q

When may a CC member initiate an evacuation?

A

• If there is an obvious, immediate life threatening situation i.e. catastrophic, any cabin crew member can initiate an evacuation, e.g.:
 Ditching (landing on water)
 Uncontrolled cabin fire/smoke
 Severe structural damage to the aircraft (hole through fuselage)
 abnormal aircraft attitude possibly accompanied by the sound of severe scraping as the aircraft comes to a stop).
• If there is no communication from the pilots in an emergency situation, after the aircraft has come to a complete stop, and if the senior cabin crew member finds the pilots incapacitated then the senior cabin crew member can initiate an evacuation.

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80
Q

What are the max EGT figures and time limits for start, MCT, TOGA?

A

Start: 725°C
MCT: 915°C
TOGA: 950°C TOGA 2 engines: 5mins, TOGA 1 engine: 10mins

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81
Q

What is the wake vortex separation minima for takeoff?

A

A380: 3 mins
Heavy: 2 mins
Add one minute for departure from intermediate position

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82
Q

What is the wake vortex separation minima for approach?

A

A380: 7NM
Heavy: 5NM
Upper-medium: 4NM
Medium: 3NM

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83
Q

What levels are RVSM airspace? What is the separation here?

A

FL290-FL410 inclusive

Vertical separation 1000ft

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84
Q

What equipment is required for RVSM? Where would you find the list?

A
•	2 ADR + 2 DMC
•	1 transponder
•	1 autopilot
•	1 FCU channel (for altitude target selection and OPEN CL/OP DES mode selection)
•	2 PFD (for altitude indication)
1 FWC (for altitude alert function)

List is in FCOM PRO-SPO-50

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85
Q

Tell me about allowable frost and icing on the airframe? When should you deice?

A

• The Commander shall ensure that all snow, ice, frost or slush is removed from the aeroplane before take-off except as permitted by the manufacturer and as specified in the type-specific manuals OMB/FCOM (clean aircraft concept)
• The exceptions to compliance with the clean aircraft concept, subject to FCOM PRO-SUP-91-30 alleviations, provisions and restrictions, include:
 A coating of frost up to 3mm thick is permitted on wing lower surfaces, in the area cold soaked by fuel
 Thin hoarfrost is acceptable on the
 fuselage,
 radome, and
 engine cowl
 Surface features (lines or markings) must be distinguishable. This must not be confused with rime ice, which may form on windward surfaces in freezing fog.

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86
Q

How do you remove contamination forward of the aircraft windscreens?

A

Mechanical methods only (brush)

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87
Q

What is the clean aircraft concept?

A

• The Commander shall ensure that all snow, ice, frost or slush is removed from the aeroplane before take-off except as permitted by the manufacturer and as specified in the type-specific manuals OMB/FCOM (clean aircraft concept)

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88
Q

Below what height above ground level must the cloud level be with temperature below 10C for performance to include ANTI-ICE ON for take-off?

A
  • At or below one-engine out acceleration altitude

* (usually 1000ft AGL)

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89
Q

When must engine anti-ice be used in the climb, cruise and descent?

A

Climb, cruise: icing conditions exist or are anticipated, TAT less than 10°C and greater than -40°C SAT
Descent: icing conditions regardless of temperature, even if below -40°C

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90
Q

When must wing anti-ice be used? Can it be used on the ground?

A
  • Air: WING A.ICE should be used to prevent ice formation or remove ice accumulation from the wing leading edges. WING A.ICE should be selected ON whenever there is indication that airframe icing exists, as evidenced by ice accumulation on the visual ice indicator
  • Ground: WING A.ICE ON will run a 30s test sequence, then automatically switch off
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91
Q

What is SAT and TAT?

A

• SAT: Static air temperature – the temperature that would be read off a thermometer (ambient)
TAT: Total air temperature – the temperature of air brought to a rest in a freestream flow. The air is compressed and experiences an adiabatic increase in temperature. Therefore total air temperature is higher than the static (or ambient) air temperature

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92
Q

What are the MINIMUM allowed speeds with ice accretion?

A

• If there is evidence of significant ice accretion and to take account of ice formation on non-heated structure, the minimum speed should be:
 CONF FULL: VLS+5kt
 CONF less than FULL: VLS+10kt

• If there is evidence of ice accretion on de-iced parts of the airframe, with WING A.ICE inoperative, or unusable due engine fire, the minimum speeds should be:
 CLEAN: VLS+15kt
 CONF 1, 2, 3 or FULL: VLS+10kt

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93
Q

What angle should weather radar be set for take-off?

A

4° up

94
Q

Above what crosswind speed do you use the crosswind technique?
What is it?

A

Crosswind above 20kt
• PF apply FULL forward stick
• PF set 50% N1
• Rapidly increase thrust to 70% N1
• Progressively increase thrust to achieve TO thrust by 40kt
• Maintain FULL forward stick until 80kt, release to NEUTRAL by 100kt

95
Q

Above what height can autopilot be engaged?

A

Above 100ft AGL

96
Q

Within how many miles of the centreline of an airway is MORA calculated?

A

10NM either side

97
Q

How much clearance is provided with a MORA when an obstacle is up and including 5000ft? Above 5000ft?

A

Up to and including 5000ft: 1000ft clearance

More than 5000ft: 2000ft clearance

98
Q

What is the MINIMUM MFA depicted on OFPs?

A

2000ft

99
Q

Are MFAs corrected for wind and/or temperature?

If both are to be applied, which is applied first?

A

Yes.
Corrections for wind speed should be applied in addition to the standard corrections for pressure and temperature, and ATC should be advised.

100
Q

With one engine inoperative, what net flight path gradient must be achieved 1000ft above all obstacles within 5nm of the intended track?

A

Positive

101
Q

With one engine inoperative and unable to maintain a positive net flight path gradient, how much vertical clearance within 5nm of the intended track must be maintained from cruising altitude to an airport where a landing can be made?

A

2000ft

102
Q

Which category of airport requires a visit as part of an operating crew or simulator training?

A

Category C

103
Q

Which category of airport requires self-briefing?

How is self-briefing recorded by the commander?

A

Category B, B restricted

Self-briefing is recorded by signing the OFP

104
Q

What sections of the OM suite do you confirm compliance with when signing the OFP?

A

OMA 8.1.2: Criteria for Determining Usability of Aerodromes
OMA 8.1.7: Determination of the Quantities of Fuel and Oil
OMC 12: Aerodrome Categorisation for Flight Crew Competence Qualification

105
Q

At what speed does pedal nosewheel steering stop?

A

130kt

106
Q

Above what speed will AUTOBRK MAX function on an RTO?

A

72kt

however, for MAX AUTOBRAKE to function, spoilers must be extended and speed must be > 40kt

107
Q

Where must thrust levers be for AUTOBRK MAX to function?

A

Ground spoilers armed: idle

Ground spoilers not armed: at least one thrust lever in reverse

108
Q

What hydraulic system runs the normal brakes?

A

GREEN

109
Q

Do we have a system to manually select the alternate brakes?

A

No, revert to alternate brakes are automatically following system downgrade (failure etc.)

110
Q

Is anti-skid available on the alternate brakes?

A

Yes, provided the NWS & ASKID switch is not set to OFF, and provided there is no power failure, BSCU failure, or G+Y hydraulic fault

111
Q

Name the four levels of braking depending on failures

A

1) Normal braking
2) Alternate braking with antiskid
3) Alternate braking without antiskid
4) Parking brake

112
Q

How is anti-skid downgraded on the alternate braking system?

A
Electrically:
	NWS &amp; ASKID switch is set to OFF, 
	power failure,
	BSCU failure, 
Hydraulically:
	Low G+Y hydraulic pressure
113
Q

Is autobrake available on the alternate braking system?

A

No

114
Q

Where can you find details if anti-skid is inop?

A

MEL: dispatch requirements
QRH PER-32: landing distance for ASKID FAULT in flight
QRH PER-C: landing speed for ASKID FAULT in flight

115
Q

ATC inform you braking action is poor/poor/poor. What do you do?

A

Check crosswind limits using QRH PER-C Runway Condition Assessment Matrix for Landing (POOR = 15kt)
Check LDG PERF using CODE 1 for POOR BA

116
Q

Double engine failure (fuel remaining):

What do you do? Where do you go? How far can you reach?

A
Initial actions:
	ENG MODE SEL…IGN
	THRUST LEVERS…IDLE
	OPT RELIGHT SPD…300KT
	LDG STRATEGY…DETERMINE
	EMER ELEC PWR…MAN ON

@ 300kt, aircraft flies 2NM per 1,000ft
From 38,000ft range is ~76NM – aim for airfield within 70NM if possible

117
Q

Suspected bird strike close to V1. Actions and considerations?

A

Go. Advise ATC
Check engine indications/ask crew if there are any smells from air conditioning
If suspect birdstrike with no indications, continue – contact MOC
If suspect birdstrike with damage/smell/abnormal indications – consider return

118
Q

What is the difference between CLB and OPEN CLB?

A

There is no difference between OPEN CLB and CLB, apart from constraints being respected in CLB mode

119
Q

What are the turbulence penetration speeds? Is there a difference between the A319 and A320?

A

Same of A319 and A320:
below FL200 – 250kt
FL200-FL320 – 275kt
above FL320 – M0.76

120
Q

What would your actions be if experiencing severe turbulence

A

• Aircraft:
SIGNS… ON
AUTOPILOT… KEEP ON
AUTOTHRUST… when thrust changes become excessive, DISCONNECT

• Cabin:
“CABIN CREW AND PASSENGERS BE SEATED IMMEDIATELY”

• ATC:
Advise

121
Q

With what level of turbulence should pilots inform ATC

What else should pilots advise at this time if prolonged?

A

Inform ATC of anything above moderate turbulence.

During severe turbulence over prolonged periods, tell ATC you are unable RVSM

122
Q

With the aircraft if ALT*, given a new FL, what happens?

A

Mode reversion to V/S

Maintains current rate

123
Q

What are the potential problems encountered using V/S mode at high levels?

A

When climbing or descending with V/S mode engaged, at high altitude or if the selected V/S value is excessive, the FMGS maintains the V/S target, and allows the airspeed to decrease in climb or increase in descent. At high altitude this may rapidly result in a mode reversion whereby speed is protected at VLS (climb case) or VMAX (descent case).

124
Q

What is the VHF1 and VHF2 monitoring policy? What about clearance and digital clearance?

A

• VHF1: At all times, appropriate ATC frequency
• VHF2: in flight – 121.5 or when required ATIS/VOLMET/FIS/handling agent
on ground – handling agent frequency

  • When obtaining an ATC clearance, headsets must be worn by both crew members
  • When obtaining a DCL, both pilots must verify the printed clearance and confirmation
125
Q

What are the memory items?

A
  • CREW INCAPACITATION
  • EGPWS
  • Immediate actions of EMER DESCENT
  • Immediate actions of UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION/ADR CHECK PROC
  • LOSS OF BRAKING
  • STALL RECOVERY
  • STALL WARNING AT LIFT-OFF
  • TCAS
  • WINDSHEAR
  • WINDSHEAR AHEAD
126
Q

Wind close to limits for a new F/O on his sector, what do you do?

A
  • Talk about where the runway will appear in the windscreen
  • Warn against the tendency to point the nose at the runway then drift off LOC
  • Fly on the instruments – fly the diamonds on the ILS
  • Talk about the wind magnitude reducing down the approach – maintain LOC
  • Talk through the crosswind landing technique
  • If gusty – talk through actions in the event of a windshear warning
127
Q

Do we correct Vapp for gusts? What is the maximum Vapp you can set?

A

In case of strong or gusty crosswinds up to 20kt, VAPP should be at least VLS+5kt. This may be increased to VLS+15kt at crew’s discretion

128
Q

Vapp – what would you set for

a) Normal operation
b) Gusty conditions
c) Ice accretion (and what is the LDF)

A

a) VLS+5kt
b) Up to VLS+15kt at the crew’s discretion
c) CONF3: VLS+10 (LDF 1.15)
CONF FULL: VLS+5 (LDF 1.10)

129
Q

What is fail operational and fail passive?

A

• Fail operational:
In the event of a failure below Alert Height, the approach, flare and landing can be completed automatically. Following a failure, the automatic landing system operates as a fail passive system.
• Fail passive:
In the event of a failure the landing is not carried out automatically. The pilot takes control of the aircraft after the failure.

130
Q

What does the red AUTOLAND light illuminate for?

A
	Both AUTOPILOTS fail (manually flown GA)
	Excessive beam deviation
	LOC/GS transmitter OR receiver fail 
	Loss of LOC > 15ft
	Loss of GS > 100ft
	RA difference ≥15ft sensed
131
Q

Can you engage a tripped CB in flight?

A

In flight, do not reengage a CB that has tripped by itself, unless the Captain judges it necessary to do so for the safe conduct of the flight.
Only one reengagement should be attempted, and only as a last resort.

132
Q

Which CBs can you never reset on the ground?

A

On the ground, do not reset the CB of fuel pumps, for any tank

133
Q

Which CBs must NOT be pulled?

A
  • SFCC
  • ECU
  • EEC
  • EIU
134
Q

What do you do if electrical power is interrupted during the start sequence (indicated by loss of DUs)?

A
  • Abort the start by setting the engine master to OFF

* Dry crank for 30s

135
Q

When should you select IGN ON?

A
  • Heavy precipitation
  • Turbulence
  • Standing water
  • Contaminated runway
  • Emergency descent
136
Q

If you have RA1+2 failure, can you intercept the LOC and GP? Other considerations?

A
  • No, GS is not available
  • When landing gear down, straight to DIRECT LAW and AP lost
  • Consider non-standard configuration (FLAP 3 then GEAR DOWN) to minimise trim required in DIRECT LAW
  • No callouts
137
Q

Will IGN automatically come on with ENG ANTI ICE?

A

No on the aircraft,

Yes in the sim

138
Q

What are the actions for performing a GS capture from above (LOC established)?

A
  • Arm APPR
  • V/S -1500 initially
  • ALT in FCU above aircraft altitude
  • Once on GS, set GA alt in FCU
139
Q

What level of RNAV navigation does easyJet have?

A
•	RNAV1 (PRNAV): 
Terminal airspace, including below MFA
RNP 1.0nm
•	RNP-1:
Similar to RNAV1 but requires GNSS and onboard alerting
Allows RF legs
•	RNAV5 (BRNAV):
Enroute and terminal airspace above MFA
RNP 5.0nm
•	RNP APCH (RNAV (GNSS) or (GPS) Approach
RNAV final approach with straight segments only
RNP 0.3nm
140
Q

For entry to RVSM airspace, what is the limit for the 2 primary altimeters to be within?

A

200ft

141
Q

On what 3 occasions should a navigation accuracy check be carried out? (indicated on FMGS and DUs)

A
  • IRS only navigation
  • NAV ACCUR DOWNGRADE on MCDU
  • PROG page shows ACCUR LOW
142
Q

What is the limit for a pass/fail of the nav accuracy check?

A
  • Pass: less than or equal to 3NM

* Fail: more than 3NM

143
Q

When does a nav accuracy check NOT need to be done?

A

• On aircraft equipped with GPS PRIMARY, no nav accuracy check is required as long as GPS PRIMARY is available

144
Q

How is a nav accuracy check done?

A
  • Manually tune VOR (VOR/DME or ADF) to a station that is within range on the RAD NAV page, and select associated needles on the ND.
  • Check that the needle (raw data) overlies the corresponding blue navaid symbol (FM computed) and that the DME distance is equal to the distance showing between the aircraft symbol and the navaid symbol on the ND.
  • Alternatively, insert a VOR/DME ident in BRG/DIST TO field on the PROG page and compare the computed BRG (DIST) with the raw data on the ND. This method allows the FM error to be quantified.
145
Q

Where do you find out the effect of failed or downgraded equipment at an airfield?

A

QRH Supplementary Information – Low Visibility Operations

146
Q

Explain the hydraulic distribution of the GREEN, YELLOW and BLUE systems

A

• GREEN: Flaps, slats,
landing gear, normal braking, reverser 1,
ailerons, elevator, THS, rudder, spoilers
• YELLOW: Flaps,
alternate braking, NWS, parking brake, reverser 2,
Elevator, THS, rudder, spoilers
• BLUE: Slats,
emergency gen,
ailerons, elevator, rudder, spoilers

147
Q

Which systems have hydraulic priority? Why?

A
  • Lighter load users have hydraulic priority. If a system has low hydraulic pressure, the heavy load users are isolated from the system to protect the other users.
  • The heavy load users include FLAPS, SLATS and EMER GEN
  • FLAPS and SLATS will have a backup hydraulic supply from another hydraulic system, so will still operate, albeit at half speed
148
Q

With a B+Y dual hydraulic failure, why do we perform a manual gear extension?

A

To preserve GREEN HYD system integrity

GREEN will be working hard with FLAPS/SLATS amongst other GREEN users

149
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A

PTU inhibited:
• during first engine start
• Parking Brake ON and only one ENG MASTER ON
• Parking brake OFF with NWS in towing position and one ENG MASTER ON
• YELLOW ELEC PUMP is OFF and the CARGO DOOR is being operated (inhibited for 40s after door operation is complete).
This prevents inadvertent pressurisation of the flight control systems and activation of the NWS system
• PTU switch is OFF

150
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

The final approach segment may not be continued beyond:
• 1000ft AAL or
• into the final approach segment in the case where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1000ft above the aerodrome

If the reported RVR is below the published minima for the required tranmissometers a missed approach must be flown. After 1000ft, if the RVR becomes lower than the minima, the approach may be continued

151
Q

Can you start an approach with the RVRs below limits?

A

• An instrument approach may be commenced regardless of the reported RVR/VIS.
• If the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum the approach shall not be continued:
 Below 1000 ft above the aerodrome; or
 Into the final approach segment in the case where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1000 ft above the aerodrome.
• Where the RVR is not available, RVR values may be derived by converting the reported visibility in accordance with OMA 8.1.3.9, “Runway Visual Range”.

152
Q

Can you tell me about the validity of your JAR licence?

A
  • Issued in the UK, complies with the new EASA rules & will be revalidated as an EASA licence once it expires. Has to be revalidated every 5 years.
  • Contains a valid Type Rating which is valid for 1 year. I’m required to pass a proficiency check each year to keep this current (LPC) & this also satisfies the requirements for a valid IR.
  • The check can be carried out within the 3 month period preceding the expiry of the rating.
  • A valid Class 1 medical is required in order to exercise the privileges of the license, the medical is also renewable every year.
153
Q

What is minimum rest?

A

The greater of
• The length of the preceding duty
• 12 hours

154
Q

How can you reduce a rest period?

A

When away from base in the case when the rest period earned by a crew member is 12 hours, and suitable accommodation is provided by easyJet, then that rest period may be shortened by one hour. This shortening of the rest period may be planned or implemented by easyJet and does not require the use of Commanders discretion.

155
Q

What is the maximum FDP when called from standby and airport standby?

A
  • Airport SBY: max FDP calculated from start of ASBY
  • SBY: max FDP calculated from report time plus time spent on SBY, reduced by time spent on standby in excess of 6 hours, if applicable
156
Q

What is the maximum crosswind limits for take-off and landing?
What are these limits for a narrow runway?

A

Normal runway:
Dry: 38kt
Wet: 38kt
Contaminated: 25kt

Narrow runway:
Dry: 38kt
Wet: 33kt
Contaminated: 10kt

157
Q

Can the aircraft autoland on a narrow runway?

A

Autoland on narrow runways is not allowed

158
Q

Can the aircraft autoland on a runway which has been cleared but the width is still less than 45m?

A

Yes, as long as the cleared width exceeds 30m and the LPC landing performance allows landing assuming the contaminant has not been cleared
Depending on the heights of snowbanks, the Commander may decide against normal operations on this sort of runway though

159
Q

What are the wind limits for passenger and cargo doors?

A
Passenger doors:		65kt
Cargo doors:		40kt
Aircraft nose oriented into wind or 
cargo door on leeward side:	50kt
Must be closed before: 	65kt
160
Q

What are the speed limits and maximum tiller deflections for:

1) 1 deflated tyre
2) 2 deflated tyres
3) Damaged tyres

A

1) 7kt, no tiller limit
2) 3kt, 30° tiller input limit
3) no taxi permitted

161
Q

What are the minimum autopilot disconnects for:

1) NPA
2) CAT1 ILS
3) CAT2 ILS
4) Circling approach

A

1) applicable minima
2) 160ft
3) 0ft
4) circling minima – 100ft

162
Q

What is the maximum brake temperature for take-off?

A
  • Brake fans ON: 150°C

* Brake fans OFF: 300°C

163
Q

Where would you find the minimum flight crew oxygen requirements?

A

FCOM LIM-35: Cockpit Fixed Oxygen System

164
Q

Starter cycle limitations for APU?

A
  • 3 starter cycles

* Cooling period between 3 cycles: 60mins

165
Q

Starter cycle limitations for engines?

A
  • 4 cycles, each 2 mins
  • 20s pause between attempts
  • Cooling period after 4 attempts: 15 mins
166
Q

Max altitude for gear and flaps/slats?

A

Gear: 25,000ft

Flaps/slats: 20,000ft

167
Q

What are the gear operating speeds?

1) Extended
2) Extend
3) Retract

A

1) 280kt/M0.67
2) 250kt
3) 220kt

168
Q

Maximum speeds for all flap configurations

A
  • CONF 1: 230
  • CONF1+F: 215
  • CONF 2: 200
  • CONF 3: 185
  • CONF FULL: 177
169
Q

Describe how the aircraft windshear systems work.

What is required for them to work?

A

• Predictive windshear
 Part of the weather radar system
 Operates when PWS switch is in the AUTO position
 ATC is switched to ON or AUTO or XPDR
 An engine is running
 Aircraft is below 2300ft
• Reactive windshear
 Provided by FAC in T/O and approach phases, below 1300ft
 If predicted energy levels fall below a given threshold, warning is issued
 FAC uses data from ADIRS and other sources to determine this energy level

170
Q

Concerning crew health, time required after:

a) Local anaesthetic
b) General anaesthetic
c) Alcohol
d) Deep sea diving
e) Blood donation

A

a) Local anaesthetic: 24hrs
b) General anaesthetic: 48hrs
c) Alcohol consumption: 10hrs
d) Deep sea diving deeper than 10m: 48hrs, any scuba diving: 24hrs
e) Blood donation: 24hrs

171
Q

Explain landing minima if RVRs are unserviceable

A

Met Vis can be converted to RVR using the table at OMA 8.1.3.10 provided:
Only used for landing
• Only used to calculate a required RVR > 800m
• Not used if RVR is reported

			Day	/ Night HI appr and rwy lighting	x 1.5	/ x 2.0 Any other lighting		x 1.0	 /x 1.5 No lighting			x 1.0	 /n/a
172
Q

Explain landing minima if RVRs are unserviceable

When is it allowed to convert met vis to RVR?

A
  • Use for landing only
  • Required RVR must be > 800m
  • RVRs must not be available
173
Q

Firearms in the cabin, can you carry them? If so, under what circumstances? What about firearms in the cargo hold? What are the limitations?

A

• Yes, only in the following circumstances:
 UK police and protection officers escorting members of the British Royal Family, some Government Ministers and certain persons meriting personal protection, are authorised to carry firearms loaded with ammunition in the cabin of easyJet aircraft
 Protection officers accompanying foreign Heads of State or State Officials holding recognized office in a foreign country are permitted to carry firearms and ammunition provided written permission is obtained from the easyJet Security Manager or their deputy.
 On all other occasions the firearms and ammunition shall be stowed in the hold of the aircraft and treated as standard processes for dealing with firearms or, with the approval of the Commander in a location which is inaccessible to passengers on the aircraft.
• Firearms may be carried in the cargo hold
• Limitations on ammunition: no more than 5kg per person for own use

174
Q

What is IRS drift? Where do find tolerances?

A
  • Position error of the IRS position

* Tolerances can be found in OMB 2.3.22.2: Shutdown

175
Q

When do you do a quick/full align of the IRS’s?

A

• Full align:
 before first flight of the day
 When there is a crew change
 When GPS is not available and navaid coverage is poor on the expected route
 When GPS is not available, and the expected flight time is more than 3 hours
• Quick align:
 When a full alignment is not required
 When the IRS position deviates from the GPS position by 5NM or more

176
Q

How do you carry out a quick/full align?

A
  • Full align: ADIRS selector off for 5 secs, then NAV

* Quick align: ADIRS selector off for less than 5 secs, then NAV

177
Q

When do you consider the IR part of the ADIRS unserviceable?

A
  • When the deviation of the IRS (in NM) exceeds a pre-determined limit based upon the number of hours NAV TIME in operation. See OMB 2.3.22.2
  • Anything above 5NM, check the manual
  • This is covered by Parking SOP: IRS PERFORMANCE…CHECK
178
Q

What are the flight instrument tolerances (air data) and what are you checking on the ground?

A
  • PFD vs PFD: 20ft
  • PFD vs airfield elevation:@ 25ft
  • PFD vs ISIS: 100ft
179
Q

Is it a requirement to check the FD oxygen on every turnaround?

A

No – first flight of the day only

180
Q

What are the TA/RA recommendations from Airbus?

A

Select TA ONLY for:
• Engine failure
• Flight with gear down
• At specific airports where nuisance RAs are to be avoided – eg closely spaced parallel runways

181
Q

Why, when following a RA, do we select FDs OFF?

A
  • Ensure ATHR SPEED mode

* To avoid conflicting visual instructions from the F/Ds

182
Q

What is the mode reversion if NAV is lost?

A

HDG

183
Q

When do you need to make cold temperature corrections?

A

Temperatures below -10°C

184
Q

Do you need to file an ASR for a go-around?

A

Yes

185
Q

Do we carry children under the age of 14? What are the requirements?

A

Children 13 years and younger need to travel with an accompanying adult who is at least 16 years old and will take responsibility for them

186
Q

Explain the normal law protections

A

• High speed
Above VMO/MMO AP disconnects, nose up command to reduce speed
• High AoA
Between alpha prot and alpha max
Below Valphaprot, stick released returns to alpha prot
Alpha will not exceed alpha max (force maintained on stick)
• Load factor
Clean -1g to +2.5g, configured 0g to +2g
• Bank angle
Full stick 67 degrees, hands off 33 degrees
Above 45 degrees, AP disconnects and FD bars disappear
• Pitch attitude
Config 0-3: 30 degrees NU, 25 degrees NU low speed, 15 degrees ND
Config full: 25 degrees NU, 20 degrees NU low speed, 15 degrees ND
Above 25 degrees NU/13 degrees ND, FD bars disappear

187
Q

What do the various indications on the PFD speed tape mean when in normal law?

A

• Top of tape:
Black/red barbers pole: VMO/MMO
Green ticks at VMO+6
• Bottom of tape:
Top of amber hollow bar: VLS – lowest selectable speed
Top of amber and black bar: V alpha prot – min AoA/speed hands off
Top of red bar: V alpha max: min AoA/speed sidestick held back

188
Q

What are the stabilities in alternate law?

A
  • High speed (with reduced protections)

* Low speed (with reduced protections)

189
Q

When in alternate law, why is the aircraft put into direct law when the gear is lowered?

A

Pitch alternate law degrades to pitch direct law when the landing gear is extended to provide feel for flare and landing, since there is no flare mode when pitch normal law is lost

190
Q

Which slats have anti-ice?

A

Outboard 3 slats (3,4,5)

191
Q

Having fired a fire bottle during an engine fire, what should be considered on approach in icing conditions?

A

Wing anti-icing is not allowed to be used. AVOID ICING CONDITIONS
If unable, consider incrementing speeds so that min speed is not below:
Clean: VLS+15
CONFINGURED: VLS+10

192
Q

Cabin search and tidy. When for each?

A

• SEARCH: Cold Aircraft (regardless of location) - On boarding a search must be completed prior to departure even if aircraft has been left with authorised ground staff
• TIDY/SEARCH: Turnaround in the UK, Jersey, Russia and GIB
OR after flights inbound from NON-EU countries
OR prior to departure to TLV/AMM
• TIDY: Turnarounds outside the UK (except arrivals from NON-EU countries and in GIB)
End of duty

193
Q

What is the difference between commercial and fuel alternates?

A
  • Commercial: used when a diversion is likely (weather at destination close to minima), and are priority numbered.
  • Fuel: used when a diversion is deemed unlikely. Lowest fuel requirement. This is the usual case
194
Q

When does crew inexperience end?

A

• Captain: completion of type conversion, type refresher or command course
100 flying hours and 50 sectors within 120 days of final line check
First recurrent simulator check successfully passed
• F/O: 100 flying hours and 50 sectors within 120 days of final line check
Completion of continuation training

195
Q

When can a predictive windshear warning be ignored?

Can a reactive windshear warning be ignored?

A

Predictive W/S warning may be disregarded if:
• There are no other signs of possible windshear
• Reactive windshear system is operational

Reactive windshear CANNOT be ignored

196
Q

What are the pitch limits on landing for A319 and A320? When should the “pitch” call be made?

A

Pitch limits (landing gear compressed) A319: 13.9°, A320: 11.7°
(landing gear extended) A319: 15.5°, A320: 13.5°
“PITCH” callout to be made when attitude reaches or exceeds 10°

197
Q

What is the maximum Vapp you may set

A

VLS+15kt

198
Q

When can you continue with an EGPWS warning?

A

During daylight VMC conditions, with terrain and obstacles clearly in sight, the alert may be considered cautionary.

199
Q

What is the max engine restart altitude?

A

FL250 (FL275 on some aircraft)

200
Q

What is the minimum RVR for a straight in approach?

A

800m RVR

201
Q

Visual approach: minimum RVR and ceiling?

A

Vis: 5000m, ceiling: 2500ft (tbc)

202
Q

When does the landing gear safety valve operate?

A

260kt

203
Q

Explain the max FDP considerations for a delayed report, up to and over 4 hours?

A
  • < 4 hours: FDP based on time band of original report time, FDP & DP begin at actual report time.
  • ≥ 4 hours: Max FDP based on most limiting time band & FDP & DP start 4 hours after original report time
204
Q

What are the standard passenger weights?

A
  • Male: 93kg
  • Female: 75kg
  • Child: 35kg
  • Infant: nil
205
Q

What distance and height should thunderstorms be avoided by?

A
  • Laterally: min 20NM (upwind side)

* Vertically: min 5000ft

206
Q

How many consecutive approaches (after a go around) are allowed according to easyJet policy?

A

No more than TWO successive approaches may be flown when there has been a go-around due to weather conditions unless:
• there has been a significant improvement to the weather, or
• a state of emergency exists.
In exceptional circumstances, a third approach may be flown when a go-around has been carried out for non-weather related reasons providing the Commander is satisfied that landing is assured

207
Q

What are the fuel imbalance limitations?

A

• Assuming outer tanks are balanced, the inner tanks may have an imbalance of:
 1500kg if heavy tank is full (heavy tank @ 5500kg, other tank@ 4000kg)
 1600kg if heavy tank is @ 4300kg (heavy tank @4300kg, other tank @ 2700kg)
 2250kg if heavy tank is @ 2250kg (heavy tank @2250kg, other tank @ 0kg)

  • The outer tanks may have an imbalance of: 690kg
  • Some aircraft have additional limitations for takeoff. Check FCOM for MSN specific limitations.
208
Q

What is the obstacle separation during a circling approach?

A
  • Based upon the protected area, which is defined by 4.2nm arcs drawn from the threshold of every runway and tangentially linked (PANS-OPS).
  • Any obstacles in the protected area must be cleared by at least 400 ft.
209
Q

What is the timing during a procedure turn for a Cat C aircraft?

A

1:15

210
Q

How would you calculate the landing and approach climb gradient?

A
  • Approach Climb: One engine inoperative, gear up & approach configuration
  • Landing Climb: All engines operating, gear down & landing configuration.

• Approach climb 2.1% gross
(LPC LDG Perf. gives this, hence Single Engine Case considered by the LPC.)
• LOW VIS climb 2.5% gross
(More stringent version of approach climb applied if DH < 200 feet.) •
• Landing Climb 3.2% gross
(Less limiting for 2 eng aircraft than the Approach Climb, hence APPR CLB considered.)

  • These gradients are calculated for certification purposes only & are thus academic. Practically, all LIDO Plates are designed with a 2.5% gradient in the Go-Around & if different the gradient will be stated on the plate.
  • LPC takes into account the single engine case, thus this is the Approach Climb (more restrictive for 2 engine aircraft.)
211
Q

Actions if passenger had dangerous goods on the ground? In flight?

A

On ground:
Offload the dangerous goods

In flight:
• Keep flight deck door locked. • Consider use of appropriate aircraft emergency procedures for fire, smoke or fume removal – SEE QRH. • No smoking sign on. • Seatbelt sign on. • If appropriate, consider landing as soon as possible. • Consider turning off non-essential electrical power. • Determine source of smoke fumes fire. • For dangerous goods incidents in the passenger cabin, refer to Cabin Crew checklist and coordinate flight deck and Cabin Crew actions. • If possible determine emergency response drill code. • If situation permits, seek guidance from OCC to help deal with incident. • If situation permits, notify ATC of the dangerous goods being carried.
After Landing • Disembark passengers and crew before opening any cargo hold doors. • Inform ground personnel emergency services of nature of dangerous goods and where stowed. • Make appropriate entry in maintenance log.

212
Q

Describe the visual pattern from downwind

A
•	Downwind:
1500ft AAL, GREEN DOT MAX
GA altitude in FCU
TRK/FPA downwind TRK, 
FLAP 1
•	Abeam threshold:
Start timing: 3s per 100ft AAL (45s for 1500ft)
•	End of downwind:
FLAP 2
Set inbound TRK and turn base (20 degree bank angle)
Start descent 300-400fpm
•	Once FLAP 2:
GEAR DOWN
FLAP 3
FLAP FULL
•	500ft RA
Stable criteria met
213
Q

What are the standard weights for baggage?

A
  • Domestic: 11 kg
  • EU: 13 kg
  • Other: 13 kg
  • Int’cont: 15 kg
214
Q

How often are the easyJet suite of manuals updated?

A

Every 6 months

215
Q

Where would you find the list for required equipment for RNAV?

A

FCOM PRO-SPO-51

216
Q

Explain the max FDP considerations for a delayed report, up to and over 4 hours.

A

• Less than 4 hours: FDP based on time band of original report time.
FDP and DP begin at actual report time
• 4 hours or more: Max FDP based on most limiting time band
FDP and DP begin 4 hours after original report time

217
Q

What is the difference between:

Thrust lock, Alpha/Speed lock, Alpha floor, TOGA LOCK?

A
  • Thrust lock: Occurs when autothrust disengaged (levers in CL or MCT) by pressing ATHR FCU button, or due to failure. Thrust is locked at setting at disconnect time. THR LK flashes in AMBER on FMA.
  • Alpha floor: TOGA thrust is commanded when AoA reaches a threshold, regardless of thrust lever position. Requires ATHR and NORMAL LAW. When clear of the Alpha Floor condition, thrust mode is TOGA LOCK.
  • TOGA lock: When Alpha Floor condition is removed, TOGA thrust is locked at TOGA LOCK
  • Alpha/Speed lock: Inhibits flap retraction at high AoA or low airspeed. This is NOT an ATHR function.
218
Q

When in E.E.C what happens

a) In flight below 140kt?
b) On ground below 100kt?
c) On ground below 50kt?

A

a) Batteries only will supply the electrical network. AC ESS, DC ESS, HOT BUS 1 and HOT BUS 2 are connected. AC ESS SHED and DC ESS SHED are lost
b) AC SHED, DC SHED are lost. DC BAT BUS automatically connects
c) AC ESS BUS is lost, leading to loss of all display units

219
Q

Landing distance procedures –
When should you use “without reverser”?
What multiple failures are you allowed to combine?

A
  • When calculating the IFLD on the LPC as it defaults to MAX reverse for both WET & DRY runways.
  • None if using the QRH. Apply as many as required using the LPC.
220
Q

Using the LPC for a DAMP runway. What selection do you apply in the LPC for Takeoff, Landing-Dispatch & Landing-Inflight?

A
  • Take-off: DRY
  • Landing – dispatch: WET
  • Landing – Inflight: (5) GOOD
221
Q
Using the LPC for a SLIPPERY WHEN WET runway. What selection do you apply in the LPC for 
•	Takeoff
•	Landing-Dispatch
•	Landing-Inflight
For whole runway, and portions only
A

• • Take-off (whole runway): ICY if OAT equal to or below 5C
STANDING WATER (12.7mm) if OAT >5C
• Take-off (portions): WET
• Landing – dispatch (whole runway): STANDING WATER
• Landing – dispatch (portions): WET
• Landing – Inflight (whole runway): (3) MEDIUM
• Landing – Inflight (portions): (5) GOOD

222
Q

Explain GS MINI

A
  • Ground speed mini concept has been defined to prevent the aircraft energy from dropping below a minimum level during final approach.
  • The purpose of the “ground speed mini function” is to take advantage of the aircraft inertia when the wind conditions vary during the approach.
  • It does so by providing the flight crew with an adequate indicated speed target.
  • The lowest speed target is limited to VAPP and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-5 in CONF FULL.
223
Q

What cockpit lighting is available in EEC?

A

RIGHT hand DOME LIGHT
LEFT MAIN INSTRUMENT PANEL light
SBY COMPASS/ICE INICATOR light

224
Q

When does a SBY count for half of its value in calculation of a DP?

A

That portion of the standby duty when undertaken at home, or in suitable accommodation provided by easyJet, which takes place during the period 2200 to 0800 local time, when the crew member can take undisturbed rest and is not called out for duty.

225
Q

What is the definition of an ‘assured landing’?

A

A landing is assured if, in the judgement of the flightcrew, it can be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and/or airborne facilities (e.g. CATII/III to CATI)
In general this means that Cat I minimas must be available at Cat III equipped aerodromes and non-precision minimas must be available at Cat I equipped aerodromes

226
Q

If one or multiple portions of the runway are notified as “MAY BE SLIPPERY WHEN WET”, how do we account for this using the LPC for take-off or landing?

A
  • Sum the total length of all the runway sections notified as MAY BE SLIPPERY WHEN WET
  • Select SINGLE RWY COMPUTATION and MODIFY RWY
  • Subtract affected length from total runway length
  • (Decreased runway length from runway start)
  • Apply appropriate condition to the remainder of the runway
227
Q

What is the order of priority of Company Manuals?

A
  • Company NOTAMS, Crew Alerts and Crew Bulletins
  • Notices to crew (NTC) – Operational information, which are specified as superseding Operating manuals
  • OEB’s
  • Operations Manuals
  • FCOM
  • FCTM

Captains Never Owe Others Fuel Fee

228
Q

What are the ALTERNATE LAW ‘protections’

A

• Load factor LIMITATION (with and without reduced protections
Similar to NORMAL LAW
Clean -1.0g – 2.5g, configured 0g – 2.0g
• Low speed stability (with reduced protections)
Active 5-10kt above VSW
Gentle nose down force to maintain VSW+5-10kt
Audio stall warnings: ‘crickets’ and “STALL” voice close to stall margin
• High speed stability (with reduced protections)
Activated above VMO/MMO
Nose up demand reduces speed
Aural overspeed warning

229
Q

Under what circumstances, if any at all, would you consider pulling the CB for the CVR

A
  • Following an accident or serious incident, the Captain should stop the CVR by pulling the associated circuit breaker after landing, this will prevent the recording being overwritten.
  • (The FDR will stop recording automatically after the second engine is shutdown and requires no flightcrew action)
230
Q

What are the limitations regarding use of the IRS?

A
  • The ground alignment of the IRS has been demonstrated to be acceptable between 73°N and 73°S
  • Flights using the NAV mode are prohibited north of 73°N and south of 60°S
231
Q

When a nav accuracy check IS required, when should it be done?

A
  • Periodically in the cruise

* 10,000ft in the descent